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Pharmacology > Pharmacology Final Review > Flashcards

Pharmacology Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of Nutraceuticals

A

Glucosamine Chondroitin Sulfate, Vitamins, Fatty acids

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2
Q

Examples of biologics?

A

Vaccines, Antitoxins

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3
Q

What is included in the regimen?

A

Route, dosage, frequency, and duration

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4
Q

Agency that regulates drugs and feed additives?

A

FDA

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5
Q

Agency that regulates topical pesticides

A

EPA

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6
Q

Agency that regulates biologics

A

USDA

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7
Q

What are the 5 Rights?

A

Right Drug

Right Time

Right Route

Right Amount

Right Patient

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8
Q

Four steps to pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption

Distribution

Metabolism

Excretion

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9
Q

Study of what the body does to a drug?

A

Pharmacokinetics

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10
Q

Study of what a drug does to a body?

A

Pharacodynamics

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11
Q

Biotransformation is also known as:

A

Metabolism

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12
Q

Main organ responsible for metabolism of drugs

A

Liver

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13
Q

Main organ for excretion?

A

Kidneys

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14
Q

Formula for the therapeutic index

A

LD50/LE50

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15
Q

Examples of Controlled Class I drugs

A

LSD, Marijuana, Heroine, Quaaludes, Ecstasy, Cocaine

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16
Q

Examples of Controlled Class II drugs

A

Morphine, Opiates, Pentobarbital, Fentanyl, Codeine

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17
Q

Examples of Controlled Class III Drugs

A

Zolazepam, Ketamine, Buprenorphine, Hydrocodone, ePethotahl, Teletamine, Anabolic steroids

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18
Q

Examples of Controlled Class IV Drugs

A

Butorphanol, Diazepam (Valium), Phenobarbital

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19
Q

Examples of Controlled Class V drugs

A

Anti-diarrheals, Analgesics, Cough supressants

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20
Q

Ability of a solution to initiate water movement

A

Tonicity

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21
Q

pH of < 7.2 indicates

A

Acidosis

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22
Q

pH > 7.6 indicates

A

Alkalosis

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23
Q

Common causes of acidosis

A

Ethylene glycol ingestion, salicylate ingestion, renal disease, diabetes mellitus, shock

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24
Q

Common causes of alkalosis

A

Emesis, alkaline drugs, hypoalbuminemia

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25
Q

5-6% dehydration

A

Slight loss of skin elasticity

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26
Q

6-8% dehydration

A

Tented skin, prolonged CRT, dry MM

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27
Q

10-12% dehydration

A

>3 sec CRT

Eyes sunken

Shock symptoms

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28
Q

12-15% dehydration

A

Severe shock, death

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29
Q

Fluid additive for metabloic acidosis, hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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30
Q

Fluid additive for hypokalemia

A

Potassium Chloride

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31
Q

Fluid additive for ketosis and hypoglycemia

A

Dextrose 50%

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32
Q

Fluid additive to replenish vitamins lost due to polyuria

A

B vitamins

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33
Q

Fluid additives for hypocalcemia, grass tetany, parathyroid disorder

A

Calcium Gluconate/Chloride

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34
Q

Formula for dilutions

A

C1 x V1 = C2 x V2

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35
Q

Quantity of a drug adminstered that reaches the general circulation

A

Bioavailability

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36
Q

Passage by diffusion from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

A

Passive Transport

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37
Q

DIffusion occurs until it reaches a _____ and can enter the circulation

A

capillary

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38
Q

Passage from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

A

Active Transport

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39
Q

Mode through which electrolytes are transported

A

Active transport

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40
Q

In more alkaline environment (increased pH) acidic drugs are ______ absorbed while alkaline drugs are ______ absorbed

A

Acidic drugs poorly absorbed

Alkaline drugs are better absorbed

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41
Q

In more acidic environment (decreased pH) acidic drugs are ____ absorbed while alkaline drugs are ____ absorbed.

A

Acidic drugs are better absorbed

Alkaline drugs are poorly absorbed

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42
Q

Examples of tissue barriers

A

Blood-Brain barrier

Ocular barrier

Placental barrier

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43
Q

When dosing drugs, the patient’s ______ ______ level must be considered

A

plasma protein

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44
Q

A drug that has a high affinity and efficacy and causes a specific action

A

Agonist

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45
Q

A drug that has less affinity and efficacy

A

Partial agonist

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46
Q

A drug that blocks another drug from combining with a receptor

A

Antagonist

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47
Q

Raises drug concentration to a therapeutic range in a short time

A

Loading dose

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48
Q

Periodic smaller dose to maintain therapeutic range

A

Maintenance dose

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49
Q

Defines the toxicity of the drug

A

Therapeutic index

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50
Q

Plasmid mechanism

A

Acquisition of an additional piece of DNA from another bacteria

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51
Q

Mutation mechanism

A

Spontaneous change in DNA

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52
Q

Renders the drug useless

A

Enzyme action

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53
Q

Medications that work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis

A

Penicillins

Cephalosporins

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54
Q

Cell wall synthesis is associated with ______

A

peptidoglycan

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55
Q

Medications that work by inhibiting protein synthesis

A

Aminoglycosides

Tetracyclines

Macrolides

Lincosamides

Chloramphenicol

Florfenicol

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56
Q

Protein synthesis is associated with __________

A

Ribosomes

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57
Q

Medications that work by damaging the cell membrane (osmosis)

A

Polymyxin-B

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58
Q

Medications that work by interfering with the metabolism (folic acid)

A

Sulfonamides

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59
Q

Medications that work by impairing nucleic acid (DNA, RNA)

A

Fluoroquinolones

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60
Q

Penicillin deactivated by gastric enzymes

A

Penicillin G

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61
Q

Penicillins bioavailability decrease in the presence of ____

A

Food

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62
Q

What species can NOT be given penicillins?

A

Guinea pigs, hamsters, rabbits, snakes, birds, turtles, chinchillas

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63
Q

These pills must be kept in foil until ready to use or they will lose activity

A

Clavamox (Amoxi with clavulanic acid)

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64
Q

Penicillin used for pyodermas

A

Oxacillin

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65
Q

Penicillins used to treat staph and pyodermas

A

Dicloxacillin

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66
Q

Penicillin used for dry cow intramammary preparations

A

Cloxacillin

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67
Q

Medications that are ‘milky’ should NEVER be given via ____

A

IV injectable

*Except Propofol

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68
Q

Drugs used to treat shipping fever, respiratory infections, mastitis, foot rot

A

Cephalosporins

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69
Q

Tetracyclines inhibit _____ ______ and are ______

A

inhibit protien synthesis and are bacteriostatic

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70
Q

Drugs that treat for rickettsial diseases (RMSF, lyme disease, Ehrlichiosis)

A

Tetracyclines

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71
Q

Drugs that should never be given IV to horses (unless intentionally euthanizing)

A

Tetracyclines

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72
Q

Drugs that disrupt DNA function and are bactericidal

A

Fluoroquinolones and Quinolones

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73
Q

Known as the “big gun” antibiotics, and can be given to pocket pets

A

Enrofloxacin

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74
Q

Drugs that can cause damage to joint cartilage of growing animals

A

Enrofloxacin

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75
Q

Drugs that prevent synthesis of folic acid

A

Sulfonamides

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76
Q

3 types of sulfonamides

A

Systemic sulfas

Enteric sulfas

Potentiated sulfas

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77
Q

Drugs commonly used to treat coccidiosis, toxoplasmosis, shipping fever

A

Sulfonamides

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78
Q

Drugs that cause toxicity in cats from salicylates

A

Sulfonamides

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79
Q

Drugs that can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

A

Aminoglycosides

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80
Q

Drugs that inhibit protein synthesis and are bactericidal

A

Aminoglycosides

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81
Q

Parenteral aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin, Kanamycin, Amikacin

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82
Q

Enteric Aminoglycosides

A

Neomycin (Neomix powder)

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83
Q

Topical Aminoglycosides

A

Neomycin (triple antibiotic, panalog)

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84
Q

_____ _____ is very important when giving parenteral aminoglycosides

A

Fluid therapy

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85
Q

Drugs that inhibit protein synthsis and are bacteriostatic OR bactericidal

A

Lincosamides

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86
Q

Contraindications for lincosamides

A

Rabbits, hamsters, guinea pigs, avians, horses, ruminants

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87
Q

Drugs that inhibit protein synthesis and are bacteriostatic

A

Macrolides

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88
Q

Used for cattle with shipping fever or respiratory disease, but can not be given to dairy cows >20 months old. Given IM only

A

Florfenicol (Nuflor)

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89
Q

Injectable that damages the cell membrane and is often combined with other drugs in ointments

A

Polymyxin B

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90
Q

Treats Rhodococcus equi pneumonia and staph infections in small animals. Side effects include turning urine, salive, tears orange

A

Rifampin

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91
Q

Polyene antifungal agents affect the cell membrane and include _______ and _______

A

Nystatin (fungal sprays), Amphotericin B (systemic)

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92
Q

Imadazole antifungal agents affect cell membrane and growth inhibition and include ______, _____. _______. _______

A

Ketaconazole, Miconazole, Itraconazole, Fluconazole

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93
Q

Anti-metabolic antifungal agents that affect RNA and proteins

A

Flucytosine

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94
Q

Superficial antifungal agents that inhibit cell division

A

Griseofulvin

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95
Q

Treatment for dermatophytosis

A

Griseofulvin

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96
Q

Dosage form of Griseofulvin that can not be given to pregnant animals

A

Fulvicin

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97
Q

The ultramicrosize dose of Fulvicin is ____ of the dose of microsize

A

1/4th

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98
Q

Fulvicin must be given with a ____ _____ for proper absorption

A

fatty meal

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99
Q

Enilconazole is used for what?

A

Topical dermatophyte infections

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100
Q

Teribnafine hydrochloride is used to treat…

A

Dermatophytes in dogs, cats, birds, and exotics

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101
Q

Potassium iodide is used to treat….

A

fungal granulatomatous disease

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102
Q

Ketaconazole, Miconazole and Itraconazole are commonly used to treat…

A

Malessezia pachydermatitis, systemic fungal infections, and dermatophytosis

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103
Q

Contraindications of imidazoles

A

Breeding males and Addison’s disease

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104
Q

Most recent imidazole on the market

A

Itraconazole

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105
Q

Used to treat systemic fungal infections and dermatophytosis, contraindicated in pregnant animals

A

Fluconazole

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106
Q

New drug on the market that treat secondary fungal infections

A

Posaconazole

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107
Q

Treats systemic fungal infections and dermatophytosis but can cause CNS issues in cates

A

Vorioconazole

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108
Q

Antifungal that can be fungistatic or fungicidal, can be given IV mixed in 5% dextrose

A

Ampthotericin B

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109
Q

Antifungal that may be fungistatic or fungicidal, often combined with other drugs and used to treat fungal and yeat infections

A

Nystatin

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110
Q

Used to treat cryptococcal infections, but blood work must be closely monitored

A

Flucytosine

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111
Q

Used to treat birds with Pacheco’s disease or cats with herpes virus infection of the eye

A

Acyclovir

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112
Q

Used to treat FeLV and FIV disease in cats, and K9 parvo virus

A

Interferon Alfa-2A

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113
Q

Powder, paste, gel used to treat feline herpes virus

A

Lysine

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114
Q

Only approved treatment in US for FeLV/FIV

A

LTCI (Lymphocyte T-Cell Immunomodulator)

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115
Q

Most commonly seen ailments in veterinary medicine

A

Skin conditions

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116
Q

Skin condition characterized by abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermis

A

Seborrhea

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117
Q

Seborrhea accompanied by increased production of sebum

A

Seborrhea Oleosa

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118
Q

Seborrhea without increased production of sebum

A

Seborrhea sica

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119
Q

Promotes loosening of epidermis

A

Keratolytics

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120
Q

Promotes normal keratin development

A

Keratoplastics

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121
Q

Found in shampoos, safe for cats, and used for seborrhea sica

A

Sulfur anti-seborrhea

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122
Q

Found in shampoos, safe to use on cats, and non irritating and non-staining, often combined with sulfur to treat seborrhea sicca

A

Salicylic acid

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123
Q

Used to treat seborrhea sicca, but may stain and is toxic in cats

A

Coal tar

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124
Q

Safe for cats, treats seborrhea oleosa, hot spots, Schnauzer comedo syndrome, but is hypersensitive in humans

A

Benzoyle Peroxides

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125
Q

Used to treat seborrhea and eczema but is toxic to cats

A

Selenium Sulfide

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126
Q

Used in the treatment of priuritus, atopic dermatitis, and seborrhea

A

Phytosphingosine

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127
Q

Topical corticosteroids used to treat pruritis, hot spots, allergic dermatitis

A

Betamethasone, Fluocinolone, Hydrocortisone, Triamcinolone, Isoflupredoneacetate

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128
Q

Bezocaine, Lidocaine, Tetracaine and Pramoxine HCL are all _______

A

Topical anesthetics

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129
Q

Agents that constrict tissues

A

Astringents

130
Q

Antistringent drugs

A

Acetic or boric acid, salicyclic acid

131
Q

_________ inhibit the growth of bacteria and are found in many dermatologic preparations

A

Antiseptics

132
Q

Dosage forms of antiseptics

A

Chlorohexadine, Iodine, Triclosan, Acetic acid, Benzalkonium Chloride

133
Q

Increases blood supply, brings oxygen, WBC’s, antibodies, etc to promote healing

A

Counterirritants

134
Q

Camphor, phenol, menthol are contraindicated in ____

A

cats

135
Q

Used to destroy proud flesh, superficial tumors, or horn buds in calves

A

Caustics

136
Q

Examples of caustics

A

Copper sulfate, silver nitrate

137
Q

Treats pseudomonas skin infections and 2nd and 3rd degree burns

A

SIlver sulfadiazene

138
Q

Third generation cephalosporin antibiotic used for bacterial skin infections

A

Cefovecin (Convenia)

139
Q

Mimics dogs natural immune system, target IL31 pathway to stop itching/scratching reflex

A

Cytopoint (CADI) Zoetis

140
Q

Fatty acid supplements

A

Omega 3 and Omega 6

141
Q

Nervous system that controls unconcious activities (HR, secretion, pupil size, GI activity)

A

Autonomic nervous system

142
Q

Two subdivisions of the autonomic system

A

Sympathetic (Adrenergic) and Parasympathetic (Cholinergic)

143
Q

Model drug of symphathetic (adrengeric) system

A

Adrenaline (epinephrine)

144
Q

Regulates energy expending activities, responsible for “Fight or flight”

A

Adrenergic/Sympathetic

145
Q

Regulates energy conserving activities, responsible for rest and restore

A

Parasympathetic (Cholinergic)

146
Q

Model drug of parasympathetic system

A

Acetylcholine

147
Q

Dilates pupils, increases HR, RR, glucose levels

A

Sympathetic Nervous system

148
Q

Constricts pupils, decreases HR, RR

A

Parasympathetic Nervous system

149
Q

Receptor type that constricts blood vessels in skin, kidney, GI tract, and decreases intestinal motility, dilates pupils

A

Alpha 1

150
Q

Receptor that constricts muscles and decreases insuline secretion

A

Alpha 2

151
Q

Receptor that increases HR and conduction

A

Beta 1

152
Q

Receptor that dilates veins/arteries

A

Beta 2

153
Q

Receptor that dilates veins in heart, kidney, GI tract

A

Dopaminergic

154
Q

Commonly used for cardiac arrest, anaphylactic shock, decrease bleeding

A

Epinephrine (adrenaline)

155
Q

Routes of admin for epinephrine

A

IV, IM, IC, IT, SQ

156
Q

Sedative/Analgesic that affects alpha 2 receptors that causes vomiting in 90% cats and 50% dogs

A

Xylazine (Rompun)

157
Q

Used to treat urinary incontinence secondary to weak urethral sphincter, can cause restlessness and irritability

A

PPA (Phenylpropanolamine)

158
Q

Block activity of the sympathetic nervous system

A

Adrenergic blocking agents

159
Q

Reversal agents that decrease cardiac output and rate, responsible for vasodilation and decrease blood pressure

A

Alpha blockers

160
Q

Reversal agents for xylazine and medetomidine

A

Yohimbine and Atipamezole (Antisedan)

161
Q

Decrease heart rate and blood pressure

A

Beta blockers

162
Q

Examples of beta blockers

A

Propanolol and Timolol

163
Q

Side effects associated with adrenergic blocking agents

A

Hypotension, bradycardia, tachycarida, vomiting

164
Q

Used to stimulate GI motility, daiagnose myasthenia gravis, and reduce intraocular pressure by binding to receptors or inhibiting the breakdown of acytelcholine

A

Cholinergic agents (Parasympathetic actions)

165
Q

Dosage forms of cholinergic agents

A

Direct and indirect

166
Q

Pilocarpine and Metoclopramide are both _____ Acting cholinergics

A

Direct acting

167
Q

Edrophonium, organophosphate insecticides and bethanechol are all ______ acting cholinergics

A

Indirect acting

168
Q

Block activity of the parasympathetic nervous system, increase HR, RR, decrease salivation and GI motility

A

Cholinergic blocking agents

169
Q

Dosage forms of anticholinergics (cholinergic blocking agents)

A

Atropine and Glycopyrrolate

170
Q

Preanesthetic used to dry resp. secretions and prevent bradycardia, dilates pupils for eye exams/treatment

A

Atropine

171
Q

Used like atropine but is longer lasting and has fewer side effects

A

Glycopyrrolate

172
Q

Generalized seizure, involves entire body; spastic msucle contractions, paddling, leg extension, urination/defication

A

Grand mal

173
Q

Seizure that involves a limited area, such as one limb

A

Focal or petit mal

174
Q

Typically used to describe seizures which are prolonged

A

Status epillepticus

175
Q

Hypoglycemia, hypoxia, hypocalcemia, neoplasia, toxicity with lead are all possibe causes of ____

A

seizures

176
Q

Phase of seizure before it begins (pacing, anxiety, panting, etc)

A

Pre-Ictal phase

177
Q

Seizure phase, varies in length

A

Ictal phase

178
Q

Period after a seizure that can last seconds to hours

A

Post ictal

179
Q

Drug of choice for emergency treatment of seizures

A

Valium (Diazepam)

180
Q

Diazepam is a controlled class ___ drug that is often the first choice to stop seizures

A

Class IV

181
Q

____ ____ Diazepam is used occasionally if patients are not responding to other treatments

A

Intra-rectal

182
Q

Diazepam should not be used chonrically to treat seizures as it can result in ______ ______

A

Liver disease (Also a contraindication of diazepam)

183
Q

Class 2 drug used when Valium is not working, aslo an anesthetic drug

A

Pentobarbital

184
Q

Drug of choice for long term control of seizures, has a long half life and is a barbituate anesthetic

A

Phenobarbital

185
Q

Phenobarb is a class ___ drug that generally needs to be given for life and is contraindicated in patients with ____ diseases and not be given with ________

A

Class IV, contraindicated in liver disease and not to be given with chloramphenicol

186
Q

Phenobarb dose is measured in ____

A

grains

187
Q

Animals being given _____ tend to be very PU/PD and polyphagic!

A

Phenobarb

188
Q

Drug that can be used with phenobarb to control seizures , but has no labeled use for any species in the US

A

Potassium bromide

189
Q

Full blood work must be done when adminstered _____ _____ as it causes electrolyte imbalances and takes 4 months to reach steady blood level (low therapeutic index, long half life)

A

Potassium Bromide

190
Q

Anticonvulsive not often given anymore as it causes significant side effects

A

Primidone

191
Q

Anticonvulsive not often used anymore due to unreliable blood vessels and must be given TID

A

Phentoin Sodium (Dilantin)

192
Q

Used when phenobarb doesnt work but must be given TID, although it can be used in liver disease patients

A

Keppra (levetiracetam)

193
Q

Used primarily to stimulate respiration or to reverse CNS depression caused by anesthetics

A

CNS stimulants

194
Q

Usually used a respiratory stimulant espeically in new borns after a C-section, anesthetized patients, cardiopulmonary arrest

A

Doxapram (Dopram V)

195
Q

Can be given IV or under the tongue or in umbilical veins of newborns

A

Doxapram

196
Q

Drug class that includes caffeines, theobromine, aminophylline and theophylline

A

Methyxanthines

197
Q

Active ingredient in chocolate

A

Theobromine

198
Q

Amount of milk chocolate that causes toxicity

A

90 mg/kg

199
Q

How much theobromine is found in unsweetened chocolate

A

390 mg per ounce

200
Q

Neurotransmitter that effects motion, movement, emotion

A

Dopamine

201
Q

Neurotransmitter for emotions

A

Nerepinephrine

202
Q

Neurotransmitter for moods, sleep cycle, and appetite

A

Serotonin

203
Q

Neurotransmitter for brain, pain

A

GABA (Gamma aminobutyric acid)

204
Q

Neurotransmitter for organs/muscles

A

Acetylchloline

205
Q

Neurotransmitter for antistress

A

Endorphines

206
Q

Prevent uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin increasing their activity, used to treat anxieties and as sedatives

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

207
Q

Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Clomipramine are all dosage forms of ________ ________

A

Tricyclic antidepressants

208
Q

Used to treat separation anxiety in dogs

A

Clomipramine

209
Q

Used in instances of compulsive disorders, phobias, self mutilation, dominance aggression, separation anxiety

A

Serotonin Reuptake inhibitors

210
Q

Fluoxetine, Sertraline, Paroxetine are all dosage forms of ____ ____ ____

A

Serotonin reuptake inhibitors

211
Q

________ is broken down by monamine oxidase

A

Dopamine

212
Q

Used in cognitive dysfunction and Cushing’s disease

A

Monamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)

213
Q

Used to treat pituitary dependent Cushing’s disease and although not very successful, also cognitive dysfuntion

A

Selegiline (Anipryl, or L Depenryl)

214
Q

Causes CNS depression resulting in sedation

A
215
Q

Promote the inhibitor neurotransmitter GABA in the brain

A

Benzodiazepines

216
Q

Diazepam, Alprazolam (Xanax), Lorazepam are all _________

A

Bendodiazepines

217
Q

Azopirones are behavior modifiers and serotonin blockers used to treat ____ _____

A

urine spraying

218
Q

Example of an Azopirone

A

Buspirone Hydrochloride (BuSpar)

219
Q

Drugs that function as dopamine antagonists

A

Phenothiazines

220
Q

Acepromazine, Chlorpromazine, Prochlorperazine are examples of ______

A

Phenothiazines

221
Q

Phenothiazines commonly used for sedation that reduce seizer threshold

A

Acepromzine

222
Q

Side effects from this drug include “ace face”, ataxia, transient to permanent penil prolapse in horses, and contraindicated in boxers and sight hounds

A

Acepromazine

223
Q

Main compnent of most euthansia agents

A

Pentobarbital sodium

224
Q

Pentobarbital sodium are class __ or class __ substances

A

Class II or class III

225
Q

Anticholinergics, Inotropes, Vasopressors, and Catecholamine agents are emergency drugs that function as ____ ____

A

Cardiac Stimulants

226
Q

Used for cardiac antiarrhythmias

A

Lidocaine

227
Q

Respiratory stimulant emergency drug

A

Dopram

228
Q

Emergency drug for diuretic (thoracic organ edema)

A

Lascix

229
Q

Emergency drug: Hypnotic anesthetic agent

A

Propofol

230
Q

Dexamethasone, Diphenhydramine, Dopamine, Prednisolone sodium succinate/Acetate are all emergency drugs used to treat ___

A

Shock

231
Q

Emergency drug commonly used for antiarrythmia

A

Amiodarone

232
Q

Emergency drug used to increase HR

A

Atropine

233
Q

Emergency drugs used to treat hypocalcemia and hyperkalemia

A

Calcium chloride or gluconate

234
Q

Emergency drug used as anticonvulsant

A

Diazepam

235
Q

Emergency drug used for anaphylaxis

A

Diphenhydramine

236
Q

Emergency drug used for respiratory stimulation

A

Doxapram HCl

237
Q

Emergency drug used for cardiac resuscitation, stored in fridge

A

Epinephrine

238
Q

Emergency drug used for bradycardia

A

Glycopyrrolate

239
Q

Emergency drug used for DIC

A

Heparin sodium

240
Q

Emergency drug used as antiarrthymic + local

A

Lidocaine

241
Q

Emergency drug used as antiseizer, antiarrthymia

A

Magnesium chloride

242
Q

Emergency drug used in HBC trauma, decreases intraocular pressure, used in ascites/edema

A

Mannitol

243
Q

Emergency drug used to stimulate uterine contractions

A

Oxytocin

244
Q

Emergency drugs used for metabolic acidosis, and increased Ca/K

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

245
Q

Emergency drug used for antidiuretic horome, raises blood pressure

A

Vasopressin

246
Q

Liquefy secretions so that they can be more easily eliminated

A

Expectorants

247
Q

Common expectorant used for equine general anesthesia

A

Guaifenesin

248
Q

Decreases the viscosity of mucous by altering chemical composition

A

Mucolytics

249
Q

Mucolytic used IV for treatment of acetaminophen toxicity

A

Acetylcysteine

250
Q

Supress cough by depressing the cough center of the brain

A

Antitussive

251
Q

Most common narcotic antitussive, schedule IV narcotic

A

Butorphanol

252
Q

When using Butorphanol the ____ dose is much higher than the ____ dose

A

Oral dose higher than injectable

253
Q

Class III narcotic antitussive used for harsh, non productive coughs

A

Hydrocodone

254
Q

Narcotic antitussive often in combination products, when by themselves are class II

A

Codeine

255
Q

Codeine with aspirin/acetaminophen are class ___

A

Class III

256
Q

Codeine syrups are class ___ or class ___

A

III or IV

257
Q

Dextromethorphan and Trimeprazine are both ______ ______

A

Non-Narcotic Antitussives

258
Q

Chemically similar to Codeine, OTC drug that may contain acetaminophen (Non-Narcotic antitussive)

A

Dextromethorphan

259
Q

Antitussive and Antipruritic drug usually combined with corticosteroids

A

Trimeprazine

260
Q

Occurs due to release of acetylcholine, histamine and Beta2 adrenergic blockade

A

Bronchoconstriction

261
Q

Clenbuterol, Epinephrine, Terbutaline and Albuterol are all examples of ___ ____ agonists

A

Beta 2 Adrenergic agonists

262
Q

Beta-2 Adrenergic agonist used for treatment of chronic resp conditons such as COPD in horses, use banned in food animals

A

Clenbuterol

263
Q

Popular drug used in show animals as a repartioning agent

A

Clenbuterol

264
Q

Beta-2 Adrenergic agonist used to treat long term asthma

A

Terbutaline

265
Q

Bronchodilator used to relax smooth muscle by inhibiting an enzyme which promotes bronchoconstriction

A

Methylxanthines

266
Q

Aminophylline and Theophilline are both ______

A

Methylxanthines

267
Q

Used for treatment of CHF, chronic resp conditions, and long term treatment of asthma

A

Theophylline

268
Q

Ephedrine and Pseudoephedrine are both ____ ____

A

Oral decongestants

269
Q

Phenylephrine is the ___ ___ form of decongestants

A

Nose drop

270
Q

Cause bronchodilation and prevent and treat allergic reactions

A

Antihistamines

271
Q

Antihistamine used to treat heaves in horses

A

Diphenhydramine

272
Q

Chlorpheneramine, Hydroxyzine, Fexofenadine and Clemastine are all examples of ______

A

Antihistamines

273
Q

Cardivascular drugs used to decrease resistance to blood flow and decrease overfilling

A

Diuretics, Vasodilators

274
Q

Cardiovascular drugs that increase strength of contraction

A

Postive Iontropic drugs

275
Q

Cardiovascular drugs that increase urine production and decrease fluid retention

A

Diuretics

276
Q

Loop diuretics inhibit __ absoprtion

A

Na+

277
Q

Furosemide is a ___ ___

A

Loop diuretic

278
Q

Diuretic commonly used to treat EIPH in horses

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

279
Q

Mannitol is a ___ ___

A

Osmotic diuretic

280
Q

Chlorthiazide is a ___ ___

A

Thiazide diuretic

281
Q

Spironolactone is a ___ ___ ____

A

Potassium Sparing Diuretic

282
Q

Dichlorphenamide, used to treat glaucoma is a ____ ____ ____ diuretic

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

283
Q

Digoxin is a ____ ____ drug

A

Postive Iontropic

284
Q

Postive iontropic drug used to treat atrial fibrillation and supraventricular tachycardia

A

Digoxin

285
Q

Postive iontropic drug used primarily for cardiac resuscitation

A

Epinephrine

286
Q

Used to treat heart failure and in advanced cardiac resuscitation, often given via infusion

A

Dopamine and Dobutamine

287
Q

Model vasodilator

A

Enalapril

288
Q

Prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II

A

ACE inhibitor (angiotensin converting inhibitor)

289
Q

Enalapril is used to treat ____ and ____

A

Heart failure and hypertension

290
Q

Common side effects of Enalapril

A

Hypotension, V/D

291
Q

Nitroglycerin is a ______

A

Venodilator

292
Q

Vasodilator used to treat heart failure in small animals and laminitis in horses

A

Nitroglycerine

293
Q

Hydralazine is an ______ ____

A

Arteriole dilator

294
Q

Used to reduce afterload associated with CHF

A

Hydralazine

295
Q

Class of antiarrythmics that are used to treat arterial and ventriular arrythmias

A

Class IA

296
Q

Quinidine and Procainamide are both class ____ antiarrythmics

A

Class IA

297
Q

Class IA antiarrythmic used to treat PCV (Premature ventricular contractions) and ventricular tachycardia (some atrial tachycardias as well)

A

Procainamide

298
Q

Class of antiarrythmic drugs used for membrane stabilization, and to treat ventricular arrythmias

A

Class IB

299
Q

Tocainide and Lidocaine are both class ___ antiarrythmias

A

Class IB

300
Q

Lidocaine is used to control _____ arrythmias and _____

A

Ventricular arrythmias and PCV’s

301
Q

What are the dosage forms of lidocaine?

A

1% solution

2% solution (use with caution)

Tpical spray

302
Q

Drug often used with epinephrine as a local anesthetic

A

Lidocaine

303
Q

Drug given IV bolus to stop life threatening ventricular arrythmias or as an IV drip

A

Lidocaine

304
Q

Lidocaine with epinephrine combined can not be given ___ and why?

A

IV, can kill pets with heart problems

305
Q

How is a drip prepared for lidocaine?

A

Remove 50 cc from 1L bag LRS, add 50 cc 2% lidocaine and give 30 cc/lb/day

306
Q

Class of antiarrythmics seldomly used in veterinary medicine

A

Class IC

307
Q

Beta-Adrenergic blockers are class ___ antiarrythmics

A

Class II

308
Q

Beta Adrenergic blockers improve _____ efficiency by increasing adrenergic receptors

A

cardiac efficiency

309
Q

Atenolol and propanolol are both _______

A

Beta 2 Adrenergic blockers - Class II

310
Q

Propanolol blocks both ____ 1 and ____ 2 receptors

A

Beta 1 and Beta 2

311
Q

Propanolol _____ heart rate, BP and cardiac output

A

Decreases

312
Q

Propanolol can be used for cardiomyopathy, arrythmias and _______ and ______ in cats

A

Hyperthyroidism and hypertension

313
Q

Side effects of Propanolol

A

Bradycardia

Hypotension

Worsening of heart failure

314
Q

Bretylium and Amiodarone are both class ___ antiarrythmics

A

Class III

315
Q

Class III drugs not commonly used in veterinary medicine

A

Bretylium and Amiodarone

316
Q

Calcium channel blockers are class ___

A

Class IV

317
Q

Calcium channel blockers allow calcium to enter the _____ causing muscle contraction

A

Myocardial cell

318
Q

Verapamil and Dilitzem are both ______

A

Calcium channel blockers

319
Q

Drugs used orally to treat supraventricular tachycardia, hypertropic cardiomyopathy in cats

A

Verampil and Diltiazem

(Calcium Channel Blockers - class IV)

320
Q
A

Pharmacology (9 decks)

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