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Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review > Laboratory Procedures > Flashcards

Laboratory Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

Which endoparasite may NOT be routinely detected on a fecal flotation?

  • Toxocara canis
  • Isospora felis

– Ancylostoma caninum

  • Dipylidium caninum
A
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2
Q

Macrocytic anemia suggests?

  • Regeneration
  • Lack of hemoglobin
  • Iron deficiency

– Bone marrow pathology

A
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3
Q

The parasite distinguished by white operculated eggs cemented to the hair shaft of its host is

  • Louse
  • Tick
  • Flea
  • Mite
A

Louse

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4
Q

The TSH response test is used to confirm what disease?

  • hypothyroidism
  • male infertility
  • ovarian cysts
  • pancreatic insufficiency
A

hypothyroidism

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5
Q

Where are granular casts found in urine sediment formed?

  • renal tubules
  • ureters
  • bladder
  • urethra
A

renal tubules

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6
Q

A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is

  • Transplacental
  • Ingestion of infective stage
  • Skin penetration
  • Transmammary
A

Skin penetration

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7
Q

The blood chemistry test ALT is specific for what body organ?

  • heart
  • gonads
  • liver
  • kidneys
A

liver

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8
Q

A reticulocyte count should be included in the CBC in which of the following instances?

  • an 8 year old dog with a platelet count of 30,000/uL
  • a 3 year old dog with a total WBC count of 32,000/uL
  • a 9 year old horse with a total WBC of 2,000/uL
  • a 13 year old cat with a PCV of 19%
A

a 13 year old cat with a PCV of 19%

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9
Q

Uric acid is the main nitrogenous waste in

  • Birds
  • Dogs
  • Horses
  • Cattle
A

Birds

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10
Q

Fibrinogen is produced in the

  • Liver
  • Pancreas
  • Spleen
  • Bone marrow
A

Liver

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11
Q

What is a useful liver test not found on most in-house panels?

  • Alanine aminotransferase
  • Creatine phosphokinase
  • Bilirubin
  • Bile acids
A

Bile acids

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12
Q

What microorganism is an etiologic agent of ringworm?

  • Mycobacterium sp.
  • Micrococcus sp.
  • Microsporum sp.
  • Moraxella sp.
A

Microsporum sp.

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13
Q

What fly is responsible for the greatest economic loses in US cattle?

  • Horn fly
  • Face fly
  • Stable fly
  • Screw worm fly
A

Horn fly

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14
Q

Which disease is caused by a Gram positive bacteria?

– salmonellosis

  • tetanus

– brucellosis

  • kennel cough
A
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15
Q

What term describes the area around a sensitivity disc on an agar plate that has no growth?

  • zone of inhibition
  • zone of resistance
  • zone of growth
  • zona fascilulata
A

zone of inhibition

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16
Q

Which of these is a NON burrowing mange mite

  • Notoedres cati
  • Sarcoptes scabiei
  • Psoroptes cuniculi

– Demodex

A
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17
Q

The species of the genus can cause strangles in horses

  • Malassezia
  • Streptococcus
  • Clostridium
  • Pseudomonas
A

Streptococcus

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18
Q

Which of the following WBC counts would represent leukopenia in the dog?

  • 30,000
  • 10,000
  • 5,000
  • 20,000
A

5,000

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19
Q

Calcium oxalate crystals

  • Are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity
  • Are seen with hepatic disease
  • Have three to six sides
  • Have a characteristic coffin-lid appearance
A

Are seen with ethylene glycol toxicity

20
Q

With significant dehydration, you would expect which of the following in the urine and in the blood?

  • Decreased USG and PCV
  • Elevated USG and decreased PCV
  • Decreased USG and increased PCV
  • Elevated USG and PCV
A

Elevated USG and PCV

21
Q

What happens in a urine sample that is left unrefrigerated for more than 30 minutes?

  • casts will degenerate

– specific gravity changes

  • bacteria degenerate
  • RBC’s multiply
A
22
Q

Which cell types are found in the highest percentage on a normal bovine differential,?

  • lymphocyte
  • monocyte
  • neutrophil
  • eosinophil
A

lymphocyte

23
Q

Which of the following parasites is best seen with a direct smear?

  • Dirofilaria
  • Habronema
  • Trichuris
  • Giardia
A

Giardia

24
Q

What color do Gram positive organisms stain?

  • blue
  • red
  • green
  • yellow
A

blue

25
Q

What tick is the vector of Lyme disease?

  • Argas
  • Otobius
  • Ixodes
  • Rhipicephalus
A

ixodes

26
Q

How should a DTM vial be cultured?

  • in the dark, at 35º C, with the cap loosely secured
  • in the dark, at room temperature, with the cap tightly fastened
  • in bright light, at 35º C, with the cap tightly secured.
  • in the dark, at room temperature, with the cap loosely secured
A

in the dark, at room temperature, with the cap loosely secured

27
Q

Which of these immunoglobulins is found on mucous membranes and is stimulated by intranasal vaccines?

  • IgG
  • IgA
  • IgM
  • IgE
A

IgA

28
Q

An adjusted total leukocyte count needs to be made in the presence of:

  • target cells.
  • nucleated red blood cells.
  • immature red blood cells.
  • irregular white blood cells.
A

nucleated red blood cells.

29
Q

What arthropod serves as the biological vector of Dirofilaria immitis?

  • black fleas
  • horse flies
  • fleas
  • mosquitos
A

mosquitos

30
Q

Which of the following parasites is NOT of public health significance?

  • Toxocara canis
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Strongylus vulgaris
  • Trichinella spiralis
A

Strongylus vulgaris

31
Q

Paired serum samples, drawn several weeks apart, are essential in diagnostic serology to:

  • establish the presence of a current, active infection.
  • reassure the owner of the patient that everything possible is being done.
  • provide a check on the serological procedure.
  • differentiate viral and bacterial diseases.
A

establish the presence of a current, active infection.

32
Q

Common blood collection sites for avians includes which of the following

  • Jugular and cutaneous ulnar veins
  • Retro-orbital and toe nail clip
  • Tail and cephalic veins
  • Saphenous and cephalic veins
A

Jugular and cutaneous ulnar veins

33
Q

Compared to roundworm ova, coccidian appear

  • Three times as big
  • Much smaller
  • Same size
  • Twice as big
A

Much smaller

34
Q

What is the most common method used for the detection of Feline Leukemia Virus?

  • complement fixation test
  • ELISA test
  • hemagglutination test
  • Sabin-Feldman test
A

ELISA test

35
Q

The term anisocytosis refers to cells that:

  • are enlarged
  • vary in shape
  • are unequal in size
  • have the appearance of a sickle
A

are unequal in size

36
Q

Which microorganism is often associated with chronic otitis in the dog

  • Cryptococcus sp.
  • Candida sp.
  • Microsporum sp.
  • Malassezia sp.
A

Malassezia sp.

37
Q

Which of the following solutions is used for preservation of tissue specimens?

  • 50% Dextrose
  • formalin
  • 3% HCl
  • normal saline
A

formalin

38
Q

In what stage of the estrous cycle does vaginal cytology show the highest percentage of anuclear cells?

  • metestrus
  • anestrus
  • proestrus
  • estrus
A
39
Q

Decrease in albumin may occur in

  • Carnivorous diet
  • Chronic liver disease
  • Gastroenteritis
  • Vegetarian diet
A
40
Q

Culture plates for bacteriology should be incubated in what position?

  • right side up, separated
  • upside down
  • right side up, stacked
  • stacked on their sides
A
41
Q

What anticoagulant is used for APTT and PT tests?

  • heparin
  • EDTA
  • sodium citrate
  • none
A
42
Q

Which statement regarding Demodex is FALSE?

  • It is cigar shaped
  • Live mites and or eggs may be found in a skin scraping
  • It resides in the hair follicles and sebaceous glands of certain mammals
  • It is highly contagious
A
43
Q

EDTA plasma cannot be used for testing _________ because it forms a complex with it.

  • Magnesium
  • Calcium
  • Phosphorus
  • Potassium
A
44
Q

The non-pathogenic gram-positive rods found on skin are

  • Anaerobes
  • Dermatophytes
  • Diptheroids
  • Coliforms
A
45
Q

What organ is assessed by the fecal trypsin test?

  • kidney
  • stomach
  • pancreas
  • liver
A
46
Q

What is a left shift in a CBC?

  • decreased young white cells
  • increased young white cells
  • increased total white cell count
  • increased red cells
A
47
Q

What term describes an increased number of circulating leukocytes?

  • leukopenia
  • leukocytosis
  • polycythemia
  • erythropoiesis
A

Licensure Exam Comprehensive Review (13 decks)

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