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MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards > Kaplan/First Aid Pharm > Flashcards

Kaplan/First Aid Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

bleomycin is cell-cycle specific to which phase (S/G2/M/G1/G0)

A

G2

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2
Q

vinblastine, vincristine, paclitaxel are cell-cycle specific to which phase (S/G2/M/G1/G0)

A

M

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3
Q

cytarabine, 6-mercaptopurine, 5-fluorouracil, methotrexate, hydroxyurea, irinotecan, etoposide are cell-cycle specific to which phase (S/G2/M/G1/G0)

A

S

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4
Q

alkylating agents (cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, procarbazine), antitumor antibiotics (doxorubicin, daunorubicin), nitrosoureas (lomustine, carmustine) are cell-cycle specific to which phase (S/G2/M/G1/G0)

A

SYKE they are non cell cycle specific

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5
Q

log-kill hypothesis of cancer drugs: cytotoxic actions of anticancer drugs kill a fixed (number/percentage) of tumor cells

A

PERCENTAGE (one rationale for drug combinations)

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6
Q

drugs that are cell cycle specific are more effective in tumors with (high/low) growth fraction

A

high (leukemias, lymphomas)

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7
Q

drugs that are cell cycle nonspecific are more effective in tumors with (high/low) growth fraction

A

can be used for either

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8
Q

used to relieve hemorrhagic cystitis side effect from cyclophosphamide: (amifostine/mesna/leucovorin)

A

mesna

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9
Q

used to relieve nephrotoxicity side effect from cisplatin: (amifostine/mesna/leucovorin)

A

amifostine

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10
Q

used to relieve bone marrow suppression side effect from methotrexate: (amifostine/mesna/leucovorin)

A

leucovorin

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11
Q

used to relieve delayed CHF side effect from doxorubicin: (amifostine/mesna/dexrazoxane/leucovorin)

A

dexrazoxane

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12
Q

dose-limiting toxicity for cisplatin, methotrexate: (pulmonary/renal/neuro/cardiac/immunosuppressive)

A

renal

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13
Q

dose-limiting toxicity for bleomycin, procarbazine: (pulmonary/renal/neuro/cardiac/immunosuppressive)

A

pulmonary

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14
Q

dose-limiting toxicity for doxorubicin, daunorubicin: (pulmonary/renal/neuro/cardiac/immunosuppressive)

A

cardiac

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15
Q

dose-limiting toxicity for vincristine, cisplatin: (pulmonary/renal/neuro/cardiac/immunosuppressive)

A

neuro

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16
Q

dose-limiting toxicity for cyclophosphamide, methotrexate: (pulmonary/renal/neuro/cardiac/immunosuppressive)

A

immunosuppressive

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17
Q

dose limiting side effect for cyclophosphamide other than immunosuppression that can be relieved by mesna

A

hemorrhagic cystitis

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18
Q

dose limiting side effect for procarbazine that is a real bummer

A

leukemia

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19
Q

(cyclophosphamide/cisplatin/procarbazine/doxorubicin): alkylating agent that attacks guanine N7–dysfunctional DNA

A

cyclophosphamide

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20
Q

(cyclophosphamide/cisplatin/procarbazine/doxorubicin): alkylating agent–cross links DNA strands

A

cisplatin

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21
Q

(cyclophosphamide/cisplatin/procarbazine/doxorubicin): intercalator, forms free radicals, inhibits topoisomerase

A

doxorubicin

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22
Q

(cyclophosphamide/cisplatin/procarbazine/doxorubicin): alkylating agent for treatment of Hodgkin

A

procarbazine

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23
Q

(methotrexate/5-fluorouracil and Capecitabine/6-mercaptopurine/bleomycin): antimetabolite–inhibits DHF reductase

A

methotrexate

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24
Q

(methotrexate/5-fluorouracil and Capecitabine/6-mercaptopurine/bleomycin): pyrimidine antimetabolite, bioactivated to inhibit thymidylate synthetase

A

5-fluorouracil and capecitabine (oral)

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25
Q

(methotrexate/5-fluorouracil and Capecitabine/6-mercaptopurine/bleomycin): purine antimetabolite, bioactivated by HGPR transferase

A

6-mercaptopurine

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26
Q

(methotrexate/5-fluorouracil and Capecitabine/6-mercaptopurine/bleomycin): complexes with Fe and O2, DNA strand scission

A

bleomycin

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27
Q

(vinblastine and vincristine/all-trans retinoic acid ATRA): decreases microtubular polymerization–spindle poisons

A

vinblastine and vincristine

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28
Q

(vinblastine and vincristine/all-trans retinoic acid ATRA): differentiating agent, promotes differentiation of promyelocytes

A

ATRA

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29
Q

thymineless death of neoplastic cells accomplished by bioactivation of (methotrexate/5-fluorouracil and Capecitabine/6-mercaptopurine/bleomycin) to inhibit thymidylate synthetase

A

5-fluorouracil

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30
Q

(methotrexate/glucocorticoids): cytotoxic to lymphocytes

A

methotrexate

31
Q

(methotrexate/glucocorticoid): inhibits mitosis in lymphocytes

A

glucocorticoids

32
Q

side effects of (methotrexate/glucocorticoids): ACTH suppression, cushingoid state, osteoporosis, GI distress, glaucoma

A

glucocorticoids

33
Q

(methotrexate/glucocorticoids) side effects: hematotoxicity

A

methotrexate

34
Q

NSAIDs are used to (slow disease/alleviate pain and swelling) in rheumatoid arthritis

A

alleviate pain and swelling

35
Q

what are DMARDs

A

disease modifying antirheumatic drugs–used to slow disease progress in rheumatoid arthritis

36
Q

(allopurinol/febuxostat/pegloticase/probenecid): inhibits xanthine oxidase to treat chronic gout (2)

A

allopurinol and febuxostat

37
Q

(allopurinol/febuxostat/pegloticase/probenecid): recombinant uricase that catalayzes metabolism of uric acid to allatonin (a more water soluble product) for the treatment of chronic gout

A

pegloticase

38
Q

(allopurinol/febuxostat/pegloticase/probenecid): inhibits resorption of uric acid in proximal convoluted tubule for treatment of chronic gout

A

probenecid

39
Q

naproxen and indomethacin are what type of drugs? for what ailment?

A

NSAIDs for treatment of acute gout

40
Q

(naproxen/indomethacin/glucocorticoids/colchicine): inhibit mitosis in lymphocytes

A

glucocorticoids

41
Q

(naproxen/indomethacin/glucocorticoids/colchicine): binds and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit microtubule polyermization, impairing neutrophil chemotaxis and degranulation

A

colchicine

42
Q

(naproxen/indomethacin/glucocorticoids/colchicine): GI side effects

A

colchicine

43
Q

what type of drug for acute gout predisposes to infection, including reactivation of latent TB

A

TNFa inhibitors (because TNF is important in granuloma formation and stabilization)

44
Q

(etanercept/infliximab and adalimumab): fusion protein produced by recombinant DNA

A

etanercept (etanerCEPT is a TNF decoy reCEPTor)

45
Q

(etanercept/infliximab and adalimumab): anti-TNF a monoclonal antibody

A

infliximab and adalimumab

46
Q

etanercept used to treat:

A

RA (also psoraisis, ankylosing spondylitis)

47
Q

GnRH analog with agonist properties when used in pulsatile fashion; antagonist when continuous

A

leuprolide (LEUprolide can be used in LIEU of GnRH)

48
Q

clinical use of leuprolide when used in pulsatile fashion

A

infertility

49
Q

clinical use of leuprolide when used in continuous fashion (3)

A

prostate cancer, uterine fibroids, precocious puberty

50
Q

clomiphene and tamoxifen drug class

A

selective estrogen receptor modulators

51
Q

(clomiphene/tamoxifen): antagonist at estrogen receptors in hypothalamus. Prevents normal feedback inhibition and increases the release of FSH and LH from pituitary

A

clomiphene. stimulates ovulation

52
Q

(clomiphene/tamoxifen): antagonist at breast but agonist in bone and uterus. Increases risk of thromboembolic events and endometrial cancer

A

tamoxifen. used to treat and prevent recurrence of ER/PR+ breast cancer

53
Q

why add progesterone to hormone replacement therapy for treatment of menopause symptoms/osteoporosis

A

unopposed estrogen therapy increases risk of endometrial cancer, so progesterone is added

54
Q

(tamoxifen/clomiphene/leuprolide/anastrozole/exemestane): aromatase inhibitors used in postmenopausal women with ER+ breast cancer (2)

A

anastrozole and exemestane

55
Q

progestins (increase/decrease) vascularization of endometrium

A

increase

56
Q

progestins (increase/decrease) growth of endometrium

A

decrease

57
Q

what type of cancer would you use progestins to treat

A

endometrial

58
Q

mifepristone is a competitive inhibitor of (estrogens/progestins) at their receptors

A

progestins

59
Q

OCPs (stimulate/inhibit) LH/FSH and thus prevent estrogen surge

A

inhibit

60
Q

no estrogen surge –> no (LH/FSH) surge –> no ovulation

A

LH

61
Q

flutamide: a nonsteroidal competitive inhibitor at ______ receptors

A

androgen (used for prostate carcinoma)

62
Q

sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil: (stimulate/inhibit) PDE-5 to increase cGMP, smooth muscle relaxation in corpus cavernosum, increase blood flow, penile erection

A

inhibit (sildenaFIL, vardenaFIL, tadalaFIL FILL the penis)

63
Q

sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil toxicities (4)

A

Hot and sweaty, Headache, Heartburn, Hypotension (HHHH)

64
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “mab” stem means?

A

Monoclonal AntiBody

65
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “ib” stem means?

A

small molecule inhIBitors

66
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “tinib” substem

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor (eg imatinib)

67
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “parib” substem

A

PARP inhibitor (eg Olaparib)

68
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “zomib” substem means?

A

proteasome inhibitor (eg bortezomib)

69
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “tu” substem

A

tumor

70
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “ci” substem”

A

circulator system

71
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “li” substem

A

immune system

72
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “ximab” means?

A

chimeric mouse and human (rituximab)

73
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “zumab” means?

A

humanized mouse (bevacizumab)

74
Q

Nomenclature format: prefix-substem-stem. “mumab” means?

A

fully human (ipilimumab)

MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards (9 decks)

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