Pathology Flashcards
1
Q
Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding is a red flag for the very common gynecological tumor: _________ _______
A
endometrial carcinoma
2
Q
The tumor suppressor p53 can be knocked out by the HPV protein ___
A
E6
3
Q
The tumor suppressor and cell cycle regulator Rb can be knocked out by the HPV protein _____
A
E7
4
Q
Cancer cells doing glycolysis even with enough O2 is called the (Warburg/von hipple Lindau) effect
A
Warburg
5
Q
A leiomyoma is a benign neoplasm of _______ _______
A
smooth muscle
6
Q
Abnormal growth of hair on a woman’s face and body is called (andromatism/Hirsutism/turkish)
A
Hirsutism
7
Q
A round collection of calcium seen microscopically is called a _______ body
A
psammoma (sand)
8
Q
a benign breast condition associated with fibrocystic change after the age of 25
A
apocrine metaplasia
9
Q
Bartholin gland abscess most frequently caused by infection with _______ _______
A
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
10
Q
postmenopausal women, parchment-like “thin” appearance of vulvular skin is _____ ______
A
lichen sclerosus
11
Q
White plaque like lesions “leukoplakia” of the vulva due to squamous cell hyperplasia is _____ _____ _____
A
Lichen simplex chonicus
12
Q
Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva is associated with HPV type __
A
16
13
Q
Red, crusted vulvular lesion, a tumor, that is periodic acid-Schiff “PAS” positive ________ ______ diease
A
Extramammary Paget disease
14
Q
Name the Pathogen: Pruritic vaginitis with a white discharge and red mucosa _____ _____
A
Candida albicans
15
Q
Name 3 risk factos for Candida Albicans
A
- diabetes
- antibiotics
- pregnancy
- OCPs
16
Q
How to treat chlamydia, 2 drugs
A
- azithromycin
2. doxycycline
17
Q
Name the pathogen: incubates 7-12 days, noninfective reticulate bodies in phagosomes, reticulate bodies form extracellular elementary bodies that are infective
A
Chlamydia trachomatis
18
Q
Gram negative rods that cause bacterial vaginosis
A
Gardnerella vaginalis
19
Q
Name the Pathogen: STD virus remains latent in the sensory ganglia
A
HSV-2
20
Q
Name the Pathogen: Virus produces koilocytic change
A
HPV
21
Q
Name the Pathogen: STD, gram negative coccobacillus that causes granuloma inguinale
A
Klebsiella granulomatis
22
Q
Name the Pathogen: Organism is phagocytosed by macrophages (donovan bodies)
A
Klebsiella granulomatis
23
Q
Name the Pathogen: STD, gram negative diplococcus, infects granular+transitional epithelium, symptoms 2-7 days post exposure
A
Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
24
Q
How to treat N. Gonorrhoeae
A
ceftriaxone (a cephalosporin)
25
Name the Pathogen: the gram negative spirochete that causes syphilis
Treponema pallidum
26
Name the Pathogen: most common STD! flagellated protozoan with jerky motility
Trichomonas vaginalis
27
In young girls, Necrotic, grape like mass protrudes from the vagina is ______ _________
Embroynal rhabdomyosarcoma
28
Occurs in women who has intrauterine exposure to DES, ____ _____ ______ of the vagina
clear cell adenocarcinoma, may begin as adenosis
29
___ inhibits mullarian differentiation and leads to clear cell adenocarcinoma
DES
30
This carcinoma is associated with HPV type 16 ___ ___ ___ carcinoma
vaginal squamous cell cacinoma
31
Region sampled when preforming a cervical pap smear ____ _____
transformation zone
32
When metaplastic squamous cells block endocervical gland orifices a ______ cyst occurs
Nabothian
33
Name the Pathogen: Follicular cervicitis is caused by _ __________
C. trachomatis
34
potentially premalignant transformation and abnormal growth (dysplasia) of squamous cells on the surface of the cervix is called _____ _____ ____
cervical intraepithelial neoplasia "CIN"
35
Most cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is caused by the virus _____
HPV, 16 + 18 are high risk
36
Progression from CIN I to III (is/is not) inevitable
IS NOT
37
1. postcoital vaginal bleeding and 2. malodorus discharge may indicate _____ cancer
cervical cancer
38
Loss of >80mL of blood per period is called ______
Menorrhagia
39
Painful menses is called _______
Dysmenorrhea
40
Irregular intervals of menstruation is called ________
Metrorrhagia
41
Irregular or excessive bleeding during menstruation and in between periods is called ________
Menomentrorrhagia
42
Menses at intervals greater than 35 days is called _______
Oligomenorrhea
43
menses at intervals less than 21 days is called ________
Polymenorrhea
44
Absence of menses by age 16 is called ________
Amenorrhea
45
A benign polyp in the uterus that enlarges with estrogen stimulation is called a ________
Endometrial polyp
46
Endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma have the same risk factor of prolonged, unopposed ______ stimulation
estrogen
47
Fallopian tubes filled with pus, fever >38.3C, lower abdominal pain, abnormal uterine bleeding and vaginal discharge
PID, Pelvic inflammatory disease
48
Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often caused by the STDs __ ________ and __ _______.
N. gonorrhoeae
| C. trachomatis
49
Best screening test for ectopic pregnancy is ______
β-hCG
50
A bulky, fast growing breast tumor derived from stromal cells, often reach massive size
phyllodes tumor
51
Phyllodes tumors are (benign/malignant)
usually benign, but CAN be malignant
52
Most common cause of bloody nipple discharge (Phyllodes/fibroadenoma/intraductal papilloma)
intraductal papilloma
53
Most common breast tumor in women >35 years old (Phyllodes/fibroadenoma/intraductal papilloma)
fibroadenoma
54
Benign breast tumor where stroma proliferates and compresses the duct
(Phyllodes/fibroadenoma/intraductal papilloma)
fibroadenoma
55
Name the two types of noninvasive breast cancer (2)
1. DCIS ductal carcinoma in situ
| 2. LCIS lobular carcinoma in situ
56
Commonly contains microcalcification (DCIS/LCIS)
DCIS
57
Extension of DCIS into the lactiferous ducts and skin of the nippleproducing rash and possible nipple retraction
(infiltrating ductal carcinoma/Paget disease of the nipple/medullary carcinoma)
paget disease of the nipple
58
stellate morphology, indurated, grey white tumor associated with ERBB2 oncogene(infiltrating ductal carcinoma/Paget disease of the nipple/medullary carcinoma)
infiltrating ductal carcinoma
59
Associated with BRCA1 mutation, bulky soft white tumor and lymphoid infiltrate (infiltrating ductal carcinoma/Paget disease of the nipple/medullary carcinoma)
Medullary carcinoma
60
Erythematous breast with dimpling due to fixed opening of sweat glands
(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma
Inflammatory carcinoma
61
Plugs of tumor blocking the lumen of lymphatics causing lymphedema
(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma
Inflammatory carcinoma
62
Neoplastic cells arranged concentrically in bull's eye, invasive carcinoma appears in contralateral breast
(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma
Invasive lobar carcinoma
63
Usually occurs in elderly women, neoplastic cells surrounded by mucin
(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma
Colloid carcinoma
64
Develops in terminal ductules
| (Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma
Tubular carcinoma
65
Drug for HER2/neu receptor related breast cancers
| trastuzumab/hydroxyurea/tamoxifen
trastuzumab
66
High likely hood of of cancer in the opposite breast (20-40% of cases) with (DCIS/LCIS/medullary carcinoma)
LCIS
67
the displacement of ectopic glandular tissue into muscle is called _________
adenomyoma
68
a biphasic malignant tumor with a carcinomatous component and a sarcomatous component is called a ________
carcinosarcoma
69
Kruckenberg tumors of the ovary most commonly originate from the ________
GI tract
70
malignant tumor of the uterus that originates in the cells of the chorion of a fetus is a __________
choriocarcinoma
71
choriocarcinomas typically manifest in (young girls/ pre-menopausal women)
young girls
72
benign tumors of the chorionic villus are called ______ _____
hydatidiform mole
73
A defective ________ protein is unable to stop cell division which can lead to tumor growth, particularly in the breast, thyroid, or uterus
PTEN
74
Grey/white vaginal dishcharge w/ fishy oder, pH >4.5 and gram variable indicates infection with _________ _______
Gardnerella vaginalis
75
A tumor is excised from the ovary. It is solid, white, and has normal stroma surrounded by collagen fibers and fibroblasts. It is a ______
Fibroma
76
With a thecoma, you would expect higher levels of which hormone?
estrogen
77
A yolk sac tumor will secrete (estrogen/progesterone/alfa-fetoprotien/ hCG)
alfa-fetoprotien
78
A uterine infection following delivery/c section/abortion is called __________
endometritis
79
When stratum basalis of the endometrium is present in the myometrium it is called ________
Adenomyosis
| may be painful
80
when functional endometrial glanddevelop outside the uterus it is called _________
endometriosis
81
endometrial hyperplasia can occur with too much ________ stimulation
estrogen
82
If an endometrial cancer has malignant squamous cells as well as the glandular cells, we call it a _________
adenosquamous carcinoma
83
If a mixed mullerian tumor has both endometrial adenocarcinoma and malignant mesenchyme it is called a _______
carcinosarcoma
84
the BRCA gene mutation can cause both breast and ______ cancer
ovarian
85
The most common ovarian tumor, the surface derived tumor, is from _______ epithelium
coelomic
86
when the placenta partially or wholly blocks the neck of the uterus, interfering with normal delivery of a baby is called ______ ______
placenta previa
87
premature separation of the placenta due to a retroplacetal clot is called ______ ______
abrupto placenae
88
mechanical or functional obstruction of the spiral arteries of the placenta can lead to _________
preeclampsia
89
preeclampsia + seizures is called ________
eclampsia
90
In preeclampsia, HELLP stands for _______
Hemolysis, Elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count
91
The only solution for preeclampsia is _________
delivery
92
A malignant tumor from the chorion composed of syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts is called a __________
choriocarcinoma
93
Glucocorticoids, Cortisol and thyroxine (promote/inhibit) fetal lung surfactant formation
promote
94
Insulin (promote/inhibit) fetal lung surfactant formation
inhibits
95
The highest density of breast tissue and most common location of cancer is the ______ ______ quadrant
upper-outer quadrant
96
Stimulates and maintains lactogenesis and secretion (Prolactin/oxytocin)
prolactin
97
Released by suckling reflex and expels milk into ducts (Prolactin/oxytocin)
oxytocin
98
If bloody nipple discharge, think _______ _______
Intraductal papilloma or possibly worse: ductal cancer
99
How common is fibrocystic change in the breast?
over 50% of women in reproductive period
100
Oophoritis may be a complication of _______ or ______
mumps or PID
101
Malignant cells in vulvar epidermis, PAS+, Keratin+, S100- (extramammilary Paget carcinoma/Melanoma)
Extramammilary Paget
| carcinoma is keratin +
102
Malignant cells in vulvar epidermis, PAS-, Keratin-, S100+ (extramammilary Paget carcinoma/Melanoma)
Melanoma
103
If it is Keratin + it is (melanoma/carcinoma/sarcoma)
carcinoma
104
focal persistance of columnar epithelium in the upper 2/3 of the vagina is called _________
adenosis
105
Desmin is an intermediate filament present in _______ tissue
muscle
106
The pap smear is good for (squamous cell carcinomas/adenocarcinomas)
squamous cell, like CIN
107
loss of the endometrial basalis with secondary amenorrhea is called _______ syndrome
Asherman
108
An endometrial polyp usually presents as abnormal ______ _____
uterine bleeding
109
When do lieomyomas become leiomyosarcomas?
Never! they are two separate etiologies
110
The functional unit of the ovary is the _______
follicle
111
Pain from (Osteoid osteoma/osteoblastoma) will resolve with aspirin
osteiod osteoma!
112
A benign tumor of bone with an overlying cartilage cap is a _______
osteochondroma
113
A tumor at the epiphysis of a long bone is likely a _____ _____ tumor
giant cell tumor
114
A benign tumor or cartilage usually in hands and feet is called a _______
chondroma
115
A malignant cartilage tumor usually in the pelvis or axial skeleton is a ________
chondrosarcoma
116
Prostatic carcinoma classically makes _______ lesions of bone
osteoblastic
117
Acute mastitis is most frequently caused by the organism __ ________
S. aureus
118
Anchondroplasia is associated with a mutation in ______
FGFR3 fibroblast growth factor 3
119
Osteopetrosis is associated with an enzyme deficiency in ______ _____
carbonic anhydrase
120
A pigeon breast deformity in children is associated with the bone deformity _______
Rickets
121
When bone is being laid down, expect a high (serum phosphate/alkaline phosphatase)
high alakaline phosphates
| low serum phosphate and low serum calcium
122
these drugs are used to inhibit the action of osteoclasts _______
bisphosphonates
123
osteopmyletis infections usually affects the (epiphysis/metaphysis) in adults and the (epiphysis/metaphysis) in children
epiphysis in adults
| metaphysis in children
124
wear and tear on bones with degeneration of articular cartilage is ______
osteoarthritis
125
a joint disorder with cracks in the articular cartilage and the underlying subchondral bone
Osteochondritis dissecans
126
painfull swelling of the tibial tuberosity, typically boys age 11-15
Osgood-Schlatter disease
| OSD
127
Hx: man >50, hat size increase, bone pain
Dx: _______ ________
Paget Disease
128
defect in bone forming mesenchyme with replacement of medullary bone by fibrous tissue is called ______
Fibrous dysplasia
129
the polished finish on bone from rubbing together during degenerative joint disease
eburnation
130
The DIP joint is spared from damage in (rheumatoid arthritis/osteoarthritis)
Rheumatoid
131
joint deviation in Rhuematoid Arthritis is due to the contractile force of ________
myofibroblasts in the granulation tissue
132
A general term for joint pain is _______
arthralgia
133
a childhood hip disorder initiated by a disruption of blood flow to the femoral head
LCP disease:
| Legg–Calvé–Perthes Disease
134
Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with HLA-____
HLA-DR4
135
RF factor is an (IgM/IgG) autoantibody that has specificity for the Fc portion of (IgM/IgG)
RF factor is an IgM autoantibody that has specificity for the Fc portion of IgG
136
Ankylosis can occur in (rheumatoid arthritis/osteoarthritis)
rheumatoid arthritis
137
Extension of the semimembranous bursa in the posterior joint space of the knee is called a _______ ______
baker's cyst
138
What activates the neutrophiles in gout?
urate crystals
139
This syndrome has a deficiency in HGPRT and can lead to gout. it is _____ ______ syndrome
Lesch-Nyhan
140
What color are gout crystals under parallel light?
yellow
141
rhomboid cyrstals in a joint (urate/calcium pyrophosphate)
calcium pyrophosphate
142
Osteoblastoma pain (does/does not) respond to aspirin
```
does not
(osteoid osteoma does)
```
143
osteosarcoma (malignant) usually arises in the (epiphysis/ metaphysis/ diaphysis) of long bones
metaphysis, especially in the femur above the knee
144
Codman's angle is a sign of ________
osteosarcoma
145
Giant cell tumors generally arise in the (epiphysis/ metaphysis/ diaphysis) of bone
epiphysis
| the only one that does this!
146
Soap bubble appearance in the epiphysis of bone is a ______ _______ tumor
giant cell
147
A bone tumor with an "onion skin" appearance on radiograph is a ______ _______
Ewing Sarcoma
148
What translocation is common with Ewing Sarcoma?
t (11;22)
| Kinz B-day
149
the BRCA mutation is most strongly associated with which type of carcinoma (lobular/ medullary/ papillary)
medullary
150
Serum protein marker for surface derived (epithelial) tumors ______
CA125
151
most common pathogen in the vagina and for placental infections _____ __ ______
Group B strep
152
Prolactinoma can cause _______
galactorrhea
153
Purulent nipple discharge is often due to the infectious agent __ _______
S. aureus
