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MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards > Pharmacology Drugs > Flashcards

Pharmacology Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Immunosuppressive: -most common DMARD

  • folate analog, inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
  • also anti-cancer since DNA synth inhibiting
A

Methotrexate

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2
Q

This drug inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase (DHODH) for treatment of R.A.

A

leflunomide

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3
Q

Glucocorticoids are anti-inflammatory by inhibiting the enzyme ___________, which inhibits the release of arachidonic acid from the cell membrane and prevents formation of prostaglandins

A

phospholipase A2

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4
Q

long term use of prednisone, a glucocorticoid, can lean to _______

A
  1. osteoporosis
  2. poor wound healing
  3. hyperglycemia
    many more…
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5
Q

Used to treat R.A., this drug released in the 1990’s is thought to inhibit IL-1 & TNF-alpha release. It is ________

A

sulfasalazine

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6
Q

The adverse affects of sulfasalazine include ________

A
  1. neutropenia
  2. rashes
  3. nausea
  4. vomiting
  5. headaches
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7
Q 
This class of drugs: 1. Inhibits phospholipase A2, inhibiting release of arachidonic acid 
2. Inhibits cytokine production preventing induction of COX-2
A

glucocorticoids

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8
Q

The most commonly used DMARD is _________

A

methotrexate

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9
Q

methotrexate is a _______ analog

A

folate

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10
Q

methotrexate inhibits reaction done by ________, an enzyme essential for DNA synthesis

A

Dihydrofolate reducatase (DHFR)

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11
Q

This drug is a pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor for the treatment of R.A.

A

leflunomide

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12
Q

This class of drugs modifies the effectiveness of pro-inflammatory cytokines generated in R.A.

A

biological response modifers

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13
Q

biological response modifers for R.A. are often called ________

A

Biologic DMARDs

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14
Q

What does DMARD stand for?

A

disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug

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15
Q

A joint replacement surgery is known as a ________

A

arthroplasty

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16
Q

These 5 TNF-α antagonists works by binding to TNF-α to prevent it from binding of it’s receptor

A 
Adalimumab
Etanercept
Infliximab
Golimumab
Certolizumab
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17
Q

Etanercept is administered by twice weekly _____ ______

A

Subcutaneous injections

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18
Q

This R.A. drug is a monoclonal chimeric IgG1 antibody against TNF-α (Etanercept/ Infliximab/ Adalimumab/ Golimumab/ Certolizumab)

A

Infliximab

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19
Q

Which TNF-α antagonist goes by the trade name humira? (Etanercept/ Infliximab/ Adalimumab/ Golimumab/ Certolizumab)

A

Adalimumab

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20
Q

adalimumab is more convenient than Etanercept because dosing is _______ rather than _______

A

adalimumab is twice monthly injection rather than twice weekly

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21
Q

a human monoclonal antibody that binds to membrane soluble TNF-α

A

Golimumab

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22
Q

Golimumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds _____

A

membrane soluble TNF-α

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23
Q

This TNF-α antagonist carries the risk of serious infections compared to the others including TB and fungal (Etanercept/ Infliximab/ Adalimumab/ Golimumab/ Certolizumab)

A

golimumab

golem’s misshapen form of TB and fungal infections

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24
Q

how is certulizumab different from gloimumab and adalimumab?

A

it was conjugated to PEG to delay its elimination

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25
Q

Which TNF-α antagonist is a chimeric mouse/human hybrid? (Etanercept/ Infliximab/ Adalimumab/ Golimumab/ Certolizumab)

A

infliximab

inflix is a mix

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26
Q

Which TNF-α antagonist is a fully human monoclonal antibody?(Etanercept/ Infliximab/ Adalimumab/ Golimumab/ Certolizumab)

A

adalimumab

adam was the first human

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27
Q

Which TNF-α antagonist binds to membrane bound soluble TNF-α? (Etanercept/ Infliximab/ Adalimumab/ Golimumab/ Certolizumab)

A

Golimumab

golem creeps along the sides

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28
Q

Which TNF-α antagonist is a humanized antibody bound to PEG to delay metabolism and elimination? (Etanercept/ Infliximab/ Adalimumab/ Golimumab/ Certolizumab)

A

Certolizumab

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29
Q

R.A. treatment: A soluble recombinant human IL-1 receptor antagonist that requires frequent dosing (anakinra/tocilizumab)

A

anakinra

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30
Q

R.A. treatment: An IL-6 receptor antagonist sold as Actermra (anakinra/tocilizumab)

A

tocilizumab

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31
Q

This cytokine antagonist carries a risk of infection with TB, fungi, viral and others (anakinra/tocilizumab)

A

tocilizumab

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32
Q

Name 2 other cytokine agonists for treatment o R.A. hint: interfere with IL-6 and IL-1

A

anakinra and tocilizumab

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33
Q

Name 2 Co-stimulatory modulators that effect lymphocytes for treatment of R.A.

A

Atabatacept (t-cells)

Rituximab (b-cells)

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34
Q

This co-stimulatory modulator inhibits t-cell activation and promotes t-cells apoptosis (Atabatacept/Rituximan)

A

Atabatacept

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35
Q

This co-stimulatory modulator for R.A. has the side effects of 1. headaches and 2. infections (Atabatacept/Rituximan)

A

Atabatacept

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36
Q

This co-stimulatory modulator for R.A. side effects of 1. infections and 2. hypersensitivity reactions (Atabatacept/Rituximab)

A

Rituximab

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37
Q

This Co-stimulatory modulator for R.A. is an anti-CD-20 mAb that reduces circulating B-cells (Atabatacept/Rituximab)

A

Rituximab

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38
Q

This R.A. drug inhibits production of inflammatory mediators by blocking the JAK kinase pathway

A

Tofacitinib

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39
Q

What type of drug is Tofacitinib?

A

a signaling pathway inhibitor

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40
Q

What Dz does Tofacitinib treat?

A

R.A.

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41
Q

Gout is caused by the crystallization of _____ _____ within the joints

A

uric acid

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42
Q

this dz is sometimes called ‘crystal arthritis’

A

gout

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43
Q

The uric acid crystals that cause gout are a result of ________ metabolism

A

purine

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44
Q

Two methods to reduce uric acid load:

A
  1. prevent production

2. increase excretion

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45
Q

what is podagra?

A

gout in the big toe

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46
Q

What is colchicine used to treat?

A

acute gouty arthritis

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47
Q

This drug blocks tubulin and prevents leukocyte migrations, phagocytosis and activity

A

Colchicine

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48
Q

Long term use of colchicine can cause ______ and _______

A

peripheral neuropathy and neutropenia

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49
Q

Pain relief for acute gouty arthritis can include (3)

A
  1. Colchicine
  2. NSAIDs
  3. Corticosteroids
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50
Q

Indomethacin and Naproxen are both _______

A

non-selective NSAIDs

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51
Q

Indomethacin and Naproxen can both cause damage to the GI tract in the form of

A

gastric and duodenal ulcers

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52
Q

Compete with urate at the anionic transport site of the renal tubule and inhibit urate reabsorption (probenecid/ allopurinol/ febuxostat/ pegloticase)

A

probenecid

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53
Q

Reduces uric acid synthesis by inhibiting xanthine oxidase (probenecid/ allopurinol/ febuxostat/ pegloticase)

A

allopurinol

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54
Q

probenecid/ allopurinol/ febuxostat/ pegloticase

what do all these drug treat?

A

chronic tophaceous gout

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55
Q

a deposit of uric acid crystals is called a _______

A

Tophus

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56
Q

Which can cause a maculopapular rash (probenecid/ allopurinol/ febuxostat/ pegloticase)

A

allopurinol

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57
Q

Non-purine, non-competitive antagonist of xanthine oxidase

probenecid/ allopurinol/ febuxostat/ pegloticase

A

febuxostat

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58
Q

Converts uric acid to allantoin (probenecid/ allopurinol/ febuxostat/ pegloticase)

A

pegloticase (bound to PEG)

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59
Q

Allopurinol is metabolized to alloxanthine. allopurinol is a competitive inhibitor while alloxanthine is a non-competitive inhibitor of _______ _______

A

xanthine oxidase

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60
Q

Dx: acute gout attack
Hx: No complications
Rx: ?

A
  1. NSAIDs

2. possible corticosteriods injected IA

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61
Q

Dx: acute gout attack
Hx: renal insufficiency
Rx: ?

A

systemic corticosteroids

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62
Q

Dx: acute gout attack
Hx: peptic ulcer risk
Rx: ?

A

colchicine

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63
Q

Dx: Chronic tophaceous gout w/ uric acid stones
Hx: renal insufficiency
Rx: ?

A
  1. start allopurinol

2. consider febuxostat is CrCl is greater than 30mL/min

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64
Q

Dx: Chronic tophaceous gout
Hx: no complications
Rx: ?

A
  1. allopurinol or if not tolerated,

2. febuxostat

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65
Q

what are the natural endogenous estrogens called?

A

E1: Estrone
E2: Estradiol
E3: Estriol

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66
Q

What is the primary source of estrogen in pre-menopausal women? which estrogen is it?

A

the ovary

E2: estradiol

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67
Q

What is the major estrogen in postmenopausal women?

A

E1: Estrone

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68
Q

Aromatase converts testosterone to _______ and androstenedione to ______

A

testosterone to estradiol

androstenedione to estrone

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69
Q

estrogen circulating in the body is bound to _______

A

sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)

and albumin weakly

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70
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is not used due to the increased risk of ________

A

adenocarcinoma of the vagina and cervix

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71
Q

synth estrogens estradiol valerate and estradiol cypoinate are (estradiol esters/ conjugated estrogens/ alkyl estrogens)

A

estradiol esters

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72
Q

synth estrogens estrone sulfate and equilin sulfate are (estradiol esters/ conjugated estrogens/ alkyl estrogens)

A

conjugated estrogens

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73
Q

synth estrogens ethinyl estradiol and mestranol are (estradiol esters/ conjugated estrogens/ alkyl estrogens)

A

alkyl estrogens

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74
Q

HRT (increases/decreases) risk of cardio dz, stroke and dvt

A

increases

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75
Q

2 non-steroidal anti-estrogens are:

A
  1. clomiphene

2. tamoxiphene

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76
Q

Tamoxiphen has an anti estrogenic effect on the ______ and a pro-estrogenic effect on the _______

A

anti to the breast

pro to the uterine endometrium and bone

77
Q

Tamoxiphen binds to the _______ receptor

A

estrogen receptor (ER)

78
Q

tamoxiphene has a (low/high) binding affinity

A

low, a high dose has to be used

79
Q

clomiphen induces ovulation by binding the estrogen receptor in the _________

A

hypothalamus (inhibiting negative feedback leading to secretion of gonadotropins and LH)

80
Q

Name the synthetic progesterones (4)

A
  1. medroxyprogesterone
  2. norethindrone
  3. norgestrel
  4. megestrol
81
Q

The pharm name for “plan B” is _________

A

Levonorgestrel

82
Q

Levonorgestrel’s effect is to ________

A

prevent implantation

83
Q

Levonorgestrel is most similar to the endogenous hormone _________

A

progesterone

84
Q

The pharm name for “the abortion pill” is _________

A

RU-486 or mifepristone

85
Q

mifepristone can be taken up to ___ days after fertilization and still be effective

A

49 days (7 weeks)

86
Q

The pharm name for viagra is _________

A

Sildenafil citrate

87
Q

The pharm name for levitra is ________

A

Vardenalfil HCl

88
Q

The pharm name for Cialis is ________

A

Tadalafil

89
Q

Tadalafil, vardenafil and sildenafil citrate are all in the class of _______

A

PDE5 inhibitors

90
Q

Which has the longer half-life (tadalafil/ vardenafil/ sildenafil)

A

tadalafil (cialis)

91
Q

What does APC stand for in colon cancer?

A

Adenomatous polyposis coli

92
Q

two competing theories of tumor genesis are:

A
  1. Clonal Evolution

2. Cancer Stem cells

93
Q

what do cyclin-CDK complexes do to their targets?

A

phosphorylate them (kinase)

94
Q

Cdk2-cyclin A functions in (G1/ S/ G2+M) phase

A

S

95
Q

Cdk1-cyclin B functions in (G1/ S/ G2+M) phase

A

G2+M

96
Q

which cyclin-Cdk complexes can phosphorylate Rb? (3)

A

cyc E cdk 2
cyc D cdk 4
cyc D cdk 6
(E2, D4, D6)

97
Q

hyperphosphorylation of Rb causes the release of _____

A

E2F

98
Q

E2F activates the transcription of genes whose products control progression from ___ to ___ phase

A

G1 to S phase

99
Q

Rb releases E2F when it becomes __________ by cyclin-Cdk complexes: E2, D4, D6

A

hyperphosphoryalted

100
Q

These are cystine proteases that are activated in response to apoptotic insults such as cancer drugs: ______

A

Capsases

101
Q

This is released into the cytosol from the mitochondria during apoptosis: _________

A

Cytochrome C

102
Q

Anticancer drug resistance due to dysregulation of the apoptosis promoting genes due to mutations is known as (intrinsic/acquired) resistance

A

intrinsic

103
Q

Anticancer Drug resistance due to dysregulation of one or both apoptotic pathways during chemotherapy is (intrinsic/acquired) resistance

A

acquired resistance (the key is during chemo)

104
Q

the ABVD drugs are

A

Doxorubicin (adriamycin)
bleomycin
vinblastine
dacarbazine

105
Q

the CHOP drugs are

A

Cyclophosphamide
hydroxydoxorubacin
Vincristine (Oncovine)
Prednisone

106
Q

the MOPP drugs are

A

Mechlorethamine
Vincristine (oncovine)
Procarbazine
Prednisone

107
Q

the CMF drugs are

A

Cyclophosphamine
Methotrexate
5-fluorouracil

108
Q

the FEC drugs are

A

5-fluorouracil
Epirubicin
Cyclophosphamide

109
Q

What kind of drugs are anakinra and tocilizumab?

A

cytokine antagonsits for IL-6 and IL-1, a type of biological response modifiers

110
Q

This class of anti-cancer drugs transfers alkyl groups to DNA

A

alkylating agents

111
Q

This alkylating agent is part of the MOPP treatment and is good for hodgkin’s lymphoma, ALL, choroicarcinoma, Burkitt and T-cell lymphoma (methotrexate/mechlorethamine)

A

mechclorethamine

112
Q

These two alkylating agents are given as pro-drugs and are activated by a liver p450 (mechlorethamine/ cyclophosphamide/ Ifosfamide)

A

cyclophosphamide and Ifosphamide

113
Q

this nitrogen mustard is better for sarcoma and testicular cancer (cyclophosphamide/ Ifosphamide)

A

Ifosamide

114
Q

this nitrogen mustard is the most widely used and is best for ALL, CLL, non-hodgkin’s, breast lung and ovarian cancers (cyclophosphamide/ Ifosphamide)

A

cyclophosphamide

115
Q

These two alkylating agents lead to hemorragic cysts and bladder irritation due to the acrolein metabolite (mechlorethamine/ cyclophosphamide/ Ifosfamide)

A

cyclophosphamide and Ifosphamide

116
Q

The alkylating agents that are nitrosoureas are (Carmustine + Lomustine/ Dacarbazine + Procarbazine)

A

Carmustine and Lomustine

117
Q

Carmustine and Lomustine are good for treating (hodgkin’s/ brain tumors/ ovarian cancer)

A

brain tumors

118
Q

These drugs are soluble across the BBB (nitrosoureas /platinum analogs/ triazenes)

A

nitrosoureas

Carmustine and Lomustine

119
Q

Pick the 3 Triazenes (Dacarbazine/ procarbazine/ ifosamide/ cyclophaphamide/ temozolomide)

A

dacarbazine
procarbazine
temozolomide

120
Q

Since the nitrosoureas Carmustine and Lomustine have good solubilities, they can get into bones and have the side effect of __________

A

myelosupression

121
Q

This triazene is part of the ABVD combination regiment (Doxorubicin/ dacarbazine/ procarbazine/ temozolomide)

A

dacarbazine

doxorubicin is adrimacin, an anthracycline

122
Q

(dacarbazine/ temozolomide) is administered IV and (dacarbazine/ temozolomide) is administered orally

A

dacarbazine is IV

temozolomide is oral

123
Q

this platinum analog is known for its renal toxicity (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

cisplatin

124
Q

this platinum analog is known for its myelosuppression and thrombocytopenia (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

carboplatin

125
Q

this platinum analog is known for its neutropenia and eripheral censory loss (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

oxaliplatin

126
Q

The platinum analogs are (alkylating/ DNA intercalating) agents

A

alkylating

127
Q

the platinum analogs are made cytotoxic by reacting with (p450/ water)

A

water

128
Q

cyclophosphamide and Ifosphamide are made cytotoxic by reacting with (p450/ water)

A

p450

129
Q

platinum analog best for testicular, ovarian, bladder and lung carcinomas (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

cisplatin

130
Q

platinum analog best for ovarian cancer (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

carboplatin

131
Q

platinum analog best for gastric and colorectal cancer (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

oxaliplatin

132
Q

Methotrexate (can/ cannot) penetrate the CNS

A

cannot, administered intrathecally for meningeal leukemia

133
Q

5-fluorouracil, cytarabine, gemcitabine are (pyrimidine/ purine) analog

A

pyrimidine

134
Q

5-fluorouracil is converted to 5-FdUMP which inhibits _______ synthase

A

thymidylate synthase

135
Q

This pyrimidine analog can give hand-foot syndrome with erythema and sensitivity (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine)

A

5-fluorouracil

136
Q

This pyrimidine analog is most effective for AML and CML (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine)

A

cytarabine

cyta for CML and AML

137
Q

This pyrimidine analog can be made into a topical cream for basal cell carcinoma and face peels (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine)

A

5-fluorouracil

5-fluoro for the face

138
Q

Which is the best for solid tumors in the head, neck, esophagus, and non-small cell lung (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

gemcitabine

139
Q

Which is a pyrimidine analog of cytidine?

5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine

A

cytarabine and gemcitabine

140
Q

Which is S phase specific? (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

All of them!

5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine

141
Q

This is our only purine analog (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

6-mercaptopurine

142
Q

This chemotheraputic prodrug must be metabolized by HGRPRT (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

6-mercaptopurine

143
Q

Used to maintain remission in acute ALL (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

6-mercaptopurine

144
Q

Dactinomycin, daunorubicin, doxorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin are all (Base analogs/ intercalating agents/ antibiotics)

A

BOTH intercalating agents and antibiotics

145
Q

Which act in the G2 phase of the cell cycle? (doxorubicin/ epirubicin/ idarubicin/ bleomycin)

A

bleomycin

146
Q

What are our 2 microtubule formation inhibiting drugs?

A
  1. Vinblastine

2. Vincristine

147
Q

Which is part of ABVD therapy (Vinblastine/ Vincristine)

A

Vinblastine

148
Q

Which has dose limiting neurotoxicity (Vinblastine/ Vincristine)

A

Vincristine

149
Q

What are our 2 microtubule degradation inhibiting drugs?

A
  1. Paclitaxel

2. Docetaxel

150
Q

Vinca alkaloids prevent microtubule (polymerization/depolymerization) and Taxanes prevent microtubule (polymerization/depolymerization)

A

Vinca prevent polymerization

Taxanes prevent depolymerization

151
Q

This enzyme works to relieve torsional strain on DNA stands

A

Topoisomerase

152
Q

Etoposide and teniposide both inhibit (topoisomerase I/ topoisomerase II)

A

topoisomerase II

153
Q

Tamoxifen is used for anti-________ therapy

A

Estrogen

154
Q

use of tamoxifen increases the risk of ________

A

endometrial cancer

and thromboembolic events

155
Q

What are SERDs?

A

selective estrogen downregulators

156
Q

Name a SERD

A

Fluvestrant

157
Q

Anastrozole, Letrozole and Exemestane all do the same thing. They are _________ inhibitors

A

aromatase inhibitors

158
Q

Leuprolide and Goserelin both do the same thing, bind and block the _________ receptor

A

bind and block the GnRH receptor

159
Q

If Leuprolide and Goserelin block the GnRH receptor, ____ and _____ wont be released

A

FSH and LH are not released

160
Q

What are the two non-steriodal androgen-receptor blockers?

A

Leuprolide and Goserelin

161
Q

Hydroxyurea inhibits the enzyme _______

A

ribonucleotide reductase

162
Q

What drug can treat myeloproliferative neoplasms, polycythemia vera, essential thrombocytopenia and SICKLE CELL?

A

Hydroxyurea

163
Q

These drugs induce terminal differentiation in malignant immature promyelocytes for treatment of APL

A

Retinoids

164
Q

This drug can treat multiple myeloma but historically caused birth defects in children

A

Thalidomide

165
Q

Imatinib, Gefitinib, Erlotinib are all in the class of ____ _____ _____

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitors

166
Q

Arsenic trioxide can be used to treat relapse of ____ ________ _______

A

Acute promyelocystic anemia

167
Q

Imatinib inhibits (Abl kinase /PDGFR/ c-kit/ EGFR)

A

Abl kinase, PDGFR and c-kit

168
Q

Gefitinib and erlotinib inhibit (Abl kinase /PDGFR/ c-kit/ EGFR)

A

EGRF for NSCLC

169
Q

What drug is a monoclonal antibody against HER2/neu for breast cancer treatment?

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

170
Q

Which id a monoclonal antibody against EGRF1 (ErbB1) for treatment of EGFR-positive colon cancer (Gefitinib/ Erlotinib/ Cetuximab)

A

Cetuximab

171
Q

Which inhibits DHODH which is required for pyrimidine synth (methotrexate/leflunomide)

A

Leflunomide

172
Q

This drug inhibits a renal ion transporter and increases excretion of uric acid

A

Probenecid

173
Q

Doxorubicin and cisplatin work by activating the cell protein ______

A

p53

174
Q

This drug binds the Bcl-Abl tyrosine kinase at the site where ATP normally binds. It is ________

A

Imatinib

175
Q

Imatinib is metabolized by ________

A

cytochrome p450(3A4)

176
Q

the BRAF mutation is characteristic of about 50% of this type of cancer: ______

A

melanomas

177
Q

Generally, the best drug for a malignant melanoma without BRAF v600e/k is _______

A

dacarbazine

a triazine alkylating agent

178
Q

Ipilimumab is used to treat (CML/ALL/Melanoma)

A

melanoma

179
Q

Ipilimumab is an inhibitor of ______

A

CTLA-4

180
Q

Which will absorb a drug faster? (IM/Sub Q)

A

IM, muscles are more vascular

181
Q

The ErbB# family is has an equivalent name, _____. So ErbB2 is the same as ______

A

HER#

ErbB2 is HER2/neu

182
Q

The 3 drugs for melanoma are:

A

Dabrafenib
Vemurafenib
Trametineb

183
Q

This drug for melanoma inhibits Mitogen activated extracellular kinase (MEK) (Dabrafenib/ Vemurafenib/ Trametineb)

A

Trametinib

184
Q

These two drugs treat NSCLC:

A

Erlotinib

Gefitinib

185
Q

The CYP enzymes do (phase I/ phase II) reactions

A

phase I

186
Q

codeine is converted to morphine by CYP____

A

CYP 2D6

187
Q

clopidogrel is a prodrug and is activated by CYP___

A

2C19

188
Q

Warfarin is metabolized for elimination by CYP___

A

2C9

MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards (9 decks)

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