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Pharmacology > Antimicrobials > Flashcards

Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

Aminoglycosides suffix

A

“___mycin”

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2
Q

Aminoglycoside action

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

Bactericidal

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3
Q

What spectrum do aminoglycosides cover?

A

Broad spectrum

Highly effective against aerobic bacteria

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4
Q

Adverse side effects of aminoglycosides

A

Nephrotoxicity

Ototoxicity

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5
Q

Contraindications of aminoglycosides

A

Kidney disease

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6
Q

Aminoglycosides achieve high concentrations in _____ and ______ ____ by active transport

A

kidneys and inner ears

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7
Q

Aminoglycosides are well distributed to _____ _____

A

Bronchial secretions

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8
Q

Aminoglycosides are filtered in _______

A

kidneys

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9
Q

In animals with impaired kidney function, aminoglycoside elimination is _______ and half is is ______

A

slowed, increased

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10
Q

What are the dosage forms of parenteral aminoglycosides?

A

Gentamicin (Gentocin)

Kanamycin (Kantrim)

Amikacin (Amiglyde-V injection)

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11
Q

What are the dosage forms of enteric aminoglycosides?

A

Neomycin

*Only oral aminoglycoside*

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12
Q

What are the dosage forms of topical aminoglycosides?

A

Neomycin

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13
Q

Side effects of aminoglycosides are increased when used with ___________ therapy.

A

Furosemide therapy

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14
Q

__________ therapy is very important when giving parenteral aminoglycosides

A

Fluid therapy

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15
Q

Lincosamide suffix

A

“______mycin”

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16
Q

How do lincosamides work?

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

Can be bacteriostatic or bactericidal

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17
Q

What spectrum do lincosamides cover?

A

Gram - and +

Clindamycin- anaerobes

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18
Q

What are some clinical uses of Lincosamides?

A

Upper respiratory tract infections

Skin infections

Mastitis

Dental and bone infections

Pyoderma

Abcesses

Toxoplasmosis

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19
Q

What are the dosage forms of Lincosamides?

A

Oral/Feed additive

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20
Q

What are some adverse side effects of Lincosamides?

A

V/D

Life threatening GI effects in pocket pets, horses, and ruminants

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21
Q

What are the contraindications of Lincosamides?

A

Rabbits, hampsters, guinea pigs

Avians used for laying or food

Horses

Ruminants

Allergies

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22
Q

How do Macrolides work?

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

Bacteriostatic protein synthesis

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23
Q

What spectrum do Macrolides cover?

A

Generally narrow spectrum

Effective against gram + and gram -

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24
Q

Clinical uses for Macrolides?

A

URI’s

Mastitis/Metritis in cattle

Foot rot

Bovine respiratory disease

GI and resp. disease in pigs and lambs

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25
Q

What are the dosage forms of Macrolides?

A

Injectables

Intramammary

Tablets

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26
Q

What are some examples of Macrolides?

A

Erythromycin

Tilmicosin (Micotil)

Tylosin (Tylan)

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

Tulathromycin (Draxxin)

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27
Q

What are some adverse side effects of Macrolides?

A

Oral forms cause severe, life threatening diarrhea in horses and ruminants

V/D in dogs and cats

Pain after IM injections

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28
Q

Contraindications of Macrolides?

A

Do NOT use in horses

Do NOT use oral form in ruminants

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29
Q

What antibacterial is no longer commonly used and why?

A

Chloramphenicol

Illegal to use in food animals due to sensitive in humans and VERY long withdrawal times

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30
Q

How does Chloramphenical work?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

Bacteriostatic

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31
Q

What spectrum does Chloramphenicol cover?

A

Relatively broad spectrum

Gram + and -

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32
Q

What are the common uses for Chloramphenicol?

A

Baterial respiratory infections, UTI, enteritis, bacterial conjunctivitis

Rickettsial infections (Ehrlichia, Q-fever, RMSF)

Mycoplasma

Infections in pocket pet

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33
Q

What are some adverse side effects of Chloramphenicol?

A

Bone marrow suppression

Inhibits biotransformation of anti-seizure and anasthetic drugs

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34
Q

Chloramphenicols can not be given with _________ or _________

A

Penicillins, or cephalosporins

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35
Q

What are the dosage forms of Chloramphenicol?

A

Tablet, capsule, opthalmic

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36
Q

What is Florfenicol used for?

A

Used on cattle for shipping fever or respiratory disease

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37
Q

What dosage form does Florfenicol come in?

A

Nuflor- injectable solution

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38
Q

What are some contraindications of Florfenicol?

A

Not for dairy cows >20 months old or some cows

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39
Q

Withdrawal period for Florfenicol?

A

28 days

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40
Q

What are the dosage forms of Polymyxin B?

A

Topical and opthalmic

Injectable

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41
Q

How does Polymyxin B work?

A

Damages the cell membrane

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42
Q

Often combined together with Neomycin to make “triple antibiotic ointment”

A

Polymyxin B

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43
Q

What is a contraindication of Polymyxin B?

A

Do not use in patients with renal issues

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44
Q

Which antimicrobial might turn urine, saliva, and tears orange?

A

Rifampin

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45
Q

What is Rifampin used for?

A

Rhodococcus equi pneumonia in horses

Staphylococcal infections in small animals

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46
Q

Polyene antifungal agents effect what?

A

Cell membranes

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47
Q

What are some examples of Polyene antifungal agents?

A

Nystatin (seen in fungal sprays)

Amphotericin-B (more systemic)

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48
Q

Imidazole antifungal agents effect what?

A

Cell membrane and growth inhibition

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49
Q

What are some examples of Imidazole antifungal agents?

A

Ketaconazole

Miconazole

Itraconazole

Fluconazole

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50
Q

Anti-metabolic antifungal agents effect what?

A

RNA and proteins

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51
Q

What is an example of an anti-metabolic antifungal agent?

A

Flucytosine

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52
Q

What do superficial anti-fungal agents effect?

A

Inhibition of cell division

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53
Q

What is an example of a superficial antifungal agent?

A

Griseofulvin

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54
Q

Grisofulvin is commonly used to treat what?

A

Dermatophytosis

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55
Q

What are the dosage forms of Griseofulvin?

A

Tablets or powder

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56
Q

Contraindications of Fulvicin?

A

Must not be used in pregnant animals

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57
Q

Fulvicin must be given with a ___________ or proper absorption

A

Fatty meal

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58
Q

If vomiting occurs when administering Fulvicin what should be done?

A

Split dose in half

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59
Q

Imidizoles suffix

A

“_____azole”

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60
Q

Examples of Imidizoles

A

Ketaconazole

Miconazole

Itraconazole

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61
Q

What are the commone uses for Imidizoles?

A

Malessezia pachydermatitis

Systemic fungal infections

Dermatophytosis

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62
Q

What are the dosage forms of Imidizoles?

A

Tablets

Shampoos, topicals

parenterals

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63
Q

Contraidindications of Imidizoles?

A

Addison’s disease

Breeding males

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64
Q

Most recent Imidizole on the market

A

Itraconazole

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65
Q

What are some adverse side effects of Itraconazole?

A

Very uncommon

Anorexia

Ulcerative dermatitis

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66
Q

Dosage form of Itraconazole?

A

Sporanox Capsules (human label)

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67
Q

What structures do antibacterials interfere with?

A

Cell wall

Cell membrane

Ribosomes

Enzymes

Nucleic Acids

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68
Q

What are two effects of antibacterials?

A

They either kill bacteria (bactericidal) or they inhibit growth of the bacteria (bacteriostatic)

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69
Q

What are some points of client education regarding antibacterials?

A

Expected response

Common side effects

Give ALL medication even after improved condition

Proper storage

Proper amount at proper frequency

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70
Q

What are two techniques used for culture and sensitivity testing?

A

Agar diffusion test

Broth dilution susceptibility test

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71
Q

Broth dilution susceptibility test determines what?

A

Minimum inhibitory concetration

(The lowest concenration of a drug at which growth of the bacterium is inhibited)

72
Q

Acquisition of an additional piece of DNA from another bacteria

A

Plasmid

73
Q

Spontaneous change in DNA

A

Mutation

74
Q

Types of bacterial resistance?

A

Enzyme action

Alternate metabolic pathways

75
Q

What does enzyme action do?

A

Renders the drug useless

76
Q

What antibiotics inhibit the cell wall synthesis (Peptidoglycan)?

A

Penicillins

Cephalosporins

77
Q

What antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis (ribosomes)?

A

Aminoglycosides

Tetracyclines

Macrolides

Lincosamides

Chloramphenicol

Florfenicol

78
Q

What antibiotics damage cell membrane (osmosis)?

A

Polymyxin-B

79
Q

What antibiotics interfere with metabolism (folic acid)?

A

Sulfonamides

80
Q

What antibiotics impair nuclic acids (DNA and RNA)?

A

Fluoroquinolones

81
Q

Penicillins suffix

A

“____cillin”

82
Q

How do penicillins work?

A

They are bactericidal

Interfere with formation of cell wall synthesis

83
Q

What spectrum do penicillins cover?

A

Narrow to broad depending on type

84
Q

What enzyme converts penicilin to inactive penicillic acid?

A

Bacterial-B-Lactomase (Penicillinase)

85
Q

Where are penicillins excreted?

A

Into milk

86
Q

What are potentiated penicillins?

A

Drugs added to penicillin to ward off penicillinase

87
Q

What are the narrow spectrum penicillins?

A

Penicillin G (Injectable)

Penicillin V (oral)

88
Q

What are the broad spectrum penicillins?

A

Amoxicillin

Ampicillin

Carbenicillin

Ticarcillin

89
Q

Penicillins bioavailability decreases in presence of _____

A

food

90
Q

When should penicillin be given?

A

On an empty stomach

1 hour prior to meal or 2 hours after

91
Q

Penicillin is excreted unchanged by the _______ via ________ and by secretion into _______ tubes.

A

Kidneys via filtration

Rean tubes

92
Q

Why is penicillin an excellent choice for treating UTIs?

A

Retain bactericidal effect in urine as it is filtered or secreted intact

93
Q

What are some precautions when using penicillins?

A

Look for anaphyilactic reactions (hypersensitivity)

Destruction of nomral flora

Withdrawal times

94
Q

What species can NOT be given penicillin?

A

Guinea pigs, hampsters, rabbits, snakes, birds, turtles, chinchillas

95
Q

Penicillin G is inactivated by ________ ______ therefore is only given by injection

A

stomach acid

96
Q

What are the three types of Penicillin G?

A

Sodium or potassium Penicillin (clear solution)

Procaine penicillin (milky solution)

Benzathine Penicillin (milky solution)

97
Q

Milky solutions are usually given ____ and are longer acting

A

Intramuscular (IM injection)

98
Q

Withdrawal times for penicillin G? (Meat/Milk/Calves in cattle)

A

Meat: 4 days

Milke: 48 hours

Calves: 7 days

99
Q

Withdrawal times for Penicillin (Sheep/swine)

A

Sheep- 8 days

Swine- 6 days

100
Q

Ampicillin is availabe as what?

A

Oral and injectable forms

Amp-Equine (Clear)

Polyflex (milky)

101
Q

Ampicillin generally has a ______ spectrum than natural penicillins

A

Broader spectrum

102
Q

Cattle withdrawal times for ampicillin? (meat/milk)

A

Meat: 6 days

Milk: 48 hours

103
Q

Ampicillin + Sulbactam (Unasyn) is used to treat what?

A

Respiratory infection in dogs, cats and foals

104
Q

Dosage forms of Amoxicillin?

A

Oral

Injectable

Intramammary infusion

105
Q

Common uses for Amoxicillin?

A

Many soft tissue infections in dogs and cats

Bovine Mastitis

106
Q

What are some adverse side effects of Amoxicillin?

A

V/D, anorexia (when given orally)

Allergic reactions (hives, edema)

Diarrhea in hampsters, guinea pigs, rabbits

(^^^ Do NOT use)

107
Q

Can be given without regard to feeding status?

A

Amoxicillin

108
Q

Broad spectrum potentiated penicillin used to treat skin infections, UTIs, wound infections and respiratory infections

A

Clavamox

(Amoxi in combination with Clavulanic acid)

109
Q

These pills must be kept in foil until ready to use or they will lose activity

A

Clavamox

110
Q

Penicillin used for pyodermas

A

Oxacillin

111
Q

Penicillin used for staph and pyodermras

A

Dicloxacillin

112
Q

Penicillin used for dry cow intramammary preparation

A

Cloxacillin

113
Q

Used to treat pneumonia, bone and soft tissue infections, high dose results in low platelets and seizures

A

Ticarcillin +/- Clavulanate potassium

114
Q

What are used for antibiotic resistant infections?

A

Carbapenems

115
Q

In what animals should SQ injections be avoided when administering Penicillin G?

A

Meat animals

116
Q

Penicillins should never be used in what type of animals?

A

Exoctics

117
Q

Oral penicillins can often cause…

A

Appetite loss, V/D

118
Q

What is the one exception to the Never-Ever-Rule concerning never giving milky injectables via IV?

A

Propofol

119
Q

What are the different types of Cephalosporins?

A

First gen

Second gen

Third gen

120
Q

What are the first generation Cephalosporins?

A

Cefadroxil

Cephalexin

Cephapirin

Cefazolin

121
Q

What first gen cephalosporin is a mammary infusion?

A

Cephapirin

122
Q

What are the second gen cephalosporins?

A

Cefoxitin

Cefaclor

123
Q

What are the third gen Cephalosporins?

A

Cefotaxime

Ceftiofur

Cefpodoxime

Cefocevin

124
Q

What is the broadest spectrum Cephalosporin?

A

Third generation

125
Q

What is the fourth gen cephalosporins?

A

Cefepime

126
Q

Cephalosporins are susceptible to what?

A

B-Lactamase

127
Q

Common uses for Cephalosporins in dogs and cats?

A

Cystitis

Soft tissue infections

Skin infections

128
Q

Common uses for Cephalosporins in large/food animals

A

Shipping Fever

Respiratory infections

Mastitis

Foot rot

E. coli

129
Q

Contraindications of cephalosporins

A

Allergies

Exoctics

130
Q

How do Tetracyclines work?

A

Inhibit protein synthesis and impede cell division

Bacteriostatic

131
Q

What type of Ceftiofur has no withholding time and can be used for lactating dairy cattle?

A

Naxcel

132
Q

What type Ceftiofur has a 48 hour withholding time before slaughter?

A

Excenel

133
Q

Ceftiofur and Cefocevin are what types of antimicrobials?

A

Cephalosporins

134
Q

What is the main advantage of Cefocevin (Convenia)?

A

Great owner compliance, as they do not have to do anything. Administered SQ injection q 7-14 days

135
Q

What are common problems with oral Cephalosporins?

A

Can cause V/D

136
Q

Why are Tetracyclines contraindicated in young animals?

A

Cause defects with teeth and bone formation

137
Q

Are tetracylines bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

Bacteriostatic

138
Q

What are Tetracylines used to treat?

A

Rickettsial diseases (RMSF, Hemobartonella, Ehrlichiosis, Lyme disease)

Mycoplasma pneumonia

Psittacosis

Chlamydial infections

139
Q

What are the older forms of Tetracylines?

A

Panmycin

Oxytetracyline (Terramycin)

140
Q

What are the major disadvantages of Oxytetracyline?

A

Low owner compliance

Must be administered 3-4 times a day and cause more side effects

Narrow spectrum

141
Q

What are the newer forms of Tetracylines?

A

Doxycycline and Minocycline

142
Q

What Tetracyclines are better absorbed?

A

Doxycycline and Minocycline

143
Q

What minerals are found in tetracyline and oxytetracyline that make it more difficult to absorb?

A

Calcium, Magnesium, Iron, and copper

144
Q

What reduces the bioavailability of tetracyclines?

A

If administered PO with dairy products, iron supplements, antacids

145
Q

High concentrations of tetracyline remain in _____ and ____ secretions

A

saliva and bronchial secretions

146
Q

What antimicrobial may cause long term staining of teeth in young animals?

A

Tetracyline

147
Q

What can oral tetracylines cause in ruminants?

A

Ruminoreticular stasis

148
Q

__________ and impair bone development in young animals

A

Tetracyline

149
Q

Tetraclyine should NEVER be given ___ in horses

A

IV injection

150
Q

Administering IV tetracyline in horses can cause what?

A

Euthanasia

151
Q

What is not approved for lactating or egg-producing animals?

A

Tetracylines

152
Q

Suffix for Fluoroquinolones/Quinolones

A

“_____floxacin”

153
Q

How do Fluoroquinolones/Quionolones work?

A

Disrupt DNA function

154
Q

Are Fluoroquinolones/Quinolones bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bactericidal

155
Q

Fluoroquinolones/Quinolones are not effective against _______ bacteria

A

Anaerobic bacteria

156
Q

Fluoroquinolones/Quinolones are _____ spectrum

A

Broad

157
Q

Marbofloxacin (Zeniquin) is used to treat?

A

Bacterial infections in dogs and cats

158
Q

Orbifloxacin (Orbax) is used to treat?

A

Skin and soft tissue infections in dogs, cats and horses

Also UTIs

159
Q

Difloxacin (Dicural) is a new _____ a day drug

A

Once a day drug

160
Q

Ciprofloxacin is used to treat?

A

Pseudomonas infections in dogs, cats and exotics

161
Q

Common proprietary name for Enrofloxacin?

A

Baytril

162
Q

Enrofloxacin dosage forms

A

Tablets

Chewable tabs

Injectables

Elixir

Otic emulsion

163
Q

Baytil 100 is used for what?

A

Bovine Respiratory Disease in beef cattle

*28 day withdrawal time*

164
Q

Where are there high concentrations of Fluoroquinolones/Quinolones?

A

Kidneys, liver, lungs, bone, joint fluid, globe of eye, respiratory tissues, prostate

165
Q

What are some common uses for Fluoroquinolones/Quinolones?

A

Skin, respiratory and soft tissue infections

Bovine Respiratory infections

E. coli in poultry

166
Q

What is often the first choice antibiotic used by vets?

A

Quinolone class drugs

167
Q

What is an acceptable drug to use for pocket pets?

A

Enrofloxacin

168
Q

Enrofloxacin should not be used in what species?

A

Dairy cattle, veal calves, egg laying chickens

169
Q

What is the most common side effect of Enrofloxacin?

A

Damage to joint cartilage of growing animals

170
Q

What are the contraindications of Enrofloxacin?

A

Small/Medium breed dogs (less than 8 months)

Large breeds up to 1 year old

Giant breeds 1 1/2 years old

Not labeled for horses

171
Q

How do Sulfonamides work?

A

Prevent synthesis of folic acids

172
Q

What are the three types of Sulfonamides?

A

Systemic sulfas

Enteric sulfas

Potentiated sulfas

173
Q

What is the common proprietary name for Sulfadimethoxine?

A

Albon, Dimethox

174
Q

What Sulfonamide is used in food animals?

A

Sulfachlorpyridazine

175
Q

What drugs are dogs more susceptible to and can exhibit CNS problems and behavioral changes?

A

Sulfonamides

176
Q
A

Pharmacology (9 decks)

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