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MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards > Pharmacology concepts > Flashcards

Pharmacology concepts Flashcards

1
Q

Time course of drug absorption, action and elimination (pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics)

A

pharmacokinetics

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2
Q

What a drug does in the body (pharmacokinetics/pharmacodynamics)

A

pharmacodynamics

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3
Q

Simple chemical interactions i.e. antacids, antiseptics (physiochemical actions/Receptor interaction)

A

physiochemical action

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4
Q

drug with physiologic receptor like most drugs (physiochemical action/receptor interaction)

A

receptor interaction

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5
Q

Digitalis contains _____ _____ a sugar that act on the contractile force of cardiac muscle

A

cardiac glycosides

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6
Q

Xopenex (levalbuterol) binds and bronchodialates via the ___ receptor

A

β2

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7
Q

The ability of a drug to stimulate the receptor once bound is called ____ activity

A

intrinsic

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8
Q

_______ receptors mediate “side-effects”

A

secondary

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9
Q

The ability of the drug to activate the effector portion of the receptor once the drug is bound is the _________ (efficacy/potency)

A

Efficacy

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10
Q

The amount of drug needed for an effect is the _______ (efficacy/potency)

A

Potency

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11
Q

A proton pump inhibitor is a (competitive/non-competitive) inhibitor

A

non-competitive inhibitor

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12
Q

when a drug is pinched in a packet of cell membrane for transport it is called _________

A

micropinocytosis

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13
Q

What is the henderson-hasslebach eq?

A

pH = pKa + log (A-/HA)

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14
Q

These are better made as a pill and are easily absorbed (weak acid drug/weak base drug)

A

weak acid drug

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15
Q

These are poorly absorbed and get stuck in the stomach (weak acid drug/weak base drug)

A

weak base drug

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16
Q

Heroin and cocaine are best injected and snorted. They must be (weak acids/weak bases)

A

weak bases

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17
Q

These drugs use a portion of the GI tract (Enteral/Parenteral)

A

Enteral

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18
Q

Describe the “first pass effect”

A

the concentration of a drug is reduced, mostly by the liver, before it reaches the systemic circulation

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19
Q

Vomiting patient

Best route of drug admin (oral/rectal/sublingual)

A

rectal

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20
Q

Radio-contrast is administered (Intravenous/intraarterial)

A

intraarterial

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21
Q

Intramuscular injection is counterindicated for patients after anticoagulation therapy for risk of _______

A

hematoma

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22
Q

injection into the spinal canal, more specifically into the subarachnoid space is called _______

A

intrathecal

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23
Q

When a local effect on the CSF is required, consider ________ administration

A

intrathecal

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24
Q

The fraction of a dose available for biological activity is called ______

A

bioavailibility

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25
Q

(Cp*Vd) / F =

A

Dose

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26
Q

Applying a cold compress to an injection site will (increase/decrease) drug absorption rate

A

decrease

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27
Q

Onset and duration of action (are/are not) dependent on absorption

A

are

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28
Q

Rapid dissolution (speeds up/slows down) drug action

A

speeds up

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29
Q

to remove a weak base drug from within the BBB, add a (acid/base) to the blood stream

A

acid

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30
Q

to remove a weak acid drug from within the bbb add a (acid/base) to the blood stream

A

base

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31
Q

in the short term, drugs can be stored in body reservoirs by bind to (proteins/lipids) and in the long term by binding (proteins/lipids)

A

short term: proteins

long term: lipids

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32
Q

drug displacement can lead to __________ and therefore a greater pharmacological response

A

more free drug at the receptor

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33
Q

One method of clearing drugs that relies on endogenous enzyme systems is called ________

A

biotransformation

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34
Q

The cellular component of the liver that enhances the solubility of non-polar drugs is the ______ ______

A

smooth ER

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35
Q

phase 1 of xenobiotic removal can chemical modifications such as _____, ______ or ______

A

oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis

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36
Q

phase 2 of xenobiotic removal is __________

A

conjugation

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37
Q

to remove a lipophilic drug it is made into a ________ one

A

hydrophilic

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38
Q

When a drug increases the metabolism of itself or another drug, it is called _________

A

induction

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39
Q

When a drug blocks the metabolism of another drug or endogenous reaction it is called ________

A

inhibition

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40
Q

Name (6) components of the hepatic mixed function oxidase system

A
  1. NADPH
  2. Cytochrome p450 reductase flavoprotein
  3. Cyt p450 hemoproteins
  4. Mg2+
  5. Phospholipid
  6. O2
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41
Q

the ratio of p450 to reductase is ______

A

10:1

42
Q

Drug oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis are examples of (phase 1/phase 2) biotransformation reactions

A

phase 1

43
Q

Drug conjugation for excretion is a (phase 1/phase 2) reaction

A

phase 2

44
Q

Oxidation of a drug using the mixed function oxidases is a (phase 1/phase 2) reaction

A

phase 1

45
Q

The most common type of conjugation for phase 2 reactions is (glucaronide formation/glycine conjugation/glutamine conjugation)

A

glucaronide formation

46
Q

Glucaronide formation conjugates glucose with ____ to make _________

A

UTP to make UDP glucose

47
Q

To remove drugs via a phase 2 reaction, acetylation requires the precursor (UTP/SCoA/S-adenosylmethionine)

A

SCoA

48
Q

To remove drugs via a phase 2 reaction, methylation requires the precursor (UTP/SCoA/S-adenosylmethionine)

A

S-adenosylmethionine

49
Q

Drug induction (increases/decreases) metabolism

A

increases

50
Q

Drug Inhibition (increases/decreases) metabolism

A

decreases

51
Q

Can be influenced by induction, inhibition and saturation (hepatic microsomal enzymes/non-microsomal enzymes)

A

hepatic microsomal enzymes

52
Q

Can only be influenced by inhibition and saturation (hepatic microsomal enzymes/non-microsomal enzymes)

A

Non-microsomal enzymes

53
Q

for drugs: (glomerular filtration+ active tubular secretion) - (passive reabsorption + active reabsorption) = ?

A

amount of drug secreted

54
Q

lipid soluble drugs ultimately have to be biotransformed to a water soluble form by the _______ (organ)

A

liver

55
Q

In the kidney, the majority of drug reabsorption occurs in the (proximal tubule/distal tubule/loop of henle)

A

proximal tubule

56
Q

manipulating the pH of the urine to enhance drug secretion is known as _______ _______

A

ionic trapping

57
Q

when a drug is put into the bile and later reabsorbed and brought back to the liver, this is known as _______ _______

A

enterohepatic cycling

58
Q

The amount of the drug that is removed from the plasma per unit time is known as the drug ______ in ml/min

A

clearance

59
Q

In drug administration, the α-phase represents drug (distribution/elimination)

A

distribution

60
Q

In drug administration, the β-phase represents drug (distribution/elimination)

A

elimination

61
Q

If the size of the dose does not change the absorption rate, Ka, the the absorption kinetics are (first order/zero order)

A

zero order

62
Q

When a large does of a drug saturates the carrier for facilitated diffusion the kinetics are (first order/zero order)

A

zero order

63
Q

IV infusion of a drug, the absorption kinetics are (first order/zero order)

A

zero order

64
Q

The larger the dose you give, the faster the absorption means that the absorption kinetics are (first order/zero order)

A

first order

65
Q

Ethanol elimination kinetics is (first order/zero order)

A

zero order

at a constant rate since elimination is saturated

66
Q

M.M. says V = (Vmax * [D]) / (Km + [D])

if [D] is much less than Km, then the reaction is (first order/zero order)

A

first order

67
Q

measuring the half life is only relevant for (first order/zero order) processes

A

first order

68
Q

? = 0.693/Ke

A

half life: t(1/2)

69
Q

If the clearance of a drug is high, the t1/2 is (long/short)

A

short

70
Q

the time to get to stead state is (dependent/independent) of the dosage

A

independent!

71
Q

It usually takes about #__ of half lives to get to a steady state

A

4

72
Q

when rate of absorption = rate of elimination, it is called a ______ _______

A

steady state

73
Q

How does the dose interval affect the steady state concentration?

A

it is directly proportional, the more frequently you dose, the higher the [steady state]

74
Q

If normal is 4 half lives to steady state, then if you have a 2x metabolism then it takes you __ half lives to get to steady state

A

2

75
Q

If normal is 4 half lives to steady state, then if you have a 1/2x metabolism then it takes you __ half lives to get to steady state

A

8

76
Q

The time it takes to get to steady state is (dependent/independent) of dose route such as oral or IV or more frequent oral doses

A

independent (still takes 4x t1/2)

77
Q

the dose (does/does not) affect the time it takes to get to steady state

A

does not!

78
Q

the dose (does/does not) affect the concentration at steady state

A

does!

79
Q

when checking dosing, the concentration at the first half life is _____% of the steady state concentration

A

50%, one half at the first half life

80
Q

decreased response to continued administration of a drug is called ________

A

tolerance

81
Q

refractoriness to the drug effect (such as in bacteria) is known as ______

A

resistance

82
Q

when a drug is administered faster than it can be eliminated it is called ______

A

cumulation

83
Q

The TD50 - ED50 is known as the _________

A

margin of safety

84
Q

How are iatrogenic effects of a drug different from side effects?

A

iatrogenic are predictable (e.g. chemotherapeutics)

85
Q

a comparison of the amount of a therapeutic agent that causes therapeutic effect to the amount that causes toxicity is called ________

A

therapeutic index

86
Q

Chronic Inflammation of the synovial lining of joints w/ pain and stiffness

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

87
Q

any disease marked by inflammation and pain in the joints, muscles, or fibrous tissue

A

rheumatism

88
Q

The cell most responsible for the inflammation in R.A. is the _______ cell

A

CD4+ T cell

89
Q

The key inflammatory factor in R.A. is IL- ___

A

IL-1

90
Q

an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue esp. with R.A. is called a ________

A

pannus

91
Q

fusion of bones is known as _________

A

ankylosis

92
Q

If a drug binds well to plasma proteins it will have a (larger/smaller) apparent Vd

A

smaller Vd

93
Q

which does not influence clearance of a drug (volume of dist/ absorption from GI tract/ absorption from renal tubules)

A

absorption from GI tract!

94
Q

In a plot of drug [plasma] vs. time, what does the area under the curve represent?

A

the Bioavailibility

95
Q

M.M. says V = (Vmax * [D]) / (Km + [D])

if [D}&raquo_space; Km then the reaction is (first order/zero order)

A

zero order

96
Q

A neutropenic fever is an oncological emergency with a temperature above _____F

A

101 F

97
Q

An absolute neutrophile count below 1000 is called ______

A

neutropenia

98
Q

Is it ok to give a chemo patient a drug per rectum?

A

NEVER! risk of infection

99
Q

serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by cancer chemotherapy

A

Ondansetron (Zofran)

100
Q

Monoclonal antibodies for chemo frequently cause (infusion reactions/ diarrhea)

A

infusion reactions

101
Q

5FU and Irinotecan for chemo frequently cause (infusion reactions/ diarrhea)

A

diarrhea

MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards (9 decks)

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