Pharmacology concepts Flashcards by Ricky r

Time course of drug absorption, action and elimination (pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics)

pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What a drug does in the body (pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics)

pharmacodynamics

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Simple chemical interactions i.e. antacids, antiseptics (physiochemical actions/Receptor interaction)

physiochemical action

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

drug with physiologic receptor like most drugs (physiochemical action/receptor interaction)

receptor interaction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Digitalis contains _____ _____ a sugar that act on the contractile force of cardiac muscle

cardiac glycosides

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Xopenex (levalbuterol) binds and bronchodialates via the ___ receptor

β2

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The ability of a drug to stimulate the receptor once bound is called ____ activity

intrinsic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

_______ receptors mediate “side-effects”

secondary

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The ability of the drug to activate the effector portion of the receptor once the drug is bound is the _________ (efficacy/potency)

Efficacy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The amount of drug needed for an effect is the _______ (efficacy/potency)

Potency

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A proton pump inhibitor is a (competitive/non-competitive) inhibitor

non-competitive inhibitor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

when a drug is pinched in a packet of cell membrane for transport it is called _________

micropinocytosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the henderson-hasslebach eq?

pH = pKa + log (A-/HA)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

These are better made as a pill and are easily absorbed (weak acid drug/weak base drug)

weak acid drug

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

These are poorly absorbed and get stuck in the stomach (weak acid drug/weak base drug)

weak base drug

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Heroin and cocaine are best injected and snorted. They must be (weak acids/weak bases)

weak bases

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

These drugs use a portion of the GI tract (Enteral/Parenteral)

Enteral

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Describe the “first pass effect”

the concentration of a drug is reduced, mostly by the liver, before it reaches the systemic circulation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Vomiting patient

Best route of drug admin (oral/rectal/sublingual)

rectal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Radio-contrast is administered (Intravenous/intraarterial)

intraarterial

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Intramuscular injection is counterindicated for patients after anticoagulation therapy for risk of _______

hematoma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

injection into the spinal canal, more specifically into the subarachnoid space is called _______

intrathecal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When a local effect on the CSF is required, consider ________ administration

intrathecal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The fraction of a dose available for biological activity is called ______

bioavailibility

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

(Cp*Vd) / F =

Dose

Applying a cold compress to an injection site will (increase/decrease) drug absorption rate

decrease

Onset and duration of action (are/are not) dependent on absorption

are

Rapid dissolution (speeds up/slows down) drug action

speeds up

to remove a weak base drug from within the BBB, add a (acid/base) to the blood stream

acid

to remove a weak acid drug from within the bbb add a (acid/base) to the blood stream

base

in the short term, drugs can be stored in body reservoirs by bind to (proteins/lipids) and in the long term by binding (proteins/lipids)

short term: proteins | long term: lipids

drug displacement can lead to __________ and therefore a greater pharmacological response

more free drug at the receptor

One method of clearing drugs that relies on endogenous enzyme systems is called ________

biotransformation

The cellular component of the liver that enhances the solubility of non-polar drugs is the ______ ______

smooth ER

phase 1 of xenobiotic removal can chemical modifications such as _____, ______ or ______

oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

phase 2 of xenobiotic removal is __________

conjugation

to remove a lipophilic drug it is made into a ________ one

hydrophilic

When a drug increases the metabolism of itself or another drug, it is called _________

induction

When a drug blocks the metabolism of another drug or endogenous reaction it is called ________

inhibition

Name (6) components of the hepatic mixed function oxidase system

1. NADPH 2. Cytochrome p450 reductase flavoprotein 3. Cyt p450 hemoproteins 4. Mg2+ 5. Phospholipid 6. O2

the ratio of p450 to reductase is ______

10:1

Drug oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis are examples of (phase 1/phase 2) biotransformation reactions

phase 1

Drug conjugation for excretion is a (phase 1/phase 2) reaction

phase 2

Oxidation of a drug using the mixed function oxidases is a (phase 1/phase 2) reaction

phase 1

The most common type of conjugation for phase 2 reactions is (glucaronide formation/glycine conjugation/glutamine conjugation)

glucaronide formation

Glucaronide formation conjugates glucose with ____ to make _________

UTP to make UDP glucose

To remove drugs via a phase 2 reaction, acetylation requires the precursor (UTP/SCoA/S-adenosylmethionine)

SCoA

To remove drugs via a phase 2 reaction, methylation requires the precursor (UTP/SCoA/S-adenosylmethionine)

S-adenosylmethionine

Drug induction (increases/decreases) metabolism

increases

Drug Inhibition (increases/decreases) metabolism

decreases

Can be influenced by induction, inhibition and saturation (hepatic microsomal enzymes/non-microsomal enzymes)

hepatic microsomal enzymes

Can only be influenced by inhibition and saturation (hepatic microsomal enzymes/non-microsomal enzymes)

Non-microsomal enzymes

for drugs: (glomerular filtration+ active tubular secretion) - (passive reabsorption + active reabsorption) = ?

amount of drug secreted

lipid soluble drugs ultimately have to be biotransformed to a water soluble form by the _______ (organ)

liver

In the kidney, the majority of drug reabsorption occurs in the (proximal tubule/distal tubule/loop of henle)

proximal tubule

manipulating the pH of the urine to enhance drug secretion is known as _______ _______

ionic trapping

when a drug is put into the bile and later reabsorbed and brought back to the liver, this is known as _______ _______

enterohepatic cycling

The amount of the drug that is removed from the plasma per unit time is known as the drug ______ in ml/min

clearance

In drug administration, the α-phase represents drug (distribution/elimination)

distribution

In drug administration, the β-phase represents drug (distribution/elimination)

elimination

If the size of the dose does not change the absorption rate, Ka, the the absorption kinetics are (first order/zero order)

zero order

When a large does of a drug saturates the carrier for facilitated diffusion the kinetics are (first order/zero order)

zero order

IV infusion of a drug, the absorption kinetics are (first order/zero order)

zero order

The larger the dose you give, the faster the absorption means that the absorption kinetics are (first order/zero order)

first order

Ethanol elimination kinetics is (first order/zero order)

zero order | at a constant rate since elimination is saturated

M.M. says V = (Vmax * [D]) / (Km + [D]) | if [D] is much less than Km, then the reaction is (first order/zero order)

first order

measuring the half life is only relevant for (first order/zero order) processes

first order

? = 0.693/Ke

half life: t(1/2)

If the clearance of a drug is high, the t1/2 is (long/short)

short

the time to get to stead state is (dependent/independent) of the dosage

independent!

It usually takes about #__ of half lives to get to a steady state

when rate of absorption = rate of elimination, it is called a ______ _______

steady state

How does the dose interval affect the steady state concentration?

it is directly proportional, the more frequently you dose, the higher the [steady state]

If normal is 4 half lives to steady state, then if you have a 2x metabolism then it takes you __ half lives to get to steady state

If normal is 4 half lives to steady state, then if you have a 1/2x metabolism then it takes you __ half lives to get to steady state

The time it takes to get to steady state is (dependent/independent) of dose route such as oral or IV or more frequent oral doses

independent (still takes 4x t1/2)

the dose (does/does not) affect the time it takes to get to steady state

does not!

the dose (does/does not) affect the concentration at steady state

does!

when checking dosing, the concentration at the first half life is _____% of the steady state concentration

50%, one half at the first half life

decreased response to continued administration of a drug is called ________

tolerance

refractoriness to the drug effect (such as in bacteria) is known as ______

resistance

when a drug is administered faster than it can be eliminated it is called ______

cumulation

The TD50 - ED50 is known as the _________

margin of safety

How are iatrogenic effects of a drug different from side effects?

iatrogenic are predictable (e.g. chemotherapeutics)

a comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes therapeutic effect to the amount that causes toxicity is called ________

therapeutic index

Chronic Inflammation of the synovial lining of joints w/ pain and stiffness

Rheumatoid arthritis

any disease marked by inflammation and pain in the joints, muscles, or fibrous tissue

rheumatism

The cell most responsible for the inflammation in R.A. is the _______ cell

CD4+ T cell

The key inflammatory factor in R.A. is IL- ___

IL-1

an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue esp. with R.A. is called a ________

pannus

fusion of bones is known as _________

ankylosis

If a drug binds well to plasma proteins it will have a (larger/smaller) apparent Vd

smaller Vd

which does not influence clearance of a drug (volume of dist/ absorption from GI tract/ absorption from renal tubules)

absorption from GI tract!

In a plot of drug [plasma] vs. time, what does the area under the curve represent?

the Bioavailibility

M.M. says V = (Vmax * [D]) / (Km + [D]) | if [D} >> Km then the reaction is (first order/zero order)

zero order

A neutropenic fever is an oncological emergency with a temperature above _____F

101 F

An absolute neutrophile count below 1000 is called ______

neutropenia

Is it ok to give a chemo patient a drug per rectum?

NEVER! risk of infection

serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by cancer chemotherapy

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Monoclonal antibodies for chemo frequently cause (infusion reactions/ diarrhea)

infusion reactions

5FU and Irinotecan for chemo frequently cause (infusion reactions/ diarrhea)

diarrhea