Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

First line medication class usually considered for OCD

A

SSRI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prescribe drug that can treat motion sickness

A

Scopolamine patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drug class is doxepin?

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antibiotic that can increase bleeding in patients taking warfarin

A

Bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

First line medication class for osteoporosis

A

Biphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

RhoGAM’s mechanism of action

A

Prevent immune response by mother to decrease risk of hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) increases the risk of what?

A

Seizures, avoid in any condition that puts patient at risk for seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

First line medication class for PMR

A

Oral steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

First line medication treatment for pain in acute gout flareup

A

NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Second line medication treatment for pain in acute gout flareup

A

Colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Systemic steroids are indicated for gout in what case?

A

For pain relief if patient is unable to take NSAIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Testing recommended before starting a patient on Plaquenil (hydroxychloroquine)

A

Eye exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Plaquenil may do damage to what part of the body?

A

The retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Erythromycin is contraindicated in what kind of anemia?

A

G6PD deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thiazolidinediones (TZD’s) are contraindicated in what type of patients?

A

Heart failure patients, this medication causes fluid retention and can exacerbate HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Atomoxetine (Straterra) belongs to what drug class?

A

SNRI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

First line medication treatment for peptic ulcer disease

A

PPI’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Preferred treatment of enterobiasis (pinworm) infection

A

Albendazole, one dose, second doses in two weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Patients with disease that may cause hypoxia should avoid what diabetic medication?

A

Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What antibiotic is recommended for prophylaxis post exposure to anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)?

A

Cipro x 60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of theophylline?

A

Bronchodilation

22
Q

Triad of medication therapy for H-pylori infection

A

Clarithromycin, amoxicillin BID, omeprazole daily

23
Q

What is one drug class levothyroxine will not adversely interact with?

24
Q

What is an example of an antibiotic that will not interfere with birth control?

25
What medication class is imipramine (Tofranil)?
Tricyclic antidepressant
26
Example medication that belongs to 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
Finasteride (Proscar), helps reduce size of prostate
27
Two medications that belong to alpha-blockers
Terazosin (Hytrin) and tamsulosin (Flomax), relax smooth muscle, open up urethra for better urine flow
28
Three medications contraindicated with theophylline
Erythromycin, Dilantin, Tagamet
29
Two classes of antibiotics with beta lactam ring
PCN's and cephalosporins
30
PCN given to a patient with a viral infection can cause what?
Morbilliform rash, especially in mono
31
Augmentin works against what kind of bacteria producers?
Beta lactamase producers
32
PCN's will not kill what gram positive organism?
Staph
33
Augmentin can kill what organisms?
Gram positive, gram negative, and b-lactamase producers
34
What can Augmentin not kill?
MRSA or atypical pathogens
35
Sulfonamides kill gram positive or gram negative?
Gram negative, but sometimes gram positive in the case of MRSA
36
Two drugs that are sulfonamides
Bactrim and septra
37
Bactrim often not a good choice for e-coli UTI, why?
High antibiotic resistance rate
38
Bactrim has been shown very useful in treating what?
MRSA skin infections
39
Three drugs that are tetracyclines?
Doxycycline, Minocycline, Vibramycin
40
Tetracyclines kill what?
MRSA and atypical pathogens such as mycoplasma
41
Number of cephalosporin generations
3
42
Two 1st generation cephalosporins
Keflex and Duricef (kill gram positive) think staph and strep
43
Keflex can be used to treat what kind of staph infection?
Non-MRSA skin infection
44
Three 2nd generation cephalosporins
Ceftin, Ceclor, Cefzil (kill gram positive and gram negative)
45
Two common extended 3rd generation cephalosporin
Rocephin and cefdinir (Omnicef) (kill gram positive, gram negative, and beta-lactamase producers)
46
Two drugs that are macrolides
Azithromycin (Zithromax) and Clarithromycin
47
3rd generation fluoroquinolone, also known as a respiratory quinolone
Levaquin (levofloxacin), think of "oxacin" for respiratory quinolones
48
Levaquin can kill what pathogens?
Just about everything except MRSA
49
Ribvirin most common side effect
Hemolytic anemia
50
What does Ribivirin treat?
Hep C