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FNP Review > Pediatrics > Flashcards

Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

At what age should a child be able to draw a stick person, copy triangles, print some letters and numbers, and count to 10?

A

Age 5

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2
Q

Most common type of cancer in children

A

ALL

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3
Q

Age a child can copy a circle, throw a ball, and ride a tricycle

A

Age 3, think “all the circles”

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4
Q

Age a child can walk up stairs using one foot

A

Age 2

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5
Q

Age a child can copy a cross and draw stick person with 3 parts

A

Age 4, remember this as 4 as in a cross has 4 points

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6
Q

Age children can ride a bicycle

A

Age 5-6

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7
Q

Age an infant triples its birthweight

A

12 months

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8
Q

Age an infant doubles its birthweight

A

6 months

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9
Q

Difference between DTaP and Tdap

A

DTap is initial vaccine given to children under age 7, Tdap is given to children and adults after age 7 to boost immunity

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10
Q

What is the Td vaccine?

A

Used as a booster after Tdap, given every 10 years

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11
Q

What symptom is commonly reported after MMR vaccination?

A

Rash

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12
Q

MMR is contraindicated in patients with what allergies?

A

Neomycin and gelatin

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13
Q

How early can a scheduled vaccine be given?

A

4 days

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14
Q

If a live and/or attenuated vaccine is not given on the same day, when should the next one be given?

A

Must be given 4 weeks apart

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15
Q

First time flu vaccination under age 8

A

Must be given two doses four weeks apart

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16
Q

DSM V criteria to diagnose ADHD

A

Onset < 12, symptoms > 6 months, at least in two different settings

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17
Q

Asthma in children is treated like adult asthma, with two exceptions

A
  1. Addition of leukotriene blockers 2. How medications are administered
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18
Q

What medication is used often as a leukotriene blocker in child asthma?

A

Singulair

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19
Q

Why leukotriene blockers in children?

A

Ratio of leukotriene driven asthma is lower in children than it is in adults 1:3, 1:20

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20
Q

Most common cause of community acquired pneumonia

A

Strep pneumoniae

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21
Q

Most common cause of pneumonia in children 6 months to 5 years old

A

Viral etiology

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22
Q

First line medication treatment for strep pneumoniae in children

A

Amoxicillin (consider Augmentin or 3rd generation cephalosporin if recent ABX treatment) if patient allergic to PCN’s may give macrolide or clindamycin

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23
Q

Best medication to treat croup

A

Single dose dexamethasone

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24
Q

Children diagnosed with sickle cell anemia are given what antibiotic as infection prophylaxis?

A

PCN

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25
Q

In general, nodes larger than how many mm are considered worriesome?

A

10 mm

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26
Q

When after birth does physiologic hyperbilirubinemia usually present?

A

2-3 days after birth

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27
Q

When does pathologic hyperbilirubinemia present?

A

< 24 hours after birth

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28
Q

Three classic presenting symptoms of child with intussusception

A
  1. Intermittent ABD pain 2. Crying with legs tucked toward chest 3. “Currant jelly” stools
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29
Q

Diagnostic tests to rule out intussusception

A
  1. KUB 2. ABD ultrasound
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30
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

Undescended testicles

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31
Q

Retractile testes

A

Testicles move between scrotum and inguinal ring

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32
Q

By what age should the testicles be descended into the scrotum?

A

Age 6 months

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33
Q

At what age should a hydrocele be resolved in an infant?

A

By 12 months

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34
Q

1st line antibiotic for child UTI with no complications

A

Cephalosporins

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35
Q

BP screening starts at what age?

A

Age 3

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36
Q

Dyslipidemia risk assessment begins at what age?

A

Age 2, every other year until 10, then annually

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37
Q

At what age are lipid profiles drawn on patients with family history?

A

Age 10

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38
Q

Diagnostic test used to rule out dysplasia of hip

A

Ultrasound

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39
Q

Metatarsus adductus

A

Toes point inward, NP can try to straighten toes, may need ortho referral if unable

40
Q

Nursemaid’s elbow

A

Associated with “pulling” injury of the elbow

41
Q

Legg-Calve Perthes disease

A

Avascular necrosis of the hip, children present with hip pain 2-3 weeks, limp, may have knee pain!

42
Q

Trendelenburg’s test

A

Positive in Legg-Calve Perthes disease, slipped capital femoral, patient stands on one leg with positive pelvic tilt

43
Q

Diagnostic tests to rule out Legg-Calve Perthes

A

AP and frog legs radiograph

44
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis presentation

A

Limp, pain for several weeks to months, may have knee pain!

45
Q

Diagnostic tests to rule out slipped capital femoral

A

AP and frog legs radiograph

46
Q

Transient synovitis of hip

A

Most common cause of hip pain in children, benign, patients may limp, associated with recent viral infection

47
Q

What diagnostic test is used to rule out transient synovitis of the hip

A

Ultrasound, evidence of small effusion

48
Q

Measles (rubeola) rash

A

“Brick red” maculopapular rash, starts on face, spreads to trunk and extremities

49
Q

Fifth Disease rash

A

Associated with “slapped cheek”, “lacey” red rash, macular

50
Q

Rubella (German) rash

A

Same as rubeola but with lymphadenopathy and macules on soft palate

51
Q

Forchheimer spots

A

Macular spots on soft palate from Rubella disease (German measles)

52
Q

Roseola rash

A

Begins few days after high fever, maculopapular rash but not on face

53
Q

Scarlet fever rash

A

Secondary to strep infection, “sandpaper” rash

54
Q

Virus that causes roseola

A

Human herpesvirus 6

55
Q

Virus that causes herpangina

A

Coxsackie A

56
Q

Virus that causes hand, foot, and mouth

A

Coxsackie A16

57
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth is common in what season?

A

Spring and early summer

58
Q

Rubeola is characterized by what?

A

Fever, rash, and the three C’s. 1. Cough, 2. Coryza, 3. Conjunctivitis

59
Q

Koplik spots

A

Associated with rubeola (measles).

60
Q

Most common viral pathogens in AOM

A

RSV and flu

61
Q

Most common bacterial pathogen in AOM

A

Strep pneumoniae

62
Q

First line treatment for AOM

A

PCN’s (amoxicillin)

63
Q

High pitched cry in newborn may be indicative of what?

A

Neurological pathology

64
Q

Positive Babinksi

A

Toes fan out, big toe dorsiflexes

65
Q

Low set ears in infant

A

May indicate chromosomal defects or kidney pathology

66
Q

Age universal hearing screening take place

A

1 month

67
Q

Appropriate age to introduce solid foods and a cup, can roll back and forth

A

6 months

68
Q

Age infant can bear weight on legs

A

9 months

69
Q

Age when parachute reflex appears

A

6 months

70
Q

When should disconjugate gaze become conjugate?

A

6 months

71
Q

Testing for strabismus should occur by what age?

A

6 months

72
Q

Age infant can begin to crawl and feed themselves with fingers, plays peek-a-boo

A

9 months

73
Q

Age infant can say 2-4 words

A

12 months

74
Q

Age stranger anxiety develops

A

9 months

75
Q

Age toddler should be walking well

A

15 months

76
Q

Most common pathogen that causes otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

77
Q

Most appropriate antibiotic class for treating UTI in children

A

Cephalosporins

78
Q

Allergic march

A

Precursors to childhood asthma such as food allergies, dermatitis, etc.

79
Q

When should the palmar reflex disappear?

A

5-6 months

80
Q

Bilirubin level in which phototherapy is initiated

A

> 15

81
Q

Mensuration should begin no later than what age?

A

15

82
Q

Salter-Harris fracture

A

Fractures that occur along the growth plate

83
Q

Where are Salter-Harris fractures commonly seen?

A

In long bones

84
Q

3 step approach to acne

A
  1. Benzoyl peroxide, 2. Topical agents, 3. Oral agents
85
Q

Turner’s syndrome

A

Associated with webbed neck and infertility

86
Q

Kawasaki disease

A

Associated with fever, peeling rash, strawberry tongue

87
Q

Treatment of Kawasaki disase

A

High dose ASA and IV IgG, ASA treatment outweighs risk of Reye’s syndrome

88
Q

Moro reflex

A

Also known as startle reflex

89
Q

When is moro reflex abnormal?

A

6 months or older, indicative or neuro pathology

90
Q

Ankle wink reflex

A

Perianal muscle contraction from stroking of anal region

91
Q

Fencing reflex aka tonic neck reflex

A

Looks like child is “fencing” turns head to one side with shoulder, arm, and leg going to same side

92
Q

Indicative of lead toxicity

A

Greater than 5 mcg/dL

93
Q

Lead level requiring chelation therapy

A

Greater than 45 mcg/dL

94
Q

Most common cause of severe hyperbili in the newborn

A

Blood incompatibility with mother

95
Q

Treatment of AOM in a child allergic to PCN

A

Cefdinir

FNP Review (18 decks)

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