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MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding is a red flag for the very common gynecological tumor: _________ _______

A

endometrial carcinoma

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2
Q

The tumor suppressor p53 can be knocked out by the HPV protein ___

A

E6

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3
Q

The tumor suppressor and cell cycle regulator Rb can be knocked out by the HPV protein _____

A

E7

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4
Q

Cancer cells doing glycolysis even with enough O2 is called the (Warburg/von hipple Lindau) effect

A

Warburg

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5
Q

A leiomyoma is a benign neoplasm of _______ _______

A

smooth muscle

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6
Q

Abnormal growth of hair on a woman’s face and body is called (andromatism/Hirsutism/turkish)

A

Hirsutism

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7
Q

A round collection of calcium seen microscopically is called a _______ body

A

psammoma (sand)

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8
Q

a benign breast condition associated with fibrocystic change after the age of 25

A

apocrine metaplasia

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9
Q

Bartholin gland abscess most frequently caused by infection with _______ _______

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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10
Q

postmenopausal women, parchment-like “thin” appearance of vulvular skin is _____ ______

A

lichen sclerosus

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11
Q

White plaque like lesions “leukoplakia” of the vulva due to squamous cell hyperplasia is _____ _____ _____

A

Lichen simplex chonicus

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12
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva is associated with HPV type __

A

16

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13
Q

Red, crusted vulvular lesion, a tumor, that is periodic acid-Schiff “PAS” positive ________ ______ diease

A

Extramammary Paget disease

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14
Q

Name the Pathogen: Pruritic vaginitis with a white discharge and red mucosa _____ _____

A

Candida albicans

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15
Q

Name 3 risk factos for Candida Albicans

A
  1. diabetes
  2. antibiotics
  3. pregnancy
  4. OCPs
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16
Q

How to treat chlamydia, 2 drugs

A
  1. azithromycin

2. doxycycline

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17
Q

Name the pathogen: incubates 7-12 days, noninfective reticulate bodies in phagosomes, reticulate bodies form extracellular elementary bodies that are infective

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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18
Q

Gram negative rods that cause bacterial vaginosis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

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19
Q

Name the Pathogen: STD virus remains latent in the sensory ganglia

A

HSV-2

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20
Q

Name the Pathogen: Virus produces koilocytic change

A

HPV

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21
Q

Name the Pathogen: STD, gram negative coccobacillus that causes granuloma inguinale

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

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22
Q

Name the Pathogen: Organism is phagocytosed by macrophages (donovan bodies)

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

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23
Q

Name the Pathogen: STD, gram negative diplococcus, infects granular+transitional epithelium, symptoms 2-7 days post exposure

A

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

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24
Q

How to treat N. Gonorrhoeae

A

ceftriaxone (a cephalosporin)

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25
Q

Name the Pathogen: the gram negative spirochete that causes syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

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26
Q

Name the Pathogen: most common STD! flagellated protozoan with jerky motility

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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27
Q

In young girls, Necrotic, grape like mass protrudes from the vagina is ______ _________

A

Embroynal rhabdomyosarcoma

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28
Q

Occurs in women who has intrauterine exposure to DES, ____ _____ ______ of the vagina

A

clear cell adenocarcinoma, may begin as adenosis

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29
Q

___ inhibits mullarian differentiation and leads to clear cell adenocarcinoma

A

DES

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30
Q

This carcinoma is associated with HPV type 16 ___ ___ ___ carcinoma

A

vaginal squamous cell cacinoma

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31
Q

Region sampled when preforming a cervical pap smear ____ _____

A

transformation zone

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32
Q

When metaplastic squamous cells block endocervical gland orifices a ______ cyst occurs

A

Nabothian

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33
Q

Name the Pathogen: Follicular cervicitis is caused by _ __________

A

C. trachomatis

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34
Q

potentially premalignant transformation and abnormal growth (dysplasia) of squamous cells on the surface of the cervix is called _____ _____ ____

A

cervical intraepithelial neoplasia “CIN”

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35
Q

Most cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is caused by the virus _____

A

HPV, 16 + 18 are high risk

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36
Q

Progression from CIN I to III (is/is not) inevitable

A

IS NOT

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37
Q
  1. postcoital vaginal bleeding and 2. malodorus discharge may indicate _____ cancer
A

cervical cancer

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38
Q

Loss of >80mL of blood per period is called ______

A

Menorrhagia

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39
Q

Painful menses is called _______

A

Dysmenorrhea

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40
Q

Irregular intervals of menstruation is called ________

A

Metrorrhagia

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41
Q

Irregular or excessive bleeding during menstruation and in between periods is called ________

A

Menomentrorrhagia

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42
Q

Menses at intervals greater than 35 days is called _______

A

Oligomenorrhea

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43
Q

menses at intervals less than 21 days is called ________

A

Polymenorrhea

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44
Q

Absence of menses by age 16 is called ________

A

Amenorrhea

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45
Q

A benign polyp in the uterus that enlarges with estrogen stimulation is called a ________

A

Endometrial polyp

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46
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma have the same risk factor of prolonged, unopposed ______ stimulation

A

estrogen

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47
Q

Fallopian tubes filled with pus, fever >38.3C, lower abdominal pain, abnormal uterine bleeding and vaginal discharge

A

PID, Pelvic inflammatory disease

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48
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often caused by the STDs __ ________ and __ _______.

A

N. gonorrhoeae

C. trachomatis

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49
Q

Best screening test for ectopic pregnancy is ______

A

β-hCG

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50
Q

A bulky, fast growing breast tumor derived from stromal cells, often reach massive size

A

phyllodes tumor

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51
Q

Phyllodes tumors are (benign/malignant)

A

usually benign, but CAN be malignant

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52
Q

Most common cause of bloody nipple discharge (Phyllodes/fibroadenoma/intraductal papilloma)

A

intraductal papilloma

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53
Q

Most common breast tumor in women >35 years old (Phyllodes/fibroadenoma/intraductal papilloma)

A

fibroadenoma

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54
Q

Benign breast tumor where stroma proliferates and compresses the duct
(Phyllodes/fibroadenoma/intraductal papilloma)

A

fibroadenoma

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55
Q

Name the two types of noninvasive breast cancer (2)

A
  1. DCIS ductal carcinoma in situ

2. LCIS lobular carcinoma in situ

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56
Q

Commonly contains microcalcification (DCIS/LCIS)

A

DCIS

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57
Q

Extension of DCIS into the lactiferous ducts and skin of the nippleproducing rash and possible nipple retraction
(infiltrating ductal carcinoma/Paget disease of the nipple/medullary carcinoma)

A

paget disease of the nipple

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58
Q

stellate morphology, indurated, grey white tumor associated with ERBB2 oncogene(infiltrating ductal carcinoma/Paget disease of the nipple/medullary carcinoma)

A

infiltrating ductal carcinoma

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59
Q

Associated with BRCA1 mutation, bulky soft white tumor and lymphoid infiltrate (infiltrating ductal carcinoma/Paget disease of the nipple/medullary carcinoma)

A

Medullary carcinoma

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60
Q

Erythematous breast with dimpling due to fixed opening of sweat glands
(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma

A

Inflammatory carcinoma

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61
Q

Plugs of tumor blocking the lumen of lymphatics causing lymphedema
(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma

A

Inflammatory carcinoma

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62
Q

Neoplastic cells arranged concentrically in bull’s eye, invasive carcinoma appears in contralateral breast
(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma

A

Invasive lobar carcinoma

63
Q

Usually occurs in elderly women, neoplastic cells surrounded by mucin
(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma

A

Colloid carcinoma

64
Q

Develops in terminal ductules

(Medullary/Inflammatory/Invasive lobar/Tubular/Colloid) Carcinoma

A

Tubular carcinoma

65
Q

Drug for HER2/neu receptor related breast cancers

trastuzumab/hydroxyurea/tamoxifen

A

trastuzumab

66
Q

High likely hood of of cancer in the opposite breast (20-40% of cases) with (DCIS/LCIS/medullary carcinoma)

A

LCIS

67
Q

the displacement of ectopic glandular tissue into muscle is called _________

A

adenomyoma

68
Q

a biphasic malignant tumor with a carcinomatous component and a sarcomatous component is called a ________

A

carcinosarcoma

69
Q

Kruckenberg tumors of the ovary most commonly originate from the ________

A

GI tract

70
Q

malignant tumor of the uterus that originates in the cells of the chorion of a fetus is a __________

A

choriocarcinoma

71
Q

choriocarcinomas typically manifest in (young girls/ pre-menopausal women)

A

young girls

72
Q

benign tumors of the chorionic villus are called ______ _____

A

hydatidiform mole

73
Q

A defective ________ protein is unable to stop cell division which can lead to tumor growth, particularly in the breast, thyroid, or uterus

A

PTEN

74
Q

Grey/white vaginal dishcharge w/ fishy oder, pH >4.5 and gram variable indicates infection with _________ _______

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

75
Q

A tumor is excised from the ovary. It is solid, white, and has normal stroma surrounded by collagen fibers and fibroblasts. It is a ______

A

Fibroma

76
Q

With a thecoma, you would expect higher levels of which hormone?

A

estrogen

77
Q

A yolk sac tumor will secrete (estrogen/progesterone/alfa-fetoprotien/ hCG)

A

alfa-fetoprotien

78
Q

A uterine infection following delivery/c section/abortion is called __________

A

endometritis

79
Q

When stratum basalis of the endometrium is present in the myometrium it is called ________

A

Adenomyosis

may be painful

80
Q

when functional endometrial glanddevelop outside the uterus it is called _________

A

endometriosis

81
Q

endometrial hyperplasia can occur with too much ________ stimulation

A

estrogen

82
Q

If an endometrial cancer has malignant squamous cells as well as the glandular cells, we call it a _________

A

adenosquamous carcinoma

83
Q

If a mixed mullerian tumor has both endometrial adenocarcinoma and malignant mesenchyme it is called a _______

A

carcinosarcoma

84
Q

the BRCA gene mutation can cause both breast and ______ cancer

A

ovarian

85
Q

The most common ovarian tumor, the surface derived tumor, is from _______ epithelium

A

coelomic

86
Q

when the placenta partially or wholly blocks the neck of the uterus, interfering with normal delivery of a baby is called ______ ______

A

placenta previa

87
Q

premature separation of the placenta due to a retroplacetal clot is called ______ ______

A

abrupto placenae

88
Q

mechanical or functional obstruction of the spiral arteries of the placenta can lead to _________

A

preeclampsia

89
Q

preeclampsia + seizures is called ________

A

eclampsia

90
Q

In preeclampsia, HELLP stands for _______

A

Hemolysis, Elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count

91
Q

The only solution for preeclampsia is _________

A

delivery

92
Q

A malignant tumor from the chorion composed of syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts is called a __________

A

choriocarcinoma

93
Q

Glucocorticoids, Cortisol and thyroxine (promote/inhibit) fetal lung surfactant formation

A

promote

94
Q

Insulin (promote/inhibit) fetal lung surfactant formation

A

inhibits

95
Q

The highest density of breast tissue and most common location of cancer is the ______ ______ quadrant

A

upper-outer quadrant

96
Q

Stimulates and maintains lactogenesis and secretion (Prolactin/oxytocin)

A

prolactin

97
Q

Released by suckling reflex and expels milk into ducts (Prolactin/oxytocin)

A

oxytocin

98
Q

If bloody nipple discharge, think _______ _______

A

Intraductal papilloma or possibly worse: ductal cancer

99
Q

How common is fibrocystic change in the breast?

A

over 50% of women in reproductive period

100
Q

Oophoritis may be a complication of _______ or ______

A

mumps or PID

101
Q

Malignant cells in vulvar epidermis, PAS+, Keratin+, S100- (extramammilary Paget carcinoma/Melanoma)

A

Extramammilary Paget

carcinoma is keratin +

102
Q

Malignant cells in vulvar epidermis, PAS-, Keratin-, S100+ (extramammilary Paget carcinoma/Melanoma)

A

Melanoma

103
Q

If it is Keratin + it is (melanoma/carcinoma/sarcoma)

A

carcinoma

104
Q

focal persistance of columnar epithelium in the upper 2/3 of the vagina is called _________

A

adenosis

105
Q

Desmin is an intermediate filament present in _______ tissue

A

muscle

106
Q

The pap smear is good for (squamous cell carcinomas/adenocarcinomas)

A

squamous cell, like CIN

107
Q

loss of the endometrial basalis with secondary amenorrhea is called _______ syndrome

A

Asherman

108
Q

An endometrial polyp usually presents as abnormal ______ _____

A

uterine bleeding

109
Q

When do lieomyomas become leiomyosarcomas?

A

Never! they are two separate etiologies

110
Q

The functional unit of the ovary is the _______

A

follicle

111
Q

Pain from (Osteoid osteoma/osteoblastoma) will resolve with aspirin

A

osteiod osteoma!

112
Q

A benign tumor of bone with an overlying cartilage cap is a _______

A

osteochondroma

113
Q

A tumor at the epiphysis of a long bone is likely a _____ _____ tumor

A

giant cell tumor

114
Q

A benign tumor or cartilage usually in hands and feet is called a _______

A

chondroma

115
Q

A malignant cartilage tumor usually in the pelvis or axial skeleton is a ________

A

chondrosarcoma

116
Q

Prostatic carcinoma classically makes _______ lesions of bone

A

osteoblastic

117
Q

Acute mastitis is most frequently caused by the organism __ ________

A

S. aureus

118
Q

Anchondroplasia is associated with a mutation in ______

A

FGFR3 fibroblast growth factor 3

119
Q

Osteopetrosis is associated with an enzyme deficiency in ______ _____

A

carbonic anhydrase

120
Q

A pigeon breast deformity in children is associated with the bone deformity _______

A

Rickets

121
Q

When bone is being laid down, expect a high (serum phosphate/alkaline phosphatase)

A

high alakaline phosphates

low serum phosphate and low serum calcium

122
Q

these drugs are used to inhibit the action of osteoclasts _______

A

bisphosphonates

123
Q

osteopmyletis infections usually affects the (epiphysis/metaphysis) in adults and the (epiphysis/metaphysis) in children

A

epiphysis in adults

metaphysis in children

124
Q

wear and tear on bones with degeneration of articular cartilage is ______

A

osteoarthritis

125
Q

a joint disorder with cracks in the articular cartilage and the underlying subchondral bone

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

126
Q

painfull swelling of the tibial tuberosity, typically boys age 11-15

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

OSD

127
Q

Hx: man >50, hat size increase, bone pain
Dx: _______ ________

A

Paget Disease

128
Q

defect in bone forming mesenchyme with replacement of medullary bone by fibrous tissue is called ______

A

Fibrous dysplasia

129
Q

the polished finish on bone from rubbing together during degenerative joint disease

A

eburnation

130
Q

The DIP joint is spared from damage in (rheumatoid arthritis/osteoarthritis)

A

Rheumatoid

131
Q

joint deviation in Rhuematoid Arthritis is due to the contractile force of ________

A

myofibroblasts in the granulation tissue

132
Q

A general term for joint pain is _______

A

arthralgia

133
Q

a childhood hip disorder initiated by a disruption of blood flow to the femoral head

A

LCP disease:

Legg–Calvé–Perthes Disease

134
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with HLA-____

A

HLA-DR4

135
Q

RF factor is an (IgM/IgG) autoantibody that has specificity for the Fc portion of (IgM/IgG)

A

RF factor is an IgM autoantibody that has specificity for the Fc portion of IgG

136
Q

Ankylosis can occur in (rheumatoid arthritis/osteoarthritis)

A

rheumatoid arthritis

137
Q

Extension of the semimembranous bursa in the posterior joint space of the knee is called a _______ ______

A

baker’s cyst

138
Q

What activates the neutrophiles in gout?

A

urate crystals

139
Q

This syndrome has a deficiency in HGPRT and can lead to gout. it is _____ ______ syndrome

A

Lesch-Nyhan

140
Q

What color are gout crystals under parallel light?

A

yellow

141
Q

rhomboid cyrstals in a joint (urate/calcium pyrophosphate)

A

calcium pyrophosphate

142
Q

Osteoblastoma pain (does/does not) respond to aspirin

A 
does not
(osteoid osteoma does)
143
Q

osteosarcoma (malignant) usually arises in the (epiphysis/ metaphysis/ diaphysis) of long bones

A

metaphysis, especially in the femur above the knee

144
Q

Codman’s angle is a sign of ________

A

osteosarcoma

145
Q

Giant cell tumors generally arise in the (epiphysis/ metaphysis/ diaphysis) of bone

A

epiphysis

the only one that does this!

146
Q

Soap bubble appearance in the epiphysis of bone is a ______ _______ tumor

A

giant cell

147
Q

A bone tumor with an “onion skin” appearance on radiograph is a ______ _______

A

Ewing Sarcoma

148
Q

What translocation is common with Ewing Sarcoma?

A

t (11;22)

Kinz B-day

149
Q

the BRCA mutation is most strongly associated with which type of carcinoma (lobular/ medullary/ papillary)

A

medullary

150
Q

Serum protein marker for surface derived (epithelial) tumors ______

A

CA125

151
Q

most common pathogen in the vagina and for placental infections _____ __ ______

A

Group B strep

152
Q

Prolactinoma can cause _______

A

galactorrhea

153
Q

Purulent nipple discharge is often due to the infectious agent __ _______

A

S. aureus

MS2 Unit 1 Reedy's cards (9 decks)

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