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MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Treponema pallidum causes the STD _______

A

syphillis

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2
Q

Moist lesions on genitals with a 2* syphillis infection is known as (chromobacterious infection/condyloma lata/starbucks latte)

A

Condyloma lata

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3
Q

syphilitic myelopathy, is a slow degeneration by demyelination of the nerves primarily in the dorsal columns is called ______ _____

A

Tabes Dorsalis

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4
Q

a soft, non-cancerous growth, a form of granuloma, resulting from the tertiary stage of syphilis is called a ______

A

gumma

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5
Q

flu-like reaction to endotoxin-like products released during death of a microorganisms in the body with antibiotics

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

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6
Q

form or cause to form into small clumps or masses

A

flocculate

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7
Q

Treponema pertenue causes the disease ______

A

Yaws

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8
Q

Treponema carateum causes the disease _____

A

Pinta

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9
Q

Treponema infections are best treated with (doxycyclin/penicillin/erythromycin)

A

penicillin is best, doxy and erythro are less effective

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10
Q

rapid diagnostic test that looks for non-specific antibodies in the blood against Treponema pallidum, pertenue and carateum

A

RPR, Rapid Plasma Reagin

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11
Q

The Argyll-Robertson pupil that fails to constrict with light indicates ________

A

neuro syphilis

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12
Q

Organism: Gram (-) dipolococci (Treponema pallidum/Neisseria gonorrhoeae)

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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13
Q

Organism: has Opa virulence factors that bind receptors on immune cells and prevent immune response

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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14
Q

Organism: has pili and IgA protease enabling attachment to mucosal surfaces and intracellular penetration

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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15
Q

Failure of complement will allow a __________ infeciton

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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16
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae has the o-antigen (LPS/LOS)

A

LipoOligoSaccharide

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17
Q

A male patient has urethritis. Urine and exudate collections shows PMN’s with intracellular diplococci that stain gram (-) Infectious agent is likely ________

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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18
Q

You believe your patient has N. gonorrhoeae. You should treat with (Penicillin G/Ceftriaxone/azithromycin)

A

Ceftriaxone, or alternate cephalosporin

Azithro for Chlamydia co-infection

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19
Q

A neonate is born to a mother with N. gonorrhoeae. facial exposure has ocured. Use ointment with (bacitracin/erythromycin/ceftriaxone)

A

erythromycin on eyes

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20
Q

An obligate intracellular gram negative bacteria sometime called the “virus of bacterias” is __________

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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21
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is gram (positive/negative)

A

negative!

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22
Q

In the chlamydia life cycle, elementary bodies (replicate/infect) and reticulate bodies (replicate/infect)

A

EB’s infect

RB’s replicate and divide

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23
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: endemic to africa and south asia (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)

A

A-C

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24
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: endemic to south and central america (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)

A

L1-L3

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25
Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: Most common STD in U.S. (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)
D-K
26
Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: often asymptomatic, spreads sexually and at birth (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)
D-K
27
Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: Small ulcers procede to swollen lymph nodes (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)
L1-L3
28
Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: A leading cause of preventable blindness (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)
A-C
29
There is a risk of reactive arthritis with (Chlamydia/Gonorrhoeae)
Both! but most common with: Chlamydia, Salmonella, Shigella or Campylobacter
30
Reactive arthritis is associated with the ________ gene on chromosome 6
HLA-B27
31
Adult patient Dx: Chlamydia Rx: (Doxy or azithro/Erythromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole)
Doxycycline or azithromycin
32
Peds, Pregnant, allergic patient Dx: Chlamydia Rx: (Doxycycline or azithromyc/Erythromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole)
Erythromycin + amoxicillin
33
Dx: Trichomonas vaginalis Rx: (Doxycycline or azithromyc/Erythromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole)
Oral metronidazole (Flagyl)
34
Dx: Bacterial Vaginosis Organism: (Trichomonas Vaginalis/Gardnerella vaginalis/Haemophilus duceryi)
Gardnerella vaginalis
35
Painful genital swellings, "chancres" Dx: Chancroid Organism: (Trichomonas Vaginalis/Gardnerella vaginalis/Haemophilus duceryi)
Haemophilus ducreyi
36
Dx: bacterial vaginosis w/Gardnerella vaginalis Rx:(Doxycycline or azithromyc/metronidazole or clindamycin/ciprofloxacin)
metronidazole or clindamycin
37
Dx: Chancroid w/ Haemophilus ducreyi Rx: (azithromycin/metronidazole/ clindamycin/ciprofloxacin/ceftriaxone)
Azithromycin, Ceftriaxone, or Ciprofloxacin
38
Is a transcription factor (myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)
myc
39
Is a platelet-derived growth factor(myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)
sis
40
Is a growth factor receptor (myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)
erb B
41
Is a cell cycle regulator (myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)
p53 AND pRB
42
Is a membrane signaller of growth factor binding (myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)
src
43
The Rb protein blocks ______ and stops the cell cycle
E2F
44
The SV40 virus causes cancer in _______
hampsters
45
A herpes virus that causes Burkitt's lymphoma in Africa and in patients w/ AIDS
Epsein-Barr virus
46
The Epstien-Barr virus causes ________ in the western world
mononucleosis
47
Tumors associated with EBV have which gene over-expressed?
myc
48
The hepatitis viruses, HBV and HVC, can cause _______ cancer
liver
49
Human T-cell lymphotrophic virus, HTLV-2 and HTLV-2 is a (RNA/DNA) virus
RNA
50
This virus has the tax gene that causes over-expression of IL-2 and the receptor of IL-2. It is _______
Human T-cell lymphotrophic virus, HTLV-2 and HTLV-2
51
This RNA virus is blood born, prevalent in the Caribbean and is cancer causing, leukemia and lymphoma
Human T-cell lymphotrophic virus, HTLV-2 and HTLV-2
52
HHV8 is known for causing _______ in patients with HIV
Kaposi's Sarcoma
53
Which can be prevented by vaccine (Burkitt lymphoma/Kaposi Sarcoma/Liver Cancer)
liver cancer with hepatitis vaccine
54
HIV is an (ssRNA//dsRNA/DNA) virus
ssRNA
55
A retrovirus that is slow to cause disease is known as a ________
lentivirus: slow to cause disease (not slow to replicate)
56
HIV is (diploid/haploid)
diploid (two copies in each virion)
57
HIV infection leads to low levels of _______ cells through a number of mechanisms
CD4+ T
58
the surface receptor in HIV is ______
GP120
59
HIV has how many genes?
9 genes
60
HIV uses GP120 first to recognize the _____ on macrophages and then progress to the ______ receptor on T cells
CCR5 receptor on macrophages | CXCR4 receptor on T cells and
61
How do HIV virions escape from the cell?
budding
62
HIV can cause T-cells to fuse together to form a _________
syncytium
63
AIDS is defined by a CD4 cell count below _______
200/mm^3
64
What controls viral load levels for the ~15 years in which the virus can be latent?
NK cells
65
The defective HIV virions can still be immunogenic leading to chronic _______
inflamation
66
HIV enters the cell by (fusion/endocytosis/uncoating) at the plasma membrane
fusion at the plasma membrane
67
CCR5 and CXCR4 are normally receptors for _______ and not normally used for GP120
chemokines
68
What enzyme is used to synthesize the dsDNA of HIV?
reverse transcriptase
69
In the HIV life cycle, end of phase 1 is marked by (DNA integration into host chromosome/mRNA is transcribed, spliced and exported to the cytoplasm)
DNA integration into host chromosome
70
In the HIV life cycle, the start of phase 2 is marked by (DNA integration into host chromosome/mRNA is transcribed, spliced and exported to the cytoplasm)
mRNA is transcribed, spliced and exported to the cytoplasm
71
There are three different varieties of AIDS-related lymphoma:
1. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma 2. B-cell immunoblastic lymphoma 3. and Burkitt's lymphoma
72
Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the myc gene and the translocation _______
t(8:14)
73
HIV DNA is turned back into HIV RNA by the host enzyme ________
RNA Pol II

MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards (9 decks)

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