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MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Treponema pallidum causes the STD _______

A

syphillis

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2
Q

Moist lesions on genitals with a 2* syphillis infection is known as (chromobacterious infection/condyloma lata/starbucks latte)

A

Condyloma lata

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3
Q

syphilitic myelopathy, is a slow degeneration by demyelination of the nerves primarily in the dorsal columns is called ______ _____

A

Tabes Dorsalis

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4
Q

a soft, non-cancerous growth, a form of granuloma, resulting from the tertiary stage of syphilis is called a ______

A

gumma

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5
Q

flu-like reaction to endotoxin-like products released during death of a microorganisms in the body with antibiotics

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

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6
Q

form or cause to form into small clumps or masses

A

flocculate

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7
Q

Treponema pertenue causes the disease ______

A

Yaws

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8
Q

Treponema carateum causes the disease _____

A

Pinta

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9
Q

Treponema infections are best treated with (doxycyclin/penicillin/erythromycin)

A

penicillin is best, doxy and erythro are less effective

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10
Q

rapid diagnostic test that looks for non-specific antibodies in the blood against Treponema pallidum, pertenue and carateum

A

RPR, Rapid Plasma Reagin

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11
Q

The Argyll-Robertson pupil that fails to constrict with light indicates ________

A

neuro syphilis

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12
Q

Organism: Gram (-) dipolococci (Treponema pallidum/Neisseria gonorrhoeae)

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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13
Q

Organism: has Opa virulence factors that bind receptors on immune cells and prevent immune response

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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14
Q

Organism: has pili and IgA protease enabling attachment to mucosal surfaces and intracellular penetration

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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15
Q

Failure of complement will allow a __________ infeciton

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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16
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae has the o-antigen (LPS/LOS)

A

LipoOligoSaccharide

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17
Q

A male patient has urethritis. Urine and exudate collections shows PMN’s with intracellular diplococci that stain gram (-) Infectious agent is likely ________

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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18
Q

You believe your patient has N. gonorrhoeae. You should treat with (Penicillin G/Ceftriaxone/azithromycin)

A

Ceftriaxone, or alternate cephalosporin

Azithro for Chlamydia co-infection

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19
Q

A neonate is born to a mother with N. gonorrhoeae. facial exposure has ocured. Use ointment with (bacitracin/erythromycin/ceftriaxone)

A

erythromycin on eyes

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20
Q

An obligate intracellular gram negative bacteria sometime called the “virus of bacterias” is __________

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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21
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is gram (positive/negative)

A

negative!

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22
Q

In the chlamydia life cycle, elementary bodies (replicate/infect) and reticulate bodies (replicate/infect)

A

EB’s infect

RB’s replicate and divide

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23
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: endemic to africa and south asia (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)

A

A-C

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24
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: endemic to south and central america (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)

A

L1-L3

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25
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: Most common STD in U.S. (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)

A

D-K

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26
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: often asymptomatic, spreads sexually and at birth (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)

A

D-K

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27
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: Small ulcers procede to swollen lymph nodes (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)

A

L1-L3

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28
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serovars: A leading cause of preventable blindness (A-C/L1-L3/D-K)

A

A-C

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29
Q

There is a risk of reactive arthritis with (Chlamydia/Gonorrhoeae)

A

Both! but most common with: Chlamydia, Salmonella, Shigella or Campylobacter

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30
Q

Reactive arthritis is associated with the ________ gene on chromosome 6

A

HLA-B27

31
Q

Adult patient
Dx: Chlamydia
Rx: (Doxy or azithro/Erythromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole)

A

Doxycycline or azithromycin

32
Q

Peds, Pregnant, allergic patient
Dx: Chlamydia
Rx: (Doxycycline or azithromyc/Erythromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole)

A

Erythromycin + amoxicillin

33
Q

Dx: Trichomonas vaginalis
Rx: (Doxycycline or azithromyc/Erythromycin + amoxicillin/metronidazole)

A

Oral metronidazole (Flagyl)

34
Q

Dx: Bacterial Vaginosis
Organism: (Trichomonas Vaginalis/Gardnerella vaginalis/Haemophilus duceryi)

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

35
Q

Painful genital swellings, “chancres”
Dx: Chancroid
Organism: (Trichomonas Vaginalis/Gardnerella vaginalis/Haemophilus duceryi)

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

36
Q

Dx: bacterial vaginosis w/Gardnerella vaginalis
Rx:(Doxycycline or azithromyc/metronidazole or clindamycin/ciprofloxacin)

A

metronidazole or clindamycin

37
Q

Dx: Chancroid w/ Haemophilus ducreyi
Rx: (azithromycin/metronidazole/ clindamycin/ciprofloxacin/ceftriaxone)

A

Azithromycin, Ceftriaxone, or Ciprofloxacin

38
Q

Is a transcription factor (myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)

A

myc

39
Q

Is a platelet-derived growth factor(myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)

A

sis

40
Q

Is a growth factor receptor (myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)

A

erb B

41
Q

Is a cell cycle regulator (myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)

A

p53 AND pRB

42
Q

Is a membrane signaller of growth factor binding (myc/sis/src/erb B/p53/pRb)

A

src

43
Q

The Rb protein blocks ______ and stops the cell cycle

A

E2F

44
Q

The SV40 virus causes cancer in _______

A

hampsters

45
Q

A herpes virus that causes Burkitt’s lymphoma in Africa and in patients w/ AIDS

A

Epsein-Barr virus

46
Q

The Epstien-Barr virus causes ________ in the western world

A

mononucleosis

47
Q

Tumors associated with EBV have which gene over-expressed?

A

myc

48
Q

The hepatitis viruses, HBV and HVC, can cause _______ cancer

A

liver

49
Q

Human T-cell lymphotrophic virus, HTLV-2 and HTLV-2 is a (RNA/DNA) virus

A

RNA

50
Q

This virus has the tax gene that causes over-expression of IL-2 and the receptor of IL-2. It is _______

A

Human T-cell lymphotrophic virus, HTLV-2 and HTLV-2

51
Q

This RNA virus is blood born, prevalent in the Caribbean and is cancer causing, leukemia and lymphoma

A

Human T-cell lymphotrophic virus, HTLV-2 and HTLV-2

52
Q

HHV8 is known for causing _______ in patients with HIV

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

53
Q

Which can be prevented by vaccine (Burkitt lymphoma/Kaposi Sarcoma/Liver Cancer)

A

liver cancer with hepatitis vaccine

54
Q

HIV is an (ssRNA//dsRNA/DNA) virus

A

ssRNA

55
Q

A retrovirus that is slow to cause disease is known as a ________

A

lentivirus: slow to cause disease (not slow to replicate)

56
Q

HIV is (diploid/haploid)

A

diploid (two copies in each virion)

57
Q

HIV infection leads to low levels of _______ cells through a number of mechanisms

A

CD4+ T

58
Q

the surface receptor in HIV is ______

A

GP120

59
Q

HIV has how many genes?

A

9 genes

60
Q

HIV uses GP120 first to recognize the _____ on macrophages and then progress to the ______ receptor on T cells

A

CCR5 receptor on macrophages

CXCR4 receptor on T cells and

61
Q

How do HIV virions escape from the cell?

A

budding

62
Q

HIV can cause T-cells to fuse together to form a _________

A

syncytium

63
Q

AIDS is defined by a CD4 cell count below _______

A

200/mm^3

64
Q

What controls viral load levels for the ~15 years in which the virus can be latent?

A

NK cells

65
Q

The defective HIV virions can still be immunogenic leading to chronic _______

A

inflamation

66
Q

HIV enters the cell by (fusion/endocytosis/uncoating) at the plasma membrane

A

fusion at the plasma membrane

67
Q

CCR5 and CXCR4 are normally receptors for _______ and not normally used for GP120

A

chemokines

68
Q

What enzyme is used to synthesize the dsDNA of HIV?

A

reverse transcriptase

69
Q

In the HIV life cycle, end of phase 1 is marked by (DNA integration into host chromosome/mRNA is transcribed, spliced and exported to the cytoplasm)

A

DNA integration into host chromosome

70
Q

In the HIV life cycle, the start of phase 2 is marked by (DNA integration into host chromosome/mRNA is transcribed, spliced and exported to the cytoplasm)

A

mRNA is transcribed, spliced and exported to the cytoplasm

71
Q

There are three different varieties of AIDS-related lymphoma:

A
  1. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
  2. B-cell immunoblastic lymphoma
  3. and Burkitt’s lymphoma
72
Q

Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the myc gene and the translocation _______

A

t(8:14)

73
Q

HIV DNA is turned back into HIV RNA by the host enzyme ________

A

RNA Pol II

MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards (9 decks)

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