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Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review > Pharmacology I > Flashcards

Pharmacology I Flashcards

1
Q

Butorphanol is commonly used as of the following?

  • Antitussive agent
  • Antidiarrheal agent
  • Antiemetic
  • Bronchodilator
A

Antitussive agent

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2
Q

Which agency regulates the sale and use of controlled substances?

  • APHIS
  • FDA
  • USDA
  • DEA
A

DEA

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3
Q

Which non-narcotic agent causes emesis in cats?

  • Morphine
  • Xylazine
  • Chlorpromazine
  • Diazepam
A

Xylazine

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4
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the routes of administration from fastest to slowest absorption?

IV > SQ > PO > IM

IM > IV > SQ >PO

PO > IV > IM > SQ

IV > IM > SQ > PO

A

IV > IM > SQ > PO

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5
Q

Which of the following is a parenteral route of administration?

  • Suppository
  • Oral tablets
  • Subcutaneous injection
  • Nasogastric tube
A

Subcutaneous injection

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6
Q

Which food-producing animal drug has the shortest withdrawal time?

  • One with a half-life of 12 hours
  • One with a half-life of 60 minutes
  • One with a half-life of 3 days
  • One with a half-life of 30 minutes
A

One with a half-life of 30 minutes

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7
Q

Heartworm preventative that is also effective against sarcoptic mange and ear mites is

  • Diethylcarbamazine (Filaribits)
  • Milbemycin (Interceptor)
  • Ivermectin (Heartgard)
  • Selamectin (Revolution)
A

Selamectin (Revolution)

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8
Q

A cat with hyperthyroid disease may be treated with all but which of the following?

  • Methimazole
  • Thyroidectomy
  • I-131 therapy
  • Fenbendazole
A

Fenbendazole

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9
Q

What term refers to medication administered into a joint?

  • Intra-arterial
  • Intra-articular
  • Epidural
  • Intrathecal
A

Intra-articular

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10
Q

Which of the following is antimicrobial, antiprotozoal and anti-inflammatory?

  • Pyrantel
  • Trimethoprim
  • Clorsulon
  • Metronidazole
A

Metronidazole

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11
Q

Enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin and orbifloxacin are all which type of drug?

  • Cephalosporins
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Fluroquinolones
  • Penicillin
A

Fluroquinolones

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12
Q

Which drug is manufactured in both 1:1,000 and 1:10,000 concentrations?

  • Epinephrine
  • Dopamine
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Lidocaine
A

Epinephrine

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13
Q

Which agency regulates the sale and use of controlled substances?

  • FDA
  • APHIS
  • DEA
  • USDA
A

DEA

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14
Q

All of the following organs can facilitate the elimination of drugs except

  • Kidneys
  • Spleen
  • Lungs
  • Liver
A

Spleen

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15
Q

A medication that requires gloves when handling and can cause aplastic anemia in humans and should never be used in animals intended for food is which of the following

  • Tetracycline
  • Erythromycin
  • Gentamycin
  • Chloramphenicol
A

Chloramphenicol

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16
Q

Which drug is effective against both nematodes and arthropods?

  • Fenbendazole
  • Ivermectin
  • Pyrantel
  • Clorsulon
A

Ivermectin

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17
Q

Which cardiovascular drug needs to be monitored through blood level testing?

  • Lidocaine
  • Digoxin
  • Lasix
  • Dopamine
A

Digoxin

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18
Q

Which topical drugs should not be used with a corneal ulcer?

  • Flurbiprofen
  • Lubricants
  • Cyclosporin
  • Glucocorticoids
A

Cyclosporin

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19
Q

What type of drug is sucralfate (Carafate)?

  • Antibloat
  • Antidiarrheal
  • Laxative
  • Antiulcer
A

Antiulcer

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20
Q

Which drug is most likely to be prescribed to prevent motion sickness?

  • Apomorphine
  • Dimenhydrinate
  • Atropine
  • Syrup of ipecac
A

Dimenhydrinate

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21
Q

A cow is accidentally dosed with an equine dose of xylazine. What drug should immediately be delivered?

  • Atipamezole
  • Yohimbine
  • None. The doses are the same for cows and horses.
  • Epinephrine
A

Yohimbine

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22
Q

Which is the best drug to treat ventricular fibrillation?

  • Lidocaine
  • Bretylium
  • Verapamil
  • Propranolol
A

Lidocaine

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23
Q

What medications cause the pupils to constrict?

  • Miotics
  • Mydriatics
  • Diuretics
  • Emetics
A

Miotics

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24
Q

Drug excretion occurs primarily in which organs?

  • Kidney and liver
  • Spleen and pancreas
  • Stomach and intestine
  • Pancreas and kidney
A

Kidney and liver

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25
Q

What is the biological half-life of a drug?

  • When an animal only receives half of the required dose
  • The time it takes 50% of the animals to die from the dose
  • The time the drug is good on the shelf
  • The time it takes an animal to eliminate half of the dose
A

The time it takes an animal to eliminate half of the dose

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26
Q

Which group of anesthetics causes muscle rigidity and mild analgesia?

  • Propofol
  • Inhalents
  • Barbiturates
  • Dissociatives
A

Dissociatives

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27
Q

Which emetic can be given in the subconjunctival sac?

  • Hydrogen peroxide
  • Syrup of ipecac
  • Apomorphine
  • Xylazine
A

Apomorphine

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28
Q

An antitussive is used to treat what condition?

  • Bradycardia
  • Coughing
  • Separation anxiety
  • Diarrhea
A

Coughing

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29
Q

What does it mean to administer medication PO?

  • Intravenously
  • Intramuscularly
  • Rectally
  • Orally
30
Q

What is critical to do with a patient recovering from nitrous oxide-enhanced anesthesia?

  • Observe patient carefully for signs of seizures
  • Oxygenate for 5 - 10 minutes
  • Give an injection of the appropriate reversal agent
  • Allow patient to recuperate in a dark, quiet area
A

Oxygenate for 5 - 10 minutes

31
Q

Which group of drugs prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II?

  • Arteriole dilators
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Venodilators
  • Combined vasodilators
A

ACE inhibitors

32
Q

Which of the following would be used to control epileptic seizures?

  • Meperidine
  • Ketamine HCl
  • Doxapram HCl
  • Diazepam
33
Q

Acetylcystein (mucomyst) is an antidote for which toxicity?

  • Lidocaine
  • Opioid
  • Acetaminophen
  • Digoxin
A

Acetaminophen

34
Q

Serious potential side effects of estrogens include which of the following?

  • Bone marrow suppression and pyometra
  • Cardiac arrhythmias and pulmonary edema
  • Renal failure and gastric ulcers
  • Hemorrhage and thromboembolism
A

Bone marrow suppression and pyometra

35
Q

Warfarin toxicity is treated with which of the following?

  • Vitamin K1 (mephyton)
  • Streptokinase
  • Protamine sulfate
  • Coumarin
A

Vitamin K1 (mephyton)

36
Q

Which of the following types of drugs promote excretion of urine?

  • Emetics
  • Anticholinergics
  • Antibiotics
  • Diuretics
37
Q

How is furosemide classified?

  • Antiarrhythmics
  • Positive inotropes
  • Vasodilators
  • Diuretics
38
Q

Which class of drug poses the most threat to those handling the medication?

  • Anthelmintics
  • Antiprotozoals
  • Antibiotics
  • Antineoplastics
A

Antineoplastics

39
Q

Fenbendazole is a common de-wormer given to horses. Fenbendazole has no efficacy against which parasite?

  • roundworms
  • large strongyles
  • bots
  • pinworms
40
Q

Thiobarbiturates should not be administered to

  • Rottweilers
  • Collies
  • Greyhounds
  • Spaniels
A

Greyhounds

41
Q

Why do animals become resistant to phenobarbitals?

  • The half-life is too short
  • They excrete the drug through the kidneys
  • Liver enzymes are induced, causing the animal to develop tolerance
  • They cannot Bio-transform the drug
A

Liver enzymes are induced, causing the animal to develop tolerance

42
Q

Which anti-inflammatory can readily penetrate skin and must be handled cautiously?

  • Aspirin
  • Rimadyl
  • Dexamethasone
  • DMSO
43
Q

ACE inhibitors are used to treat which condition?

  • Hypertension
  • Urinary incontinence
  • Seizures
  • Asthma
A

Hypertension

44
Q

Which category of controlled drugs is most tightly controlled?

  • II
  • IV
  • V
  • I
45
Q

Which of the following would be used to treat muscle spasms?

  • Methocarbamol
  • Apomorphine
  • Mannitol
  • Amphotericin
A

Methocarbamol

46
Q

Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?

  • LRS
  • Distilled water
  • 50% dextrose
  • 0.9% saline
A

50% dextrose

47
Q

What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity in cats?

  • Amphotericin
  • Methocarbimol
  • Vitamin K
  • N-acetylcysteine
A

N-acetylcysteine

48
Q

Neomycin, streptomycin, gentamycin and dihydrostreptomycin belong to what class of antibiotics?

  • Aminoglycosides
  • Polymixins
  • Tetracyclines
  • Nitrofurans
A

Aminoglycosides

49
Q

What does the term OD mean on a prescription?

  • Left ear
  • Right eye
  • Left eye
  • Right ear
50
Q

Which of the following is commonly used to treat cestode infestation?

  • Sulfamezathine
  • Piperazine
  • Praziquantel
  • Ivermectin
A

Praziquantel

51
Q

Which antimicrobial is banned from use in food animals due to the risk to human health?

  • Oxytetracycline
  • Dicloxacillin
  • Trimethoprim sulfa
  • Chloramphenicol
A

Chloramphenicol

52
Q

Antiemetics are indicated in which situation?

  • Hysteria
  • Apnea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
53
Q

Which class of antibiotics is most associated with joint cartilage damage in young, growing animals?

  • Sulfonamides
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Penicillins
  • Aminoglycosides
A

Fluoroquinolones

54
Q

Glucocorticoids are used to treat all of the following except

  • Musculoskeletal conditions
  • Immune-mediated disorders
  • Infections
  • Allergies
A

Infections

55
Q

Aminoglycosides cause toxicity to what organ(s)?

  • Pancreas
  • Spleen
  • Liver and kidney
  • Kidney and ear
A

Kidney and ear

56
Q

What is given to treat an animal with eclampsia?

  • Insulin
  • Potassium
  • Glucose
  • Calcium
57
Q

What is the role of a bacteriostatic drug?

  • Stop fungal growth
  • Kill viruses
  • Kill bacteria
  • Stop bacterial growth
A

Stop bacterial growth

58
Q

What type of organism are the drugs ketoconazole and griseofulvin effective against?

  • Bacteria
  • Flukes
  • Viruses
  • Fungi
59
Q

What term refers to the alteration of a drug from the original manufactured form, such as dilution, grinding, or mixing with other drugs?

  • Diversion
  • Biotransformation
  • Compounding
  • Administration
A

Compounding

60
Q

Which antibiotics are not ideal for young animals?

  • Penicillins and cephalosporins
  • Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines
  • Penicillins and aminoglycosides
  • Beta-lactamase inhibitors and fluoroquinolones
A

Fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines

61
Q

Which insulin form is used initially to treat a DKA cat (diabetic ketoacidosis)?

  • Short acting
  • Ultra-long acting
  • Intermediate acting
  • Long acting
A

Short acting

62
Q

The effects of which toxin can be counteracted with Vitamin K?

  • Metaldehyde
  • Brodifacoum
  • Acetominophen
  • Theobromine
A

Brodifacoum

63
Q

Phenybutazone is an NSAID commonly used to treat chronic lameness in horses. What is the most significant adverse effect of this therapy?

  • gastric ulcers
  • pulmonary thrombosis
  • liver necrosis
  • renal insufficiency
A

gastric ulcers

64
Q

A sedated dog with a normal heart rate of 60-120 beats/min now has a heart rate of 40-50 beats per minute. Which of the following is most likely to cause this?

  • Diazepam
  • Dexmedetomidine
  • Ketamine
  • Acepromazine
A

Dexmedetomidine

65
Q

Griseofulvin acts on

  • Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
  • Gram-negative bacteria
  • Gram-positive bacteria
  • Dermatophytes
A

Dermatophytes

66
Q

A vaccine made from bacteria is called a/an

  • Prokaryotin
  • Bacterin
  • Modified
  • Attenuated
67
Q

Acetylpromazine maleate causes

  • Reduced salivation
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Respiratory depression
A

Hypotension

68
Q

You are working on an equine breeding farm and need sedation to examine a stallions teeth. Which drug is not going to be used for this purpose?

  • Acepromazine (promace)
  • Detomidine (dormosedan)
  • Xylazine (Rompun)
  • Diazepam (valium)
A

Acepromazine (promace)

69
Q

Which of the following is an anticholinergic?

  • Glycopyrrolate
  • Acepromazine
  • Ketamine HCl
  • Xylazine
A

Glycopyrrolate

70
Q

Prostaglandins may do which of the following except

  • Induce abortions
  • Synchronize estrus
  • Induce estrus
  • Induce parturition
A

Induce abortions

71
Q

The drug label states that the drug is considered a coccidiostat. Which of the following would the drug most likely be used for?

  • Flukes (liver or lung fluke)
  • Ascarids (toxocara, toxascaris)
  • Protozoa (eimeria, giardia)
  • Tapeworms (taenia)

Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review (13 decks)

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