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Pharmacology II-Final > Pharmacology I > Flashcards

Pharmacology I Flashcards

1
Q

types of Anticoagulants ?

A

Parentarally and orally

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2
Q

Heparin?

A

Parenterally administered
derived from pig intestines or cow lungs.
Administed parenteraly to prevent the formulation of blood clots and have many indications.
have poor oral absortion so onyl given by IV

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3
Q

what is the differences between Haparin and LMWH?

A

LMWH can be dosed less frequently than heparin yet are equally effective.

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4
Q

Orally administered anticoagulants?

A

Warfarin and Dabigatran
prevent clot formation by inhibiting clotting factors at different areas of the clotting pathway.

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5
Q

What does Warfarin do?

A

interferes with the formation of citamin K-dependent clotting factors.
max effect of warfain are not achieved until 4-5 days after initiating therapy.

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6
Q

Warfain interferes with..

A

the formation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.

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7
Q

what are the test used to determine how well warfarin works?

A

PT(prothrombin time) or INR (international normalized ratio

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8
Q

Anticoahulants should not be combined with..

A

antiplatelet drugs, aspirin, NSAIDs, vitamin supplement and herbs

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9
Q

Warfarin overodse can be reversed by..

A

giving vitamin K

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10
Q

Warfarin brand name?

A

Coumadin

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11
Q

Dalteparin brand name?

A

Fragmin

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12
Q

Enoxaparin brand name?

A

Lovenox

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13
Q

Heparin brand name?

A

Heparin Leo

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14
Q

Dabigatran brand name?

A

Pradaxa

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15
Q

What do thrombolytics do?

A

are drugs that can dissolve blood clots. They are given in the early stages of stoke to open blood veesels in the brain. also used in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction.
work by activating the fibrinolytic system which is the body’s normal system for preventing excess clotting. increase the activity of plasmin and ancyme that digests fibrin and other clotting factors.

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16
Q

how well does thrombolytics work?

A

work rapidly and repoen obstructed blood vessel within 90 mins of administration.
lose shelf life rapidly after reconstitution.
must be stored in the fridge and used within 24 hours.

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17
Q

when do these drugs need to be given after a stroke occurs?

A

first 1-3 hours otherwise the risk of hemorrhage exceeds the benfit

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18
Q

Alteplase brand name?

A

Activase

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19
Q

Tenecteplase brand name?

A

TNKase

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20
Q

Drugs to treat hyperlipidemia?

A

Hyperlipidemia
HMG COA Reductase Inhibitors
Fibric Acid Derivatives
Bile acid sequestrants
Nicotinic Acid Derivatives

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21
Q

What does hyperlipdemia do?

A

is the excessive buildup of fat in the blood which is a significant risk factor for stroke and myocardial infarction.

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22
Q

What is the emphasis of treating hyperlipidemia?

A

Reducing LDLs (bad chloesterol- promotes plaque buildup) and raising HDLs (good cholesterol which transports cholesterol from cells in the artery wall back to the liver for removal)

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23
Q

What is HDL?

A

act as an antioxidant, has protective anti-inflammatory properties and also has antithrombotic, vasodilatory, and anti-infectious properties.

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24
Q

What do HMG COA Reductase inhibitors do?

A

also called “statins”
they are the most effective at lowering LDL however they only minimally elevate HDL
is an enyme that is invloved in the final step of cholesterol synthesis.
increase LDL clearance

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25
Q

Adverse effects of statins?

A

Myositis (inflammation of muscle) and rhadbomyolysis (breakdown of muscle fibers)
also elevate liver enzymes, resulting in liver dysfunction

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26
Q

Atorvastatin brand name?

A

Lipitor

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27
Q

Fluvastatin brand name?

A

Lescol

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28
Q

Lovastatin brand name?

A

Mevacor

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29
Q

Pravastatin brand name?

A

Pravachol

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30
Q

Rosuvastatin brand name?

A

Crestor

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31
Q

Simvastatin brand name?

A

Zocor

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32
Q

What do Fibric Acid Derivatives do?

A

increase the clearance of very-low density lipoproteins. Fibrates are less effective than statins at reducing LDL and in elevating HDL
Fibrates decrease LDL & triglycerides and increase HDL by activating a protein called peroxisome proliferator-activated recetor alpha

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33
Q

What happens if statins and fibrates are given together?

A

they interact and may increase the likelihood of development of myopathies

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34
Q

Gemfibrozil brand name?

A

Lopid

35
Q

Fenofibrate brand name?

A

Lipidil EZ, Lipidil Supra

36
Q

what does bile acid sequestrants agents do?

A

promote intestinal clearnace of cholesterol by binding to cholesterol-containing bile acids in the intestine. is insoluble and excreted in the feces.

37
Q

Cholesterol depletion causes..

A

LDL receptor activity which increases removal of LDLs from the blood.

38
Q

Drug of choice for pregnacy why?

A

not absorbed

39
Q

Chlestyramine must be administered..

A

at least 1 hour before or 4 hours after other medications to avoid decreasing the absorption of other drugs.

40
Q

Bild acid sequestrants can lower body levels such as vitamins A, D,E and K which cause?

A

increase triglyceride levels

41
Q

Cholestyramine brand name?

A

Olestyr

42
Q

Ezetimibe brand name?

A

Ezetrol

43
Q

Nicotinic Acid derivatives are the most effective at..

A

increasing HDL (up to 35%)

44
Q

Niacin brand name?

A

Niaspan

45
Q

What increases the risk of thyroid disorder?

A

cigarette smoking
increasing with age

46
Q

Thyroid levels are controlled by a..

A

negative feedback loop
when the need for thyroid hormones increases, the hypothalamus secretes thyroid- releasing factors (TRF): a hormone that signals the pituitary to release thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). The target site of TSH is the thyroid gland, which produces and secretes T4 and T3. Once desired levels are achieved, TSH release is turned off.

47
Q

The thyroid gland has two important duties?

A

-produces and stores its own hormones

48
Q

Graves’ disease?

A

autoimmune disease and a primary cause of thyroid hyperactivity.

49
Q

Treatment of hyperthyrodism?

A

antithyroid drugs, radioactive iodine or surgery

50
Q

what is radioactive iodine?

A

low-dose radioactive iodine is used for diagnosis, high dose is given for treatment of hyperthyroidism.

51
Q

Effects of radioactive iodine?

A

achieved after 2-3 months in most people but sometimes a second or third course of therapy is required.
Not retained by the thyroid is eliminated in the urine within 2 or 3 days

52
Q

radioactive iodine is contraindicated in..

A

pregnacy women
nursing mothers should avoid breast-feeding until radioactive iodine can no longer bed detected in the breast milk.

53
Q

what can patient develop after thyroid treatment?

A

hypothyroidism

54
Q

what should patients to prior to administration?

A

with antithyroid drug is recommended for about 2 weeks to block the synthesis of thyroid hormone.

55
Q

What do Thioamides do?

A

used for the primary treatment of hyperthyrodism or to deplete excess thyroid hormone levels in patients awaiting treatment with radioactive iodine or thyroid surgery.
These drugs block the synthesis of T4 and T3.

56
Q

Thiamazole brand name?

A

Tapazole

57
Q

Propylthiouracil brand name?

A

Propyl-thyracil

58
Q

why do thioamides agents cause an increase risk of infection?

A

produces a dangerous decrease in the number of white blood cells

59
Q

why does it take 2-4 months of therapy with propylthicouracil before max effects?

A

it takes that long until all the thyroid hormone that is stored in the thyroid gland’s follicles is depleted

60
Q

Hasimoto’s disease?

A

is an autoimmune disorder in which the body produces antibodies to its own thyroid cells and adamges the thyroid. cause of non-iodine deficiency hypothyroidism.

61
Q

treatment of hypothyroidism?

A

Thyroid replacement

62
Q

thyroid replacement?

A

administered thyroid hormones bind to the same receptor sites and produce the same action as thyroid hormones made by the body

63
Q

how does thyroid replacement work?

A

Synthetic T4 is converted to liothyronine and levothyroxine as dissimilar in their onset and duration of action as well as in potency and dosing frequency.

64
Q

levothyroxine brane name?

A

Synthroid

65
Q

Liothyronine brand name?

A

Cytomel

66
Q

when shoudl T4 be taken?

A

food delays absorption and should be taken on an empty stomach

67
Q

causes of anxiety?

A

-Environmental
-Biological
-Developmental
-Associated with socieoconomic conditions
-Combination of several factors

68
Q

4 types of anxiety disorders

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Panic disorder
Obsessive compulsive disorder
Posttraumatic stress disorder

69
Q

what is GAD?

A

Excessive worrying and tension experienced daily for longer than 6 months
-may produce restlessness, difficutly concetrating, sleep problems, irritability
-most common type
-women more likely to get it

70
Q

Symptoms associated with panic disorder?

A

-sudden onset of terror
-shortness of breath
-increased heart rate
-trembling
-nausea
-paralyzed by fear

71
Q

OCD?

A

Condition associated with an inability to control or stop repeated unwanted thoughts or behaviors
Create rituals which they perform preatedly to lessen anxiety about things they fear

72
Q

PTSD?

A

may develop in those who have participated, citnessed or been a victim of a terrifying event
Depression, substance abuse and anxiety disorders, sexually assaulted

73
Q

4 major classes of medications to treat anxiety?

A

SSRI’S
SNRI’S
TCA’S
Benzodiazepines

74
Q

what neurotrnamsitters are invloved in Anxiety?

A

GABA
Serotonin
Norepinephrine

75
Q

what does GABA do?

A

decreases neuronal excitability and nerve impulse transmission

76
Q

what does serotonin do?

A

activation of 5-Ht1a recetors in the brain decreases firing of serotenergic neurons linked to anxiety-like behavior

77
Q

what does norepinephrine do?

A

responsible for mediation some of the adrenergic-related symtoms of anxiety (increased heart rate)

78
Q

what does benzodiazepines do?

A

Short-term treatment of anxiety
Bind to receptor site on the GABAa complex and promote relaxation and reduce physical symtoms of anxiety including muscular tension
crosses the blood brain barrier and duration of action varies widely amongst agents

79
Q

duration of action of diazepam?

A

some are metabolized to active metabolites that may have a long 1/2 life and therefore a long duration of actions

80
Q

adverse reactions of benzodiazepines?

A

sedation, ataxia, confusion, reduced motor preformance, interfere with cognitive function and memory by producing amnesia.
Adverse reactions are dose-dependent
high therapeutic index with lethal dose

81
Q

Benzodiazepines should be used with caution in what patients?

A

liver disease patients

82
Q

Tolerance?

A

develops when patient must take increasing doses to achieve the same effects as were previously achieved at lower doses

83
Q

Dependence?

A

Person taking the drug must contiune to take the drug to avoid the onset of physical or psychological withdrawal symptoms.

Pharmacology II-Final (14 decks)

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