Pharmacology Flashcards

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1
Q

First line medication class usually considered for OCD

A

SSRI’s

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2
Q

Prescribe drug that can treat motion sickness

A

Scopolamine patch

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3
Q

What drug class is doxepin?

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

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4
Q

Antibiotic that can increase bleeding in patients taking warfarin

A

Bactrim

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5
Q

First line medication class for osteoporosis

A

Biphosphonates

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6
Q

RhoGAM’s mechanism of action

A

Prevent immune response by mother to decrease risk of hemolysis

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7
Q

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) increases the risk of what?

A

Seizures, avoid in any condition that puts patient at risk for seizures

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8
Q

First line medication class for PMR

A

Oral steroids

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9
Q

First line medication treatment for pain in acute gout flareup

A

NSAIDS

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10
Q

Second line medication treatment for pain in acute gout flareup

A

Colchicine

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11
Q

Systemic steroids are indicated for gout in what case?

A

For pain relief if patient is unable to take NSAIDS

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12
Q

Testing recommended before starting a patient on Plaquenil (hydroxychloroquine)

A

Eye exam

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13
Q

Plaquenil may do damage to what part of the body?

A

The retina

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14
Q

Erythromycin is contraindicated in what kind of anemia?

A

G6PD deficiency anemia

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15
Q

Thiazolidinediones (TZD’s) are contraindicated in what type of patients?

A

Heart failure patients, this medication causes fluid retention and can exacerbate HF

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16
Q

Atomoxetine (Straterra) belongs to what drug class?

A

SNRI’s

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17
Q

First line medication treatment for peptic ulcer disease

A

PPI’s

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18
Q

Preferred treatment of enterobiasis (pinworm) infection

A

Albendazole, one dose, second doses in two weeks

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19
Q

Patients with disease that may cause hypoxia should avoid what diabetic medication?

A

Metformin

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20
Q

What antibiotic is recommended for prophylaxis post exposure to anthrax (Bacillus anthracis)?

A

Cipro x 60 days

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of theophylline?

A

Bronchodilation

22
Q

Triad of medication therapy for H-pylori infection

A

Clarithromycin, amoxicillin BID, omeprazole daily

23
Q

What is one drug class levothyroxine will not adversely interact with?

A

PCN’s

24
Q

What is an example of an antibiotic that will not interfere with birth control?

A

Cipro

25
Q

What medication class is imipramine (Tofranil)?

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

26
Q

Example medication that belongs to 5-alpha reductase inhibitors

A

Finasteride (Proscar), helps reduce size of prostate

27
Q

Two medications that belong to alpha-blockers

A

Terazosin (Hytrin) and tamsulosin (Flomax), relax smooth muscle, open up urethra for better urine flow

28
Q

Three medications contraindicated with theophylline

A

Erythromycin, Dilantin, Tagamet

29
Q

Two classes of antibiotics with beta lactam ring

A

PCN’s and cephalosporins

30
Q

PCN given to a patient with a viral infection can cause what?

A

Morbilliform rash, especially in mono

31
Q

Augmentin works against what kind of bacteria producers?

A

Beta lactamase producers

32
Q

PCN’s will not kill what gram positive organism?

A

Staph

33
Q

Augmentin can kill what organisms?

A

Gram positive, gram negative, and b-lactamase producers

34
Q

What can Augmentin not kill?

A

MRSA or atypical pathogens

35
Q

Sulfonamides kill gram positive or gram negative?

A

Gram negative, but sometimes gram positive in the case of MRSA

36
Q

Two drugs that are sulfonamides

A

Bactrim and septra

37
Q

Bactrim often not a good choice for e-coli UTI, why?

A

High antibiotic resistance rate

38
Q

Bactrim has been shown very useful in treating what?

A

MRSA skin infections

39
Q

Three drugs that are tetracyclines?

A

Doxycycline, Minocycline, Vibramycin

40
Q

Tetracyclines kill what?

A

MRSA and atypical pathogens such as mycoplasma

41
Q

Number of cephalosporin generations

A

3

42
Q

Two 1st generation cephalosporins

A

Keflex and Duricef (kill gram positive) think staph and strep

43
Q

Keflex can be used to treat what kind of staph infection?

A

Non-MRSA skin infection

44
Q

Three 2nd generation cephalosporins

A

Ceftin, Ceclor, Cefzil (kill gram positive and gram negative)

45
Q

Two common extended 3rd generation cephalosporin

A

Rocephin and cefdinir (Omnicef) (kill gram positive, gram negative, and beta-lactamase producers)

46
Q

Two drugs that are macrolides

A

Azithromycin (Zithromax) and Clarithromycin

47
Q

3rd generation fluoroquinolone, also known as a respiratory quinolone

A

Levaquin (levofloxacin), think of “oxacin” for respiratory quinolones

48
Q

Levaquin can kill what pathogens?

A

Just about everything except MRSA

49
Q

Ribvirin most common side effect

A

Hemolytic anemia

50
Q

What does Ribivirin treat?

A

Hep C