Pharmacology 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Conditions that produce pain?

A

Inflmmation, low back pain, burns, diabetic neuropathy, phantom limb, shingles, trigeminal neuralgia

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2
Q

what is trigeminal neuralgia?

A

produces headache and intense stabbing pain in areas of the face innervated by branches of the trigeminal nerve

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3
Q

how does pain signal transmission work?

A

Pain message begins with stimulation of nociceptors in peripheral tissue
The signal converted to an electrical impulse travels to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, where it is augmented or diminished by the release of neurotransmitters, amino acids and neuropeptides and then carried to the brain for interpretation

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4
Q

what is released when injury occurs?

A

proteins (cytokines) are released that produce painful inflammation

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5
Q

what is an important mediators of pain?

A

prostaglandins are synthesized

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6
Q

what is released in response to tissue injury and are part of immune system response?

A

histamine, bradykinin, serotonin

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7
Q

What do histamine, bradykinin and serotonin produce?

A

inflammation, vasodilation and pain

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8
Q

What does Glutamate do?

A

is an amino acid neurotransmitter that enhances the response to painful stimuli

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9
Q

what peptides are invloved in the modulation of pain sensations that are transmitted to the brain and control how pain is perceived

A

substance P and neurokinin A

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10
Q

what opioid peptides bind to opioid receptors and the brain and spinal cord and block or dull the pain sensations by inhibiting the release of substance P and glutamate?

A

Endorphine, enkephalines and dynorphins

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11
Q

What peptides act like natural painkillers?

A

Endorphins, enkephalins and dynorphins

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12
Q

What are opioids?

A

used to describe a drug that acts like morphine, whether naturally occurring or synthetically derived

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13
Q

Opiates are naturally occurring substances that are derived from?

A

Opium poppy

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14
Q

what does opiates and opioid produce?

A

analgesia that reduce pain sensations and alter pain perception

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15
Q

Opioid agonists drugs? what are they used to treat?

A

Methadone and Buprenorphine
treat opioid dependence

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16
Q

Opioid antagonists drugs? what do they treat?

A

Naltrexone
used to treat drug and alcohol

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17
Q

MOA of opioids?

A

bind to opioid receptor located in the dorsal route of the spinal cord to decrease painful sensations and raise the pain threshold.

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18
Q

how long shoudl fentanyl patches be worn?

A

72 hours

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19
Q

what are opioid antagonists indicated for?

A

respiratory depression caused by opioid use.

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20
Q

drug of choice in opioid antagonists?

A

Naltrexone

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21
Q

what is a warning label of Naltrexone?

A

May cause drowsiness, may impair ability to drive and avoid alcohol

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22
Q

Naloxone brane name?

A

Generics

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23
Q

Naltrexone brand name?

A

Revia

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24
Q

When can buprenorphrine be prescribed ?

A

treatment of opioid dependency

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25
Q

when can naltrexone and naloxone be prescribed?

A

withdrawl symptoms in patients who are opioid dependent

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26
Q

Opioid agonsts drugs?

A

Codeine, codeine and acetaminophen, Fentanyl, Hydromorphone, Meperidine, Methadone, Morphrine, Oxycodone, Oxycodone and acetaminophen

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27
Q

Hydromorphone brand name?

A

Dilaudid

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28
Q

Meperidine brand name?

A

Demerol

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29
Q

Morphine brand name?

A

M-Eslon, MS IR, MS Contin

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30
Q

Mixed agonists/antagonists drugs?

A

Buprenorphine, buprenorphine and naloxone, pentazocine

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31
Q

Pentazocaine brane name?

A

Talwin

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32
Q

Buprenorphine brand name?

A

Butrans

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33
Q

Nonopioid analgesics consists of what?

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, salicylates and acetaminophen

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34
Q

what does NSAIDs aspirin have?

A

analgesics, anti-inflmmatoey and antipyretic properties

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35
Q

adverse effects of NSAIDs and aspirin?

A

produce nausea, GI bleeding, and ulceration

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36
Q

Dicofenac brand name?

A

Voltaren

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37
Q

Drugs used in the treatment of neuropathic pain?

A

antidepressants, antiseizure drugs, local anesthetics and capsaicin

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38
Q

what is the first-line treatment for neuropathic pain?

A

tricyclic antidepressants

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39
Q

capsaicin is devired from?

A

chili peppers

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40
Q

how does capsaicin work?

A

applied topically and it depletes substance P from nerve terminals.
Indicated for the treatment of diabetic neuropathy and shingles

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41
Q

Desipramine brand name?

A

Norpramin

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42
Q

Gabapentin brand name?

A

Neurontin

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43
Q

Pregabalin brand name?

A

Lyrica

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44
Q

Non pharm treatment for pain?

A

education, physical therapy, cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, cytotherapy

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45
Q

Types of headache?

A

Migraine, tension-type, cluster and trigeminal cephalgia

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46
Q

Treatment of Migraines?

A

-simple analgesics
-Combination analgesics
-Serotonin (5-HT) agonists
-ergot alkaloids
-antidepressants
-beta blockers
-antiseizure

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47
Q

Triptans MOA?

A

Selective serotonin recetor agonists which stimulate vasoconstriction

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48
Q

what is the dose for triptans to prevent over use?

A

2 doses per 24 hours

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49
Q

Almostriptan brand name?

A

Axert

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50
Q

Naratriptan brand name?

A

Amerge

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51
Q

Riszatriptan brand name?

A

Maxalt

52
Q

Sumatriptan brand name?

A

Lmitrex

53
Q

Zolmitriptan brand name?

A

Zomig

54
Q

what are other medications for migraines?

A

ergot alkaloids and 5-HT agonists

55
Q

Dihydroergotamine mesylate brand name?

A

D.H.E

56
Q

Migranal brand name?

A

nasal

57
Q

Ergotamine tartrate brand name?

A

Egomar

58
Q

what does a antibiotics do?

A

is a naturally ocurring substance produced by a micoorganism or a semisynthetic substance devired from a microorganism that is capable of destroying or inhibiting the growth of another microorganism

59
Q

what factors effect treatment of bacterial infections?

A

host factors, bacterial factors and drug factors

60
Q

Mechanisms of antimicrobial action?

A

-inhibition of bacterial cell wasll synthesis
-inhibition of bacterial cell wall function
-inhibition of bacterial deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid synthesis
-inhibition of folic acid

61
Q

what is microbial resistance?

A

is the ability of bacteria to overcome the bactericidal effects of an antibiotic
microbes spread rapidly, mutate frequently and adapt with relative ease to new environments and hosts

62
Q

causes of development and spread of microbial resistance?

A

-inappropriate prescribing
-failure to complete the full course of therapy
-administration of antibacterial agents for viral infections
-antibiotics in the food chain
-lack of huidelines for preventing the spread of infections

63
Q

what are aminoglycosides used for?

A

ttreating serious infections of the bone, adsomen, heart, brain, urinary tract, reproductive system, skin and kidneys
administered to sterilize the bowel prior to bowel surgery
Ophthalmic dosage forms are also prescribed for the treatment of blepharitis and conjunctivities

64
Q

MOA of aminoglycosides?

A

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

65
Q

Adverse effects of aminoglycosides?

A

hearing loss and kidney damage

66
Q

Aminoglycosides drugs?

A

Amikacin, Gentamicin, tobramycin

67
Q

Gentamicin brand name?

A

Garamycin

68
Q

Tobramycin brand name?

A

Tobrex

69
Q

First-generation cephalosporins are?

A

effective against gram-positive aerobic bacteria.
they are effective in the treatment of staphylococcal and streptococcal infections of the skin and soft tissue

70
Q

Second-generation cephalosporins are?

A

against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and are effective for treating upper respiratory infections

71
Q

Third-generation cephalosporins are?

A

efective against gram-negative anaerobic bacteria and used for treating bacterial meningitis, gonorrhea, intra-abdominla infections

72
Q

Fourth- gen caphalosporins are?

A

given to treat pneumonia and urinary tract infections

73
Q

MOA of cephalosporins?

A

inhibit the thirs and final stage of bacterial cell wall synthesis

74
Q

first-generation drugs?

A

Cefazolin, cephalexin

75
Q

second-gen cephalosporins?

A

Cefaclor, cefuroxime

76
Q

third-gen cephalosporins?

A

cefotaxime, ceftazidime, cefriazone, cefixime

77
Q

Fouth-gen cephalosporins?

A

cefepime

78
Q

Fluoroquinolones are indicated for?

A

urinary tract infections, sinusitis, secually transmitted infections, bacterial conjuntivities, infectious diarrhea

79
Q

MOA fluoroquinolones?

A

inhibiting bacterial DNA synthesis

80
Q

Why are fluoroqunolones contrindicated?

A

in childrena dn pregnacy women becuase of the risk for cartiage deformitis

81
Q

Fluoroquinolones drugs?

A

Ciproflozacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, ofloxacin, norfloxacin

82
Q

Ciproflozacin brand name?

A

Cipro

83
Q

Levofloxacin brand name?

A

Levaquin

84
Q

Moxifloxacin brand name?

A

Avelox,Vigamox

85
Q

Ofloxacin brand name?

A

Ocuflox

86
Q

what is macrolides used for?

A

treatment of upper respiratory infections
Clarithromycin is keyingredient in treatment regimens for peptic ulcer disease caused by Helicobacter Pylori
Erythromycin is used in prevention of neonatal eye infections and acne

87
Q

MOA of macrolides?

A

inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

88
Q

Macrolides may decrease what?

A

effectiveness of oral contraceptives

89
Q

Azithromycin brand name?

A

Zithromax

90
Q

Clarithromycin brand name?

A

Biaxin

91
Q

Erythromycin base brand name?

A

ERYC

92
Q

Oxazolidiones is used in the treatment of what?

A

gram-positive bacterial pneumonia and skin structure infections.
use is limited due to adverse reactions and to limit the development of bacterial resistance

93
Q

MOA oxazolidinones?

A

inhibits bacterial protein synthesis

94
Q

Linezolid brand name?

A

Zyvoxam

95
Q

MOA of penicilins?

A

inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall of sensitive microbes

96
Q

MOA of carbapenems?

A

inhibit the thirs step in bacterial cell wall synthesis
Their spectrum is broad and they resist inactivation by microbial enzymes

97
Q

Shouls penicillin be taken on an empty stomach?

A

yes

98
Q

do penicillin affect oral contraceptives?

A

yes they decrease effectiveness

99
Q

Amoxicillin brand name?

A

Amoxil

100
Q

amoxicillin + clavulinic brand name?

A

Clavulin

101
Q

Piperacillin + tazobactam brand name?

A

tazocin

102
Q

Carbapenems drugs?

A

imipenem + cilastatin
Meropenem

103
Q

Meorpenem brand name?

A

Merrem

104
Q

Sulfonamides are used for?

A

treatment of various upper respiratory, urinary tract, skin infections and AIDS pneumonia

105
Q

What are sulfonamides?

A

antifolate drugs

106
Q

what warning label should be on sulfonamides?

A

take with lots of water
avoid taking drug with acidic foods or beverages because it can promote crystalluria

107
Q

Sulfamethoxazole+ trimethoprim brand name?

A

Septra/Bactrim/ Sulfatrim

108
Q

Tetracyclines is used for what?

A

treatment of acne, STI

109
Q

MOA of tetracyclines?

A

inhibit protein synthesis

110
Q

Tetracycline interacts with?

A

dairy products, calcium, aluminum, and ferrous supplements to form a chelated complex
reduces absorption of tetracycline

111
Q

what aux label should be on tetracyclines?

A

avoid antacids and dairy products within 2 hours of dose
avoid tanning and prolonged exposure to sunlight

112
Q

Docycycline and minocycline are more stable when?

A

acidic stomach content and have longer duration of action

113
Q

what happens when tetracycline become outdated?

A

toxic and should be dicarded

114
Q

Doxycycline brand name?

A

Vibramycin

115
Q

Minocycline brand name?

A

Minocin

116
Q

when are tetracycline interacted?

A

pregnancy and decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives

117
Q

whAT IS ISONIAZID used for?

A

used for the treatment of tuberculosis
concurrent administration of vitamin b6 recommended to prevent neurotoxicity

118
Q

Metronidazole is what? MOA

A

a amebicide
it destroys the protoxoa that causes giardiasis and trichomoniasis.

119
Q

what is teh drug of choice for treatment of clostridium difficile enteritis?

A

Metronidazole

120
Q

what should patients do when taking metronidazole?

A

avoid alcoholic beverages or medicines containing high level of alcohol

121
Q

What is mupirocin used for?

A

treat staphylococcal infections of the skin

122
Q

what is clindamycin?

A

is a antimicrobial agent used topically for the treatment of acne and vaginosis.
associated with the development of C.difficile which causes diarrhea (drinking water can reduce this risk)

123
Q

Metronidazole brand name?

A

Flagyl

124
Q

Mupirocin brand name?

A

Bactroban

125
Q

Clindamycin brand name?

A

Dalacin C

126
Q

Vancomycin brand name?

A

Vancocin