Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exits > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 barriers to drug distribution?

A

drug’s chemical properties, tissue blood flow, protein binding, tissue binding, anatomic barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are examples of anatomic barriers?

A

blood-brain barrier, epidural barrier, blood-testis barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the definition of the therapeutic range of a drug?

A

the drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs or toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs or toxicity?

A

therapeutic range of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 major drug factors that keep drugs in their therapeutic range?

A

route of administration, drug dose, dosage interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you find the therapeutic range?

A

LD50/ED50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is LD50/ED50 used to find?

A

a drug’s therapeutic range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The larger the therapeutic range the ___ the drug

A

safer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is LD50?

A

lethal dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is ED50?

A

effective dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the most common diseases that impact drug pharmacokinetics?

A

liver disease, kidney disease, cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does cardiovascular disease effect pharmacokinetics?

A

alters the distribution of blood flow to tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does kidney diseases effect drugs?

A

decreased drug elimination, increases plasma drug concentrations, risk of adverse drug reactions or toxicity, increased fluid retention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary site of drug metabolism?

A

the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The liver is the primary site of what?

A

drug metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What has the most significant impact on drug disposition?

A

reduced kidney function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Reduced kidney function has what kind of impact on drug disposition?

A

the most significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction are predictable?

A

dose-dependent drug reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction are unpredictable?

A

idiosyncratic drug reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction affects all members of a species?

A

dose-dependent drug reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction affects only a small portion of treated animals?

A

idiosyncratic drug reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction has a likelihood of reaction increasing as the dose increases?

A

dose-dependent drug reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What kind of adverse drug reaction has a risk of reaction that increases with the dose?

A

idiosyncratic drug reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you treat idiosyncratic drug reactions?

A

drug withdrawal and drug avoidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you treat dose-dependent drug reactions?

A

dose reduction and brief drug withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Do idiosyncratic drug reactions occur immediately?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

periodic measurement of amount of drug in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is therapeutic drug monitoring recommended?

A

pharmacokinetics of drug varies significantly among individuals, drug has narrow therapeutic range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the goal of therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

to optimize drug plasma concentrations to maximize efficacy and minimize toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is optimizing drug plasma concentrations to maximize efficacy and minimize toxicity a goal of?

A

therapeutic drug monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T or F. Glucocorticoids are eliminated from the body quickly.

A

False. They’re eliminated from the body very slowly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does the federal government do?

A

assure available drugs are safe, effective, and prepared in accordance with manufacturing standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the state laws do?

A

control the distribution of drugs within the state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does the FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM) do?

A

regulates manufacturing and distribution of drugs, food additives and medical devices. Oversees regulations including approval, safety, efficacy, and postapproval monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who regulates drug residues in food animals?

A

FDA and EPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What does EPA stand for?

A

Environmental Protection Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Drug compounding is limited to what kind of drugs?

A

FDA-approved drugs only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the uses of compounding drugs?

A

creating discontinued drugs, creating dosages and strength specific to an animal’s weight and health, creating alternative dose forms such a liquids/ointments/tablets, adding flavoring, customizing formula that combine multiple drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are some concerns of compounding drugs?

A

might turn an FDA approved drug into an unapproved drug, made without FDA oversight, may not be sterile and cause infections, errors may result in disease or death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does FARAD stand for?

A

Food Animal Residue Avoidance Bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the abbreviation for Food Animal Residue Avoidance Bank?

A

FARAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is FARAD?

A

a computer-based system designed to provide information on how to avoid drug, pesticide, and environmental contaminant residue problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which agency provides a list of drugs prohibited for use in livestock?

A

FARAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How long should records of controlled substances be kept?

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the four major steps in drug development?

A

synthesis/discovery of a new drug compound, safety/effectiveness evaluation, submission and review of the new animal drug application, postmarketing surveillance stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are short term tests used for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation?

A

to check the animal for obvious adverse reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are long term tests used for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation?

A

check the animal’s various organ systems for toxicity damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How long are long term tests ran for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation

A

3-24 months of repeated dosing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How long are long term tests done for when looking at safety and effectiveness evaluation

A

hours following a test dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What do carcinogenicity tests look at in terms of safety and effectiveness evaluation?

A

cancer causing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do teratogenicity tests look at in terms of safety and effectiveness evaluation?

A

fetal defects in pregnant animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are 6 rights of drug administration?

A

the right drug, the right dose, the right time, the right route, the right patient, the right documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How many times should you check the label on a container?

A

three times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Should you ever give a medication from a container that is unlabeled?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why are daily drug doses given at specific times during the day?

A

to keep plasma levels at the proper level to cause the desired effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What should be included in the documentation when you administer drugs?

A

the drug, dosage administered, time and date administered, the route and site, patient’s response, signature or initials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are factors that affect the route of drug administration?

A

drug may have on effect when given parenterally and another nonparenterally, water-insoluble drugs can be given IM but not IV, some drugs are destroyed or modified by stomach acid and cannot be given orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Why should air bubbles be removed from drugs being administered IV?

A

to avoid causing air emboli and tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Are drugs administered IM volume limited?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does the sympathetic (adrenergic) nervous system do to the body?

A

increases heart rate, increases respiration rate, increases blood flow to muscles, decreases GI function, causes pupillary dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does the parasympathetic (cholinergic) nervous system do to the body?

A

brings heart rate/respiration rate/and blood flow to muscles back to normal levels, returns GI function to normal, constricts pupils to normal size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What do cholinergic drugs do?

A

mimic the action of the parasympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Examples of cholinergic drugs?

A

bethanechol, metoclopramide, pilocarpine, edrophonium, neostigmine, demecarium, organophosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What do anticholinergic drugs do?

A

inhibit the actions of acetylcholine by occupying the acetylcholine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Examples of anticholinergic drugs?

A

atropine, glycopyrrolate, aminopentamide, propantheline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What do adrenergic drugs do?

A

stimulate the action of the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are side effects of adrenergic drugs?

A

tachycardia, hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Examples of adrenergic drugs?

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, isoproterenol, dopamine, dobutamine, phenylpropanolamine, isoetharine, albuterol, terbutaline, ephedrine, xylazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What do adrenergic blocking agents do?

A

block the effects of the adrenergic neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are examples of alpha-blockers?

A

phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, yohimbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are examples of beta-blockers?

A

propranolol, metoprolol, timolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are dendrites?

A

branch-like extensions that receive impulses and carry them toward the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What do you call branch-like extensions that receive impulses and carry them toward the cell body?

A

dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is an axon?

A

single extension of the neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What do you call a single extension of the neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body?

A

axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What do sensory neurons do?

A

carry impulses from inside and outside the body to brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What do interneurons do?

A

process incoming impulses and pass them on to motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What do motor neurons do?

A

carry impulses away from the brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How do anticonvulsants help prevent seizures?

A

by suppressing the spread of abnormal electric impulses from the seizure focus to other areas of the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Examples of barbituates used as an anticonvulsant.

A

phenobarbital, pentobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What do benzodiazepines do when used as an anticonvulsant?

A

potentiate effects of GABA, cause muscle relaxtion, relieve anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines used as an anticonvulsant.

A

diazepam, lorazepam, clorazepate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is Flumazenil?

A

benzodiazepine reversal agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a benzodiazepine reversal agent?

A

Flumazenil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are side effects of gabapentin?

A

sedation, ataxia, potential for hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How does Gabapentin work?

A

inhibiting calcium channels resulting in decreased excitatory neurotransmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What do tranquilizers do?

A

calm animals, reduce anxiety and aggression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What do sedatives do?

A

quiet excited animals, decrease irritability and excitement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is an example of a phenothiazine derivatives?

A

acepromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What does acepromazine do?

A

causes sedation, relieves fear and anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What do phenothiazine derivatives do when used as a calming agent?

A

causes sedation, relieves fear and anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are side effects of phenothiazine derivatives when used as a calming agent?

A

hypotension, lower seizure threshold, protrusion of nictitating membrane, paraphimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are side effects of acepromazine when used as a calming agent?

A

hypotension, lower seizure threshold, protrusion of nictitating membrane, paraphimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are examples of benzodiazepines used as a calming agent?

A

midazolam, diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are benzodiazepines used for when used as a calming agent?

A

anti-anxiety, produce muscle relaxation, reduce anxiousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are examples of alpha-2 agonists used as a calming agent?

A

xylazine, detomidine, medetomidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are side effects when using alpha-2 agonists as a calming agent?

A

bradycardia and heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What reversal agents are available for alpha-2 agonists? calming agent

A

yohimbine and atipamezole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are side effects of opioids?

A

respiratory depression and excitement if given rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the three opioid receptors? Where are they found/

A 
Mu = found in the brain
Kappa = found in the cerebral cortex and spinal cord
Sigma = found in the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What do opioid antagonists do?

A

block the binding of opioids to their receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are opioid receptors used for?

A

to treat respiratory and CNS depression of opioid use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is an example of an opioid antagonists?

A

naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is naloxone used for?

A

to reverse respiratory depression following narcotic overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is a neuroleptanalgesic?

A

combination of an opioid and a tranquilizer or sedative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are examples of neuroleptanalgesics?

A

acepromazine + morphine, xylazine + butorphanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What do local anesthetics do?

A

block nerve transmission in the area of application with no loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are examples of local anesthetics?

A

lidocaine, proparacaine, tetracaine, mepivacaine, bupivacaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are side effects of barbituates used as an injectable general anesthetic?

A

potent cardiovascular and respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are side effects of dissociatives used as an injectable general anesthetic?

A

cardiac stimulation, respiratory depression, exaggerated reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What do dissociatives cause when used as an injectable general anesthetic?

A

muscle rigidity, amnesia, mild analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What can halothane cause?

A

hepatic problems, malignant hyperthermia, cardiac problems, tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

When is halothane contraindicated?

A

gastric dilation, pneumothorax, twisted intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are side effects of isoflurane?

A

respiratory depression and malignant hyperthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What does Doxapram do?

A

stimulates brainstem to increase respiration in animals with apnea or bradypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

When is Doxapram commonly used?

A

when animals have C-sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What do euthanasia solutions usually contain?

A

pentobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

When is euthanasia solution a C-2 controlled substance?

A

when pentobarbital is the only narcotic agent present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

When is euthanasia solution a C-3 controlled substance?

A

when pentobarbital is in combination with other agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

When pentobarbital is the only narcotic agent present, what class of a controlled substance is a euthanasia solution?

A

class 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

When pentobarbital is in combination with other agents, what class of a controlled substance is a euthanasia solution?

A

class 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is an example of an expectorant?

A

guaifenesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is guaifenesin?

A

an expectorant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What do expectorants do?

A

increase the fluidity of mucus, increase the flow of respiratory secretions to allow material to be coughed up from the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What do mucolytics do?

A

decrease the viscosity or thickness of respiratory secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is acetylcysteine an example of?

A

mucolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is an example of a mucolytic?

A

acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is acetylcysteine also used to treat?

A

acetaminophen toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is used to treat acetaminophen toxicity?

A

acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What may be centrally acting or locally acting?

A

antitussives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What do antitussives do?

A

suppress coughs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What respiratory drug suppresses cough?

A

antitussives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Antitussives may be ___ acting or ___ acting.

A

centrally, locally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are examples of centrally acting antitussives?

A

butorphanol, hydrocodone, codeine, dextromethorphan, trimeprazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is butorphanol, hydrocodone, codeine, dextromethorphan, trimeprazine an example of?

A

centrally acting antitussives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are examples of locally acting antitussives?

A

cough syrups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Are locally acting antitussives common in veterinary medicine?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What type of respiratory drug decreases the viscosity or thickness of respiratory secretions?

A

mucolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What type of respiratory drug increases the fluidity of mucus and increases the flow of respiratory secretions to allow material to be coughed up from the lungs?

A

expectorants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What do decongestants do?

A

decrease the congestion of nasal passages by reducing swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What respiratory drug decreases the congestion of nasal passages by reducing swelling?

A

decongestants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What are examples of decongestants?

A

phenylephrine and pseudophedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are phenylephrine and pseudophedrine and example of?

A

decongestant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What do antihistamines do?

A

block the effects of histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What respiratory drug blocks the effects of histamine?

A

antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are side effects of antihistamines?

A

CNS depression and anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What do bronchodilators do?

A

widen the lumen of the bronchi and counteract bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What respiratory drugs widen the lumen of the bronchi and counteract bronchoconstriction?

A

bronchodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are examples of bronchodilators?

A

cholinergic blocking agents (aminopentamide, atropine, glycopyrrolate)

beta-2-adrenergic agonists (epinephrine, isoproterenol, terbutaline, albuterol)

methylxanthines (aminophylline, theophylline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are examples of respiratory stimulants?

A

naloxone and yohimbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are 4 examples of asthma drugs?

A

glucocorticoids, bronchodilators, methylxanthines, cyclosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Glucocorticoids are orally used to treat ___ asthma.

A

feline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is orally used to treat feline asthma?

A

glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

There are ___ side effects with inhaled glucocorticoids than with ___ ones

A

inhaled, oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What are inhaled glucocorticoids used for?

A

to decrease swollen and narrowed airways by decreasing inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What asthma drug is used to decrease swollen and narrowed airways by decreasing inflammation?

A

inhaled glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is used in addition to glucocorticoids in the treatment of feline asthma?

A

bronchodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What side effects of bronchodilators when used as an asthma drug?

A

tracheal or bronchial irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Which asthma drug has a narrow therapeutic index?

A

methylxanthines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is a cyclosporin when speaking about asthma drugs?

A

a fungal derived protein useful in the allergic response in feline asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Which asthma drug is a fungal derived protein useful in the allergic response in feline asthma?

A

cyclosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What are side effects of cyclosporin?

A

nephrotoxicity and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What are some good management practices to help horses with COPD?

A

keeping horses outside as much as possible, reducing dust, storing hay in a dry place, improving ventilation in horse stables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

How do glucocorticoids help COPD?

A

help decrease smooth muscle contraction, suppress inflammation, and reduce mucus production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What COPD drugs help decrease smooth muscle contraction, suppress inflammation, and reduce mucus production?

A

glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What does the urinary system do?

A

filter waste from blood, help control system pH, help produce blood, help control blood volume, help control blood pressure, help control system ion concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What kinds of drugs affect the urinary system?

A

antihypertensive, diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What do antihypertensive drugs do?

A

decrease hypertension (lower blood pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What kind of drugs decrease hypertension (lower blood pressure)?

A

antihypertensive drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are 4 types of antihypertensive drugs that affect the urinary system?

A

diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors), calcium-channel blockers, direct-acting arteriole vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What do diuretics do?

A

promote sodium and water loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What do ACE inhibitors do?

A

block the conversion of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2, which results in decreased aldosterone secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What are examples of ACE inhibitors that affect the urinary system?

A

enalapril, captopril, lisinopril, benazepril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What drugs block the converson of angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2?

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What do calcium-channel blockers do?

A

block the influx of calcium ions into the myocardial cells, resulting in an inhibition of cardiac and smooth muscle contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What kind of drug blocks the influx of calcium ions into the myocardial cells, resulting in an inhibition of cardiac and smooth muscle contractility?

A

calcium-channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What are examples of calcium-channel blockers that affect the urinary system?

A

amlodipine, verapamil, nifedipine, diltiazem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What do direct-acting arteriole vasodilators do?

A

relax smooth muscles of blood vessels causing vasodil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What kind of drug relaxes smooth muscles of blood vessels causing vasodil?

A

direct-acting arteriole vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What are examples of direct-acting arteriole vasodilators?

A

hydralazine and minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What are examples of alpha-adrenergic antagonists that affect the urinary system?

A

phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, nicergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

What do diuretics do?

A

increase the volume of urine excreted by the kidneys and promote release of water from tissues, lower the fluid volume in tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What are the 5 types of diuretics?

A

thiazides, loop diuretics, potassium-sparing diuretics, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, osmotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What do thiazide diuretics do?

A

act directly on the renal tubules to block sodium reabsorption and promote chloride ion excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What type of diuretic acts directly on the renal tubules to block sodium reabsorption and promote chloride ion excretion?

A

thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What are side effects of thiazide diuretics?

A

hypokalemia and cardiac dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What are examples of thiazide diuretics?

A

hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, hydroflumethiazide, bendroflumethiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, hydroflumethiazide, bendroflumethiazide are examples of what?

A

thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

What do loop diuretics do?

A

influence the reabsorption action at the loop of Henle, resulting in tremendous diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What type of diuretic influences the reabsorption action at the loop of Henle, resulting in tremendous diuresis?

A

loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What are side effects of loop diuretics?

A

electrolyte imbalances (especially hypokalemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is an example of a loop diuretic?

A

furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is furosemide an example of?

A

loop diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What do potassium-sparing diuretics do?

A

act on the distal convulated tubules to promote sodium and water excretion and potassium retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What type of diuretic acts on the distal convulated tubules to promote sodium and water excretion and potassium retention?

A

potassium-sparing diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is the main side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics?

A

hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What are examples of potassium-sparing diuretics?

A

spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Spironolactone, triamterene, amiloride are examples of what?

A

potassium-sparing diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do?

A

block the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is used by the body to maintain acid-base balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Which diuretic blocks the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is used by the body to maintain acid-base balance?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibtors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used for?

A

decrease intraocular pressure with open-angle glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What diuretic is used to decrease intraoclar pressure with open-angle glaucoma.

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What is the main side effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What are examples of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

acetazolamide and dichlorphenamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What do osmotic diuretics do?

A

increase the osmolality (concentration) of the urine filtrate in the renal tubules, resulting in the excretion of chloride, potassium, and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What kind of diuretics increase the osmolality (concentration) of the urine filtrate in the renal tubules, resulting in the excretion of chloride, potassium, and water?

A

osmotic diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What are osmotic diuretics used for?

A

to prevent kidney failure and to decrease intracranial and intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What kind of diuretics are used to prevent kidney failure and to decrease intracranial and intraocular pressure?

A

osmotic diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What are side effects of osmotic diuretics?

A

fluid/electrolyte imbalance and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What are examples of osmotic diuretics?

A

mannitol and glycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What are uroliths?

A

abnormal mineral masses in the urinary system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What are abnormal mineral masses in the urinary system called?

A

urolith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What are the drug categories used to treat uroliths?

A

urinary acidifiers, urinary alkalinizers, xanthine oxidase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What are urinary acidifiers used for?

A

to produce acid urine, which dissolves and helps prevent formation of struvite uroliths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What is used to produce acid urine, which dissolves and helps prevent formation of struvite uroliths?

A

urinary acidifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What are examples of urinary acidifiers?

A

methionine and ammonium chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What is methionine and ammonium chloride examples of?

A

urinary acidifers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What are urinary alkalinizers used for?

A

to treat calcium oxalate, cystine, and ammonium urate uroliths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What is used to to treat calcium oxalate, cystine, and ammonium urate uroliths?

A

urinary alkalinizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What is an example of a urinary alkalinizer?

A

potassium citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What do xanthine oxidase inhibitors do?

A

decrease the production of uric acid, which helps decrease the formation of ammonium urate uroliths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What is used to decrease the production of uric acid, which helps decrease the formation of ammonium urate uroliths?

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

What are two things that may cause urinary incontinence?

A

neurologic disorders and non-neurologic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What is urinary incontinence caused by neurologic disorders result from?

A

trauma to the spinal cord, tumors of the nervous system, or degeneration of the nervous system tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What is urinary incontinence caused by non-neurologic disorders result from?

A

hormone-responsive, stress, urge, ectopic ureter formation, or urinary bladder over-distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What are the two types of drugs used to treat neurologically caused incontinence?

A

cholinergic agonists and anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What do cholinergic agonists treat animals with neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

urinary retention, promote voiding of urine from the urinary bladder (relaxation of the urinary bladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What do anticholinergic treat animals with neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

block binding of ACh to its receptor site, causing muscle relaxation (promote urine retention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What is an example of a cholinergic agonist used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

bethanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

What are examples of a anticholinergic used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

propantheline, dicyclomine, butylhyoscine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

How do alpha-adrenergic antagonists help treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

decrease the tone of internal urethral sphincters and are used to treat over-distention of the bladder (treat urinary retention)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What are examples of alpha-adrenergic antagonists used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

phenoxybenzamine, prazosin, nicergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What are used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

hormones (estrogen and testosterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What is an example of estrogen used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

diethylstilbestrol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

What are examples of testosterone used to treat non-neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

testosterone cypionate and testosterone propionate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

What are four purposes of the cardiovascular system?

A

distribute metabolites and O2, collect wastes and CO2, thermoregulation, hormone distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

What is systole?

A

contraction of heart chambers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What is diastole?

A

relaxation of heart chambers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

What are types of cardiovascular drugs?

A

positive inotropic drugs, negative inotropic drugs, positive chronotropic drugs, negative chronotropic drugs, positive dromotropic drugs, negative dromotropic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

What do positive inotropic drugs do?

A

increase the force of myocardial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug increases the force of myocardial contraction?

A

positive inotropic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

What do negative inotropic drugs do?

A

decrease the force of myocardial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug decreases the force of myocardial contraction?

A

negative inotropic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

What do positive chronotropic drugs do?

A

increase heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug increases heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node?

A

positive chronotropic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

What do negative chronotropic drugs do?

A

decrease heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug decreases heart rate by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node?

A

negative chronotropic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

What do positive dromotropic drugs do?

A

increase the conduction of electrical impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug increases the conduction of electrical impulses?

A

positive dromotropic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

What do negative dromotropic drugs do?

A

decreases the conduction of electrical impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What type of cardiovascular drug decreases the conduction of electrical impulses?

A

negative dromotropic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What are examples of positive inotropes?

A

cardiac glycosides, catecholamines, benzimidazole-pyridazinones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

What are cardiac glycosides, catecholamines, benzimidazole-pyridazinones an example of?

A

positive inotropes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

What do cardiac glycosides do?

A

increase the strength of cardiac contractions, decrease heart rate, have an antiarrhythmic effect, and decrease signs of dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

What are cardiac glycosides used to treat?

A

CHF, atrial fibrillation, supraventricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What are side effects of cardiac glycosides?

A

anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What are examples of cardiac glycosides?

A

digoxin and digitoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

What are digoxin and digitoxin an example of?

A

cardiac glycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

What do catecholamines do?

A

increase the force and rate of myocardial contraction, constrict peripheral blood vessels, and increase blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What are examples of catecholamines?

A

epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What is epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, isoproterenol examples of?

A

catecholamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

What do benzimidazole-pyridazinones do?

A

increase force of contraction and cause widening of blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

What kind of positive inotrope increases force of contraction and cause widening of blood vessels?

A

benzimidazole-pyridazinones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

What kind of positive inotrope increases the force and rate of myocardial contraction, constrict peripheral blood vessels, and increase blood glucose levels?

A

catecholamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

What kind of positive inotrope increases the strength of cardiac contractions, decrease heart rate, have an antiarrhythmic effect, and decrease signs of dyspnea?

A

cardiac glycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

What are side effects of benzimidazole-pyridazinones?

A

anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

What is an example of a benzimidazole-pyridazinone?

A

pimobendan (Vetmedin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

What are types of antiarrythmic drugs?

A

local anesthetics, membrane stabilizers, beta-adrenergic blockers, action potential prolongation drugs, calcium-channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

What are Class 2 antiarrythmic drugs?

A

beta-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

What do vasodilators do?

A

dilate arteries and/or veins, which alleviates vessel constriction and improves cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

What are examples of vasodilators?

A

angiotension-converticing enzyme inhibitors, arteriole dilators, venodilators, combined vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

What does mastication mean?

A

chewing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

What does deglutition mean?

A

swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

What are the three parts of the intestine in order?

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

How are most antiemetics given?

A

parenterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

What are some examples of types of antiemetics?

A

phenothiazine derivatives, antihistamines, anticholinergics, procainamide derivatives, serotonin receptor antagonists, neurokinin receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

What do phenothiazine derivatives do?

A

inhibit dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, thus decreasing the stimulation to vomit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

What are some indications to use phenothiazine derivatives?

A

motion sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

What are examples of phenothiazine derivatives used as antiemetics?

A

acepromazine, chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

What do procainamide derivatives do?

A

blocking the CRTZ and peripherally by speeding gastric emptying, strengthening cardiac sphincter tone, increasing the force of gastric contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

What kind of animals should you not use procainamide derivatives in?

A

animals with GI obstructions, GI perforation, or GI hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

What is an example of procainamide derivatives used as an antiemetic?

A

metoclopramide (Reglan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan) is an example of what type of antiemetic?

A

procainamide derivatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

What are examples of antihistamines used as an antiemetic?

A

trimethobenzamide, dimenhydrinate, diphenhydramine (benadryl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

What is Cerenia?

A

maropitant citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

What is maropitant citrate?

A

Cerenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

When is activated charcoal given?

A

if emesis is contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

When should vomiting not be induced?

A

if caustic substances have been ingested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

What are centrally acting emetics?

A

apomorphine (IV or mucosal) or xylazine (Cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

What are peripherally acting emetics?

A

ipecac syrup, home remedies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

What are categories of antiulcer drugs?

A

antacids, histamine-2 receptor antagonists, mucosal protective drugs, prostaglandin analogs, and proton pump inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

What do antacids do?

A

promote ulcer healing by neutralizing HCl and reducing pepsin activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

How long should you wait before or after giving prostanglandins before giving other drugs?

A

1-2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

Antacids can be ____ or ____.

A

systemic, non-systemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

What are examples of systemic antacids?

A

sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

What kind of antiulcer drugs are sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate an example of?

A

systemic antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

What are examples of nonsystemic antacids?

A

magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia), aluminum/magnesium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

What kind of antiulcer drugs are magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia), aluminum/magnesium hydroxide, aluminum hydroxide examples of?

A

nonsystemic antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

What do histamine-2 receptor antagonists do?

A

prevent acid reflux by competitively blocking the H2 receptors of the parietal cells in the stomach, thus reducing gastric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

What are examples of histamine-2 receptor antagonists?

A

Cimetidine (Tagamet), Ranitidine (zantac), and Famotidine (Pepcid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

What kind of antiulcer drugs are Cimetidine (Tagamet), Ranitidine (zantac), and Famotidine (Pepcid) examples of?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

What do mucosal protective drugs do?

A

combine with protein to form an adherent substance that covers the ulcer and protects it from stomach acid and pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

What is an example of a mucosal protective drug?

A

sucralfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug is sucralfate?

A

mucosal protective drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

What do prostaglandin analogs do?

A

suppress gastric secretions and increase mucus production in the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug suppresses gastric secretions and increase mucus production in the GI tract?

A

prostaglandin analogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug combines with protein to form an adherent substance that covers the ulcer and protects it from stomach acid and pepsin?

A

mucosal protective drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug prevents acid reflux by competitively blocking the H2 receptors of the parietal cells in the stomach, thus reducing gastric acid?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug promotes ulcer healing by neutralizing HCl and reducing pepsin activity?

A

antacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug is usually given to animals taking NSAIDs?

A

prostaglandin analogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

What is an example of prostaglandin analogs?

A

misoprostol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Misoprostol is an example of which antiulcer drug?

A

prostaglandin analogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

What do proton pump inhibitors do?

A

bind irreversibly to the H+-K+-ATPase enzyme on the surface of parietal cells of the stomach; this inhibits hydrogen ion transport into the stomach so that it cannot secrete HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

What kind of antiulcer drug binds irreversibly to the H+-K+-ATPase enzyme on the surface of parietal cells of the stomach; this inhibits hydrogen ion transport into the stomach so that it cannot secrete HCl?

A

proton pump inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

What are examples of proton pump inhibitors?

A

omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

Omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole are examples of what kind of antiulcer drug?

A

proton pump inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

What do antifoaming drugs do?

A

reduce or prevent the formation of foam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

How are antifoaming drugs administered?

A

as solutions by stomach tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

What are examples of antifoaming drugs?

A

poloxalene and polymerized methyl silicone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

Poloxalene and polymerized methyl silicone are examples of what?

A

antifoaming drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

What do antidiarrheals do?

A

decrease peristalsis, which allows fluid absorption from the intestinal contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

What are examples of antidiarrheals?

A

anticholinergics, protectants/adsorbents, opiate-related agents, probiotics, metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

What are anticholinergics used to treat when it comes to antidiarrheals?

A

tenemus and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

What are side effects of anticholinergics when used for antidiarrheals?

A

dry mucous membranes, urine retention, tachycardia, constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

What are examples of adsorbents used as an antidiarrheal?

A

bismuth subsalicylate, kaolin/pectin, activated charcoal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

What are side effects of adsorbents?

A

constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

How do opiate-related agents control diarrhea?

A

by decreasing both intestinal secretion and the flow of feces and increasing segmental contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

What are examples of opiate-related agents control diarrhea?

A

loperamide, diphenoxylate, paregoric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

What are side effects of opiate-related agents used as an antidiarrheal?

A

CNS depression, ileus, urine retention, bloat, and constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

T or F. Probiotics must be refrigerated to maintain the viability of the bacteria.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
331
Q

What is an antibiotic used to treat diarrhea?

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
332
Q

What do laxatives do?

A

loosen the bowel contents and encourages evacuation of stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
333
Q

What kind of laxatives are harsher laxatives?

A

cathartics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
334
Q

What are the four types of laxatives?

A

osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, emollient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
335
Q

What do osmotic laxatives do?

A

pull water into the colon and increase water content in the feces, thereby increasing bulk and stimulating peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
336
Q

What kind of laxative pulls water into the colon and increase water content in the feces, thereby increasing bulk and stimulating peristalsis?

A

osmotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
337
Q

What are examples of osmotic laxatives?

A

lactulose, sodium phosphate w/ sodium biphosphate (fleet enema), magnesium sulfate (epsom salts), magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
338
Q

Lactulose, sodium phosphate w/ sodium biphosphate (fleet enema), magnesium sulfate (epsom salts), magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) are examples of what kind of laxative?

A

osmotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
339
Q

What do bulk-forming laxatives do?

A

absorb water into the intestine, increase fecal bulk, and stimulate peristalsis, resulting in large, soft stool production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
340
Q

What kind of laxative absorbs water into the intestine, increase fecal bulk, and stimulate peristalsis, resulting in large, soft stool production?

A

bulk-forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
341
Q

Are bulk-forming laxatives systemically absorbed?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
342
Q

What are examples of bulk-forming laxatives?

A

psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil), polycarbophin, bran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
343
Q

Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil), polycarbophin, bran are examples of what kind of laxative?

A

bulk-forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
344
Q

What are examples of emollients?

A

docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium, mineral oil, and petroleum products (Laxatone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
345
Q

Docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium, mineral oil, and petroleum products (Laxatone) are examples of what kind of laxative?

A

emollient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
346
Q

What do prokinetic agents do?

A

increase the motility of parts of the GI tract to enhance movement of material through it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
347
Q

What are types of prokinetic agents?

A

parasympathomimetics, dopaminergic antagonists, serotonergic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
348
Q

What do serotonin antagonist antihistamines do?

A

promote appetite by inhibition at the serotoninergic receptors which control satiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
349
Q

What are side effects of serotonin antagonist antihistamines?

A

sedation and dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
350
Q

What is an example of serotonin antagonist antihistamines?

A

cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
351
Q

Cyproheptadine is an exampe of what?

A

serotonin antagonist antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
352
Q

What do antisialogues do?

A

decrease salivary flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
353
Q

What are the two categories that analgesics fall into?

A

narcotics and non-narcotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
354
Q

What are the two main groups of anti-inflammatory drugs?

A

steroidal and non-steroidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
355
Q

What do steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs do?

A

block the action of phospholipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
356
Q

What group of anti-inflammatory drugs block the action of phospholipase?

A

steroidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
357
Q

What group of anti-inflammatory drugs block the action of cyclooxygenase?

A

non-steroidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
358
Q

What do non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs do?

A

block the action of cyclooxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
359
Q

Corticosteroids are homones produced by what?

A

adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
360
Q

What do glucocorticoids have anti-inflammatory effects?

A

their inhibition of phospholipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
361
Q

What do glucocorticoids do to inhibit phospholipase?

A

raise the concentration of liver glycogen and increase blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
362
Q

What do glucocorticoids affect?

A

carbohydrate, protein, fat metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
363
Q

What are glucocorticoids regulated by?

A

negative feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
364
Q

What are examples of short-acting glucocorticoids?

A

cortisone and hydrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
365
Q

Cortison and hydrocortisone are examples of why kind of glucocorticoids?

A

short-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
366
Q

What are examples of intermediate-acting glucocorticoids?

A

prednisone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone, triamcinolone, prednisolone sodium succinate, methylprednisolone acetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
367
Q

Prednisone, prednisolone, methylprednisolone, triamcinolone, prednisolone sodium succinate, methylprednisolone acetate were examples of what kind of glucocorticoids?

A

intermediate-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
368
Q

What are examples of long-acting glucocorticoids?

A

dexamethasone, betamethasone, fluocinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
369
Q

Dexamethasone, betamethasone, fluocinolone are examples of what kind of glucocorticoids?

A

long-acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
370
Q

How long do short acting glucocorticoids last for?

A

less than 12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
371
Q

How long do intermediate acting glucocorticoids last for?

A

12-36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
372
Q

How long do long acting glucocorticoids last for?

A

over 36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
373
Q

How may glucocorticoids be given?

A

orally, parenterally, topically

374
Q

What are benefits of using glucocorticoids?

A

reduce inflammation, relieve pruritis, reduce tissue damage, reduce scarring by delaying wound healing

375
Q

What are some drawbacks of glucocorticoid use?

A

delay wound healing, increase risk of infection, may cause GI ulceration and bleeding, increase the risk of corneal ulceration if corneal damage exists, may induce abortion in some species

376
Q

Why should you taper animals off glucocorticoids?

A

to prevent iatrogenic Addison’s disease

377
Q

What should be tapered off to prevent iatrogenic Addison’s disease?

A

glucocorticoids

378
Q

If an animal has a corneal ulcer, what should you not use?

A

glucocorticoids

379
Q

What is Cox-1 involved with?

A

stomach, platelet function

380
Q

What is Cox-2 involved with/

A

inflammation

381
Q

What are side effects of NSAIDs?

A

GI ulceration and bleeding, bone marrow suppression, LV & KD problems

382
Q

How do NSAIDs work?

A

inhibiting cyclooxygenase

383
Q

What is aspirin?

A

analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, reducer of platelet aggregation

384
Q

What animal should aspirin be used with caution in?

385
Q

What is another name for aspirin toxicity?

A

salicylate toxicity

386
Q

What is another name for salicylate toxicity?

A

aspirin toxicity

387
Q

What are signs of salicylate/aspirin toxicity?

A

GI problems, respiratory problems, neurological problems, bleeding problems, kidney failure

388
Q

What type of anti-inflammatory is pyrazolone derivatives?

389
Q

What do pyrazolone derivatives do?

A

inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

390
Q

Pyrazolone derivatives are used for what?

A

musculoskeletal pain in horses

391
Q

What is flunixin meglumine?

392
Q

What is banamine?

A

flunixin meglumine

393
Q

What does Flunixin meglumine do?

A

inhibit cyclooxygenase

394
Q

What is flunixin meglumine used for?

A

cattle and horses for colic pain (not really musculoskeletal)

395
Q

What does diclofenac sodium do?

A

inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2

396
Q

Are side effects minimal in diclofenac sodium?

397
Q

What is diclofenac sodium used for?

A

osteoarthritis for use in hock, knee, fetlock and pastern joints of horse

398
Q

What do propionic acid derivatives do?

A

block both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase

399
Q

What are examples of propionic acid derivatives?

A

ibuprofen, ketoprofen, carprofen, naproxen

400
Q

Ibuprofen, ketoprofen, carprofen, and naproxen are examples of what kind of NSAID?

A

propionic acid derivatives

401
Q

What do propionic acid derivatives do?

A

block both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase

402
Q

What kind of NSAID blocks both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase?

A

propionic acid derivatives

403
Q

What are side effects of propionic acid derivatives?

A

GI problems, renal dysfunction, possible liver toxicities

404
Q

What kind of pain are propionic acid derivatives used to treat?

A

musculoskeletal pain, post-op

405
Q

What do indol acetic acid derivatives do?

A

inhibit cyclooxygenase (more selective for COX-2)

406
Q

What type of NSAID inhibits cyclooxygenase (more selective for COX-2)?

A

indol acetic acid derivates

407
Q

What is an example of an indol acetic acid derivative?

408
Q

Etodolac is an example of what kind of NSAID?

A

indol acetic acid derivative

409
Q

What do COX-2 inhibitors do?

A

inhibit cyclooxygenase-2 without interfering with the protective cyclooxygenase-1

410
Q

What type of NSAID inhibits cyclooxygenase-2 without interfering with the protective cyclooxygenase-1?

A

cox-2 inhibitors

411
Q

What are examples of cox-2 inhibitors?

A

deracoxib (Deramaxx), firocoxib (Previcox), meloxicam (Metacam)

412
Q

Deracoxib (Deramaxx), firocoxib (Previcox), meloxicam (Metacam) are examples of what kind of NSAID?

A

cox-2 inhibitors

413
Q

What are the 5 hallmarks of inflammation?

A

heat, redness, swelling, pain, loss of function

414
Q

What are side effects of cox-2 inhibitors?

A

anorexia, vomiting, lethargy, potentially KD and LV dysfunction

415
Q

What do dual-pathway NSAIDs do?

A

block arachidonic acid cycle (both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase pathways)

416
Q

What type of NSAID blocks arachidonic acid cycle (both cyclooxygenase and lipoxygenase pathways)?

A

dual-pathway NSAIDs

417
Q

What is an example of a dual-pathway NSAID?

A

tepoxalin (Zubrin)

418
Q

Tepoxalin is an example of what type of NSAID?

A

dual-pathway NSAID

419
Q

What kind of properties does piroxicam have?

A

anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic

420
Q

What is piroxicam used for?

A

an adjunct treatment of urinary bladder transitional cell carcinoma

421
Q

What NSAID is used as an adjunct treatment of urinary bladder transitional cell carcinoma?

422
Q

What is some information about piroxicam?

A

has a very long half life, GI ulcers, may have teratogenic effects

423
Q

What is Buscopan used for?

A

as an antispasmodic, for colic in horses

424
Q

What is DMSO?

A

dimethyl sulfoxide

425
Q

What does DMSO do?

A

inactivates superoxide radicals produced by inflammation

426
Q

What does dimethyl sulfoxide do?

A

inactivates superoxide radicals produced by inflammation

427
Q

What is dimethyl sulfoxide able to do?

A

penetrate skin and serve as a carrier of other drugs

428
Q

What is DMSO able to do?

A

penetrate skin and serve as a carrier of other drugs

429
Q

What do glycosaminoglycans do?

A

form part of the extracellular matrix of cartilage

430
Q

Define parasitism.

A

relationship between two different organisms in which one of the organisms benefits while the other is harmed

431
Q

Do all parasites cause clinical signs in the animal?

432
Q

Define endoparasites.

A

parasites that live within the body of the host and cause internal parasite infections

433
Q

Define ectoparasites.

A

parasites that live on the body surface of the host and cause external parasite infestations

434
Q

How do benzimidazoles work?

A

by interfereing with energy metabolism of the worm

435
Q

What are examples of benzimidazoles?

A

fenbendazole, albendazole, mebendazole, oxibendazole, thiabendazole

436
Q

What are side effects of benzimidazoles?

A

while uncommon, they are vomiting and diarrhea

437
Q

Fenbendazole, albendazole, mebendazole, oxibendazole, thiabendazole are examples of what type of anti-parasitic?

A

Benzimidazoles

438
Q

What is the brand name of fenbendazole?

439
Q

What are the types of antinematodals?

A

organophosphates, tetrahydropyrimidines, imidazothiazoles, piperazine, avermections and benzimidazoles

440
Q

What do organophosphates do?

A

inhibit cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parasite

441
Q

What kind of antinematodal inhibits cholinesterase activity, causing ACh to remain active in the neuromuscular junction of the parasite?

A

organophosphates

442
Q

Organophosphates are ____ to parasites.

A

neurotixic

443
Q

Is it possible for organophosphates to cause neurologic side effects in the host?

444
Q

What kind of parasites does organophosphates work on?

A

endo and ecto parasites

445
Q

What kind of range of safety do organophosphates have?

446
Q

You should not use organophosphates in what kind of dogs?

A

heartworm-positive dogs

447
Q

What are examples of organophosphates?

A

dichlorvos and coumaphos

448
Q

Dichlorvos and coumaphos are examples of what type of antinematodal?

A

organophosphates

449
Q

What do Tetrahydropyrimidines do?

A

mimic the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm

450
Q

What kind of antinematodal mimics the action of ACh and cause paralysis of the worm?

A

tetrahydropyrimidines

451
Q

What are tetrahydropyrimidines effective against?

A

ascarids, pinworms, strongyles and hookworms

452
Q

What are examples of tetrahydropyrimidines?

A

pyrantel pamoate (Nemex/Strongid), pyrantel tartrate, morantel tartrate

453
Q

Pyrantel pamoate (Nemex/Strongid), pyrantel tartrate, morantel tartrate are examples of what kind of antinematodal?

A

tetrahydropyrimidines

454
Q

What are side effects of tetrahydropyrimidines? Are they common?

A

increased respiration, profuse sweating, incoordination. no.

455
Q

How do imidazothiazoles work?

A

by stimulating the nematode’s cholinergic nervous system, leading to paralysis of the parasite

456
Q

What are imidazothiazoles effective against?

A

ascarids, strongyles, whipworms, hookworms

457
Q

What is an example of an imidazothiazole?

A

levamisole

458
Q

Levamisole is an example of what kind of antinematodal?

A

imidazothiazole

459
Q

What is a side effect of imidazothiazoles?

A

transient foaming at the mouth

460
Q

What does piperazine do?

A

blocks neuromuscular transmission in the parasite

461
Q

What is piperazine effect against?

462
Q

What do avermectins do?

A

bind to certain chloride channels in the parasite nerve and muscle cells, causing paralysis and death of the parasite

463
Q

What are examples of avermectins?

A

ivermection (Ivomec) and moxidectin (Quest)

464
Q

What are avermectins not effective against?

A

cestodes or trematodes

465
Q

What are some side effects of avermectins? Common?

A

mydriasis, ataxia, tremors, depression. No.

466
Q

What are the four types of heartworm prevention?

A

Ivermectin (heartgard), Milbemycin (interceptor, sentinel), Selamectin (revolution), Moxydectin (proheart)

467
Q

What is Ivermectin also known as?

468
Q

What is milbemycin also known as?

A

interceptor, sentinel

469
Q

What is selamectin also known as?

A

revolution

470
Q

What is moxydectin also known as?

471
Q

What is heartgard also known as?

A

ivermectin

472
Q

What is interceptor/sentinel also known as?

A

milbemycin

473
Q

What is revolution also known as?

A

selamectin

474
Q

What is pro heart also known as?

A

moxydectin

475
Q

What is sulfadimethoxine also known as?

476
Q

What is albon also known as?

A

sulfadimethoxine

477
Q

What do penicillins have?

A

a beta-lactam structure that interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis

478
Q

What does penicillin’s spectrum of activity depend on?

A

the type of penicillin

479
Q

Which two penicillins are narrow-spectrum gram positive antibiotics?

A

Penicillin G and Penicillin V

480
Q

How is Penicillin G given?

A

parenterally

481
Q

How is Penicillin V given?

482
Q

What are examples of broader-spectrum penicillins?

A

amoxicillin, ampicillin, methicillin, carbenicillin, ticarcillin

483
Q

What are potentiated penicillins?

A

penicillins that are chemically cobined with another drug to ehance the effects of both

484
Q

What is an example of a potentiated penicillin? What does it do?

A

amoxicillin + clavulanic acid. it binds to beta-lactamase to prevent the beta-lactam ring from being destroyed.

485
Q

What are cephalosporins?

A

semi-synthetic, broad spectrum antibiotics that are structurally related to the penicillins

486
Q

Do cephalosporins have a beta-lactam ring?

487
Q

What are examples of cephalosporins?

A

cefadroxil (cefa-drops), cephalexin (keflex), ceftiofur (naxcel), cefpodoxime (simplicef)

488
Q

With cephalosporins, as the number of the generation increases, the spectrum of activity ____.

489
Q

What do tetracyclines do?

A

interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells

490
Q

What are side effects of tetracyclines?

A

nephrotoxicity, and ototoxicity

491
Q

What are examples of tetracyclines?

A

tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline, chlortetracycline

492
Q

What does bacitracin do?

A

disrupts the bacterial cell wall and is effective against gram-positive bacteria

493
Q

How is bacitracin used?

A

topically or as a feed additive

494
Q

How does polymyxin B work?

A

by attacking the cell membrane of bacteria

495
Q

What do aminoglycosides do?

A

interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells

496
Q

Do aminoglycosides work on gram pos or gram neg bacteria?

497
Q

Why are aminoglycosides given parenterally?

A

not absorbed well from the GI tract

498
Q

What are side effects of aminoglycosides?

A

nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

499
Q

What are examples of aminoglycosides?

A

gentamicin, neomycin, amikacin, tobramycin, and dihydrostreptomycin

500
Q

What are fluoroquinolones?

A

antibiotics with fluorine bound to the quinolone base, which increases the drog’s potency, spectrum of activity, and absorption

501
Q

What are side effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

development of bubble-like cartilage lesions in growing dogs, crystalluria

502
Q

What are examples of fluroquinolones?

A

enrofloxacin (Baytril), ciprofloxacin, orbifloxacin, difloxacin, marbofloxacin, sarafloxacin

503
Q

What does chloramphenicol do?

A

interferes with the production of protein in bacterial cells

504
Q

What is chloramphenicol?

A

a broad-spectrum antibiotic that penetrates tissues and fluids well (including the eyes and CNS)

505
Q

Which antibiotic should you use caution when handling?

A

chloramphenicol

506
Q

Which antibiotic has toxic side effects (bone marrow depression) that extremely limits its use?

A

chloramphenicol

507
Q

Can you use chloramphenicol in food animals?

508
Q

What does florfenicol do?

A

interferes with the production of protein in bacterial cells

509
Q

What is florfenicol?

A

a synthetic, broad-spectrum antibiotic

510
Q

What are side effects of florfenicol?

A

local tissue reaction (possible loss of tissue at slaughter), inappetence, decreased water consumption, diarrhea

511
Q

What do macrolides do?

A

interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells

512
Q

What are macrolides?

A

braod-spectrum antibiotics that have a large molecular structure

513
Q

What are macrolides used to treat?

A

penicillin-resistant infections or in anials that have allergic reactions to penicillins

514
Q

What are examples of macrolides?

A

erythromycin, tylosin, tilmicosin

515
Q

Erythromycin, tylosin, tilmicosin are examples of what kinds of antibiotics?

A

macrolides

516
Q

What do lincosamides do?

A

interfere with the production of protein in bacterial cells

517
Q

What are lincosamides?

A

narrow-spectrum, gram-positive antibiotics

518
Q

What are side effects of lincosamides?

A

GI problems

519
Q

What are examples of lincosamides?

A

clindamycin, pirlimycin, lincosamide

520
Q

Clindamycin, pirlimycin, lincosamide are examples of what kind of antibiotic?

A

lincosamides

521
Q

What are nitrofurans?

A

broad-spectrum antibiotics

522
Q

What are nitrofurans used to treat?

A

treat wounds and urinary tract infections

523
Q

What are examples of nitrofurans?

A

furazolidone, nitrofurazone, nitrofurantoin

524
Q

Furazolidone, nitrofurazone, nitrofurantoin are examples of what kind of anibiotic?

A

nitrofurans

525
Q

How do nitroimiazoles work?

A

by disrupting DNA and nucleic acid synthesis

526
Q

What is an example of a nitroimiazole?

A

metronidazole

527
Q

Nitroimiazoles have what kind of activity?

A

antibacterial and antiprotozoal

528
Q

What does rifampin do?

A

disrupts RNA synthesis

529
Q

What is rifampin?

A

a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in conjunction with other antibiotics

530
Q

What are examples of protein synthesis agents?

A

chloramphenicol, florfenicol, macrolides, lincosamides

531
Q

What are examples of anticestodals?

A

praziquantel (droncit), epsiprantel (cestex), fenbendazole (Panacur)

532
Q

How does praziquantel work?

A

by increasing the cestode’s cell membrane permeability (this disintegrates the worm’s outer tissue covering)

533
Q

How does epsiprantel work?

A

causes disintegration of the cestod

534
Q

What species does epsiprantel work on?

A

taenia and diplydium species

535
Q

What are examples of antitrematodals?

A

clorsulon, albendazole, praziquantel

536
Q

How does clorsulon work?

A

by inhibiting the trematode’s enzyme systems for energy production

537
Q

What is clorsulon effective against?

A

Fasciola hepatica

538
Q

How does albendazole work?

A

interferes with the energy metabolism of the worm

539
Q

What kind of trematode is praziquantel effective against in dogs and cats?

A

lung trematodes

540
Q

What are the three stages of management of heartworm disease?

A
  1. preventing third-stage larvae from reaching maturity (preventative)
  2. adulticide therapy (none approved in cats)
  3. eradication of circulating microfilariae after infection
541
Q

What is an example of an adulticide therapy?

A

melarsomine (immidicide)

542
Q

What is another name for melarsomine?

A

immidicide

543
Q

What is another name for immidicide?

A

melarsomine

544
Q

Where is melarsomine given?

A

in the epaxial muscles

545
Q

What is melarsomine?

A

an arsenic compound

546
Q

What are side effects of melarsomine?

A

injection site pain/swelling, respiratory signs, death

547
Q

What is another name for imidacloprid?

548
Q

What is another name for Advantage?

A

imidacloprid

549
Q

What is another name for imidacloprid + permethrin?

550
Q

What is another name for Advantix?

A

imidacloprid = permethrin

551
Q

What is another name for fipronil?

552
Q

What is another name for frontline?

553
Q

What is another name for nitenpyram?

554
Q

What is another name for capstar?

A

nitenpyram

555
Q

What is another name for fluralaner?

556
Q

What is another name for bravecto?

A

fluralaner

557
Q

What is another name for afoxolaner?

558
Q

What is another name for nexgard?

A

afoxolaner

559
Q

What is another name for dinotefuran/pyriproxyfen?

560
Q

What is another name for vectra?

A

dinotefuran/pyriproxyfen

561
Q

What are pyrethroids?

A

a group of quick-kill chemicals in flea products

562
Q

T or F. All flea products also control ticks.

563
Q

What are the two hormones involved in metabolism that the thyroid gland secretes?

A

Thyroxine (T4), Triiodothyronine (T3)

564
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A

a deficiency of thyroid hormone

565
Q

What are signs of hypothyroidism?

A

decreased coat and hair luster, weight gain, listlessness, intolerance to cold, reproductive failure

566
Q

How is hypothyroidism diagnosed?

A

by measuring serum total T4 or T3 by a thyroid stimulation test or by the thyrotropin-releasing hormone rsponse test

567
Q

What are teh two things that hypothyroid animals are treated with?

A

levothyroxine (T4), liothyronine (T3)

568
Q

What is hyperthyroidism?

A

an increased production of thyroid hormone

569
Q

Whatare signs of hyperthyroidism?

A

increase thirst, weight loss, increased stool production, restlessness, tachycardia

570
Q

What are hyperthyroid animals treated with?

A

antithyroid drugs or surgical removal

571
Q

Radioactive isotopes of iodine ____ destroy the thyroid gland.

572
Q

Why would methimazole be used in hyperthyroid animals?

A

it interferes with the incorporation of iodine in the molecules of T4 and T3

573
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

adrenocorticol insufficiency, a progressive condition associated with adrenal atrophy

574
Q

What are signs of Addison’s disease?

A

lethargy, weakness, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, PU/PD

575
Q

How is Addison’s disease diagnosed?

A

ACTH stimulation test

576
Q

What does treatment of Addison’s disease involve?

A

a long-acting mineralocorticoid and corticosteroids

577
Q

What is Cushing’s disease?

A

hyperadrenocorticism, characterized by excessive glucocorticoid production due to prolonged administration of adrenocortical hormones, adrenocortical tumors, or pituitary disorders

578
Q

What are signs of cushing’s disease?

A

PU/PD, hair loss, pendulous abdomen

579
Q

How is cushing’s disease diagnosed?

A

ACTH stimulation test or low-dose dexamethazone suppression test

580
Q

What does treatment of cushing’s disease involve?

A

destroying part of the adrenal cortex

581
Q

What are examples of drugs used to treat cushing’s diesease?

A

mitotane, trilostane, keoconazole, selegiline, cyproheptadine

582
Q

What are gonadotropins?

A

hormones that stimulate the gonads

583
Q

What are examples of gonadotropins?

A

LH, FSH, GnRH

584
Q

What is PMSG is used for?

A

produce estrus and ovulation in horses and as a follicle stimulant in many species (superoovulation)

585
Q

What does PMSG stand for?

A

pregnant mare serum gonadotropin

586
Q

What does GnRH stand for?

A

gonadorelin

587
Q

What is GnRH used to treat?

A

follicular cysts in cattle, for estrus synchronization in cattle, and to induce estrus in small animals

588
Q

What does hCG stand for?

A

human chorionic gonadotropin

589
Q

What is hCG used to treat?

A

cystic ovaries in cattle, to detect/treat? cryptorchidism in dogs, to get infertile bitches to cycle, and to make breeding mares ovulate

590
Q

What are androgens?

A

male hormones

591
Q

Where is testosterone made?

A

in the interstitial cells of the testes

592
Q

What is testerone used to treat?

A

conditions such as infertility and hypogonadism, produce estrus detectors, and for testosterone-responsive urinary incontinence in dogs

593
Q

Is testerone a controlled drug?

A

yes it’s a class 3

594
Q

What is are examples of testosterone?

A

testosterone cypionate in oil, testosterone enaanthate in oil, testosterone propionate in oil, danazol

595
Q

What are examples of androgens?

A

testosterone, mibolerone, zinc gluconate with arginine,

596
Q

How does mibolerone work?

A

it blocks the release of LH from the anterior pituitary gland, therefore the follicle does not fully develop

597
Q

What male hormones blocks the release of LH from the anterior pituitary gland, therefore the follicle does not fully develop?

A

mibolerone

598
Q

What is mibolerone used for?

A

to prevent estrus in adult female dogs and the treatment of false pregnancies (pseudocyesis)

599
Q

What els is zinc gluconate with arginine known as?

A

neutersol and zeuterin

600
Q

What is zinc gluconate with arginine?

A

a chemical sterilant approved for use in 3-10 month old male dogs. it’s a nonsurgical neutering drug

601
Q

What type of injection is zinc gluconate with arginine?

A

intratesticular

602
Q

What are examples of female hormones?

A

estrogen, progesterone, prostaglandins

603
Q

What does estrogen do?

A

promotes female sex characteristics and stimulates and maintains the reproductive tract

604
Q

Why are synthetic estrogens used in dogs for?

A

prevent implantation of fertilized ova and to correct urinary incontinence, vaginitis, and dermatitis

605
Q

Why are synthetic estrogens used in cattle?

A

to treat persistent corpus luteum, aid in expulsion of retained placentas and mummified feti, to promote weight gain

606
Q

Why are synthetic estrogens used in horses?

A

to induce estrus in the non breeding season

607
Q

What female hormone is used to prevent implantation of fertilized ova and to correct urinary incontinence, vaginitis, and dermatitis in dogs?

A

synthetic estrogen

608
Q

What female hormone is used to treat persistent corpus luteum, aid in expulsion of retained placentas and mummified feti, to promote weight gain in cattle?

A

synthetic estrogen

609
Q

What female hormone is used to induce estrus in the non breeding season in horses?

A

synthetic estrogen

610
Q

What are some examples of estrogen?

A

estradiol cypionate, diethylstilbestrol

611
Q

Estradiol cypionate and diethylstilbestrol are examples of what kind of female hormone?

612
Q

What does progesterone do?

A

decreases uterine activity when a female is in estrus or pregnant

613
Q

What female hormone decreases uterine activity when a female is in estrus or pregnant?

A

progesterone

614
Q

What is progesterone (progestins) used for in dogs?

A

to block estrus

615
Q

What is progesterone used for in cattle?

A

to synchronize breeding and birth cycles

616
Q

What may progestins be used to treat?

A

behavior problems and some forms of dermatitis

617
Q

What female hormone is used to block estrus in dogs?

A

progesterone

618
Q

What female hormone is used to synchronize breeding and birth cycles in cattle?

A

progesterone

619
Q

What are examples of progesterone?

A

megestrol acetate, medroxyprogesterone acetate, altrenogest, progesterone, melengestrol

620
Q

Megestrol acetate, medroxyprogesterone acetate, altrenogest, progesterone, melengestrol are examples of what kind of female hormone?

A

progesterone

621
Q

What do prostaglandings do?

A

causes lysis of the corpus luteum, which initiates a new estrus cycle

622
Q

What are prostaglandins used for in small animals?

A

to treat pyometra, cause abortion, and induce parturition

623
Q

What female hormone is used to treat pyometra, cause abortion, and induce parturition in small animals?

A

prostaglandins

624
Q

What are prostaglandins used for in cattle?

A

estrus synchronization and inducing uterine contractions to facilitate emptying of the uterus

625
Q

What female hormone is used for estrus synchronization and inducing uterine contractions to facilitate emptying of the uterus in cattle?

A

prostaglandins

626
Q

What are prostaglandins used for in horses?

A

estrus synchronization

627
Q

What female hormone is used for estrus synchronization in horses?

A

prostaglandins

628
Q

What are examples of prostaglandins?

A

dinoprost tromethamine (Lutalyse), fluprostenol, cloprostenol sodium

629
Q

Dinoprost tromethamine (Lutalyse), fluprostenol, cloprostenol sodium are examples of what type of female hormone?

A

prostaglandins

630
Q

What are examples of hormonal growth promotants?

A

estradiol, testosterone, progesterone (used in combination with estradiol)

631
Q

What are examples of synthetic hormones?

A

TBA, MGA, Zeranol

632
Q

What are examples of anabolic steroids?

A

Stanozolol and Boldenone

633
Q

How long do you have to keep a VFD copy?

A

2 years minimum

634
Q

What is milk replacer considered as?

635
Q

What are negative foodback loops?

A

more common, work in response to low or high levels of hormone in the body

636
Q

What are positive feedback loops?

A

occur when hormone levels continue to rise in response to stimuli

637
Q

What are examples of anterior pituitary hormones used in vet med?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), growth hormone (GH)

638
Q

What are examples of posterior pituitary hormones used in vet med?

A

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin

639
Q

What is TSH used in the diagnosis of?

A

primary hypothyroidism

640
Q

What is ACTH used for?

A

to stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete corticosteroids in the diagnosis of adrenal cortex disease

641
Q

What is GH used for?

A

to increase growth rate and feed use efficiency in livestock and increase milk production in dairy cows

642
Q

Which anterior pituitary gland hormone is used in the diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism?

643
Q

Which anterior pituitary gland hormone is used to stimulate the adrenal cortex to secrete corticosteroids in the diagnosis of adrenal cortex disease?

644
Q

Which anterior pituitary gland hormone is used to increase growth rate and feed use efficiency in livestock and increase milk production in dairy cows?

645
Q

What is ADH used for?

A

to diagnose and treat diabetes insipidus

646
Q

What is oxytocin used for?

A

to aid in uterine contraction and induce labor in animals at term, expel the placenta, induce milk letdown, and as an adjunct therapy for animals with open pyometra

647
Q

Which posterior pituitary gland hormones is used to diagnose and treat diabetes insipidus?

648
Q

Which posterior pituitary gland hormones is used to aid in uterine contraction and induce labor in animals at term, expel the placenta, induce milk letdown, and as an adjunct therapy for animals with open pyometra?

649
Q

What does the pancreas do?

A

secretes two hormones that help regulate blood glucose

650
Q

What are the two hormones that the pancrease secretes?

A

insulin and glucagon

651
Q

Insulin and glucagon are secreted from where?

A

the pancreas

652
Q

What does insulin do?

A

responds to a rise in blood glucose and promotes the uptake and use of glucose for energy in cells

653
Q

Which hormone from the pancreas responds to a rise in blood glucose and promotes the uptake and use of glucose for energy in cells?

654
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

increases blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen into glucose

655
Q

Which hormone from the pancreas increases blood glucose levels by promoting the breakdown of glycogen into glucose?

656
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

a disease of fat, carbohydrate, and protein metabolism caused by lack of, or inefficient use of, insulin

657
Q

What is a disease of fat, carbohydrate, and protein metabolism caused by lack of, or inefficient use of, insulin?

A

diabetes mellitus

658
Q

What are some sources of insulin?

A

pork, synthetic, and recombinant forms

659
Q

What is short-acting insulin used for?

A

initial treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis and to keep blood glucose stable

660
Q

What are examples of short-acting insulin?

A

regular crystalline insulin and semilente insulin

661
Q

What is intermediate-acting insulin used for?

A

to control blood glucose in uncomplicated cases of diabetes mellitus

662
Q

What are examples of intermediate-acting insulin?

A

NPH and lente

663
Q

What is long-acting insulin used for?

A

to control blood glucose for longer periods of time, especially in cats

664
Q

What are examples of long-acting insulin?

A

protamine zinc insulin, ultralente

665
Q

What kind of insulin can take a few days to achieve its maximal effect?

A

ultra long acting insulin

666
Q

What are symptoms of insulin overdose?

A

seizures, lethargy, weakness, death

667
Q

What is the treatment for insulin overdose?

A

do not give next dose of insulin, give karo syrup instead

668
Q

What is an example of an oral hypoglycemic agent?

669
Q

What do oral hypoglycemic agents do?

A

stimulate pancreatic beta cells to secrete insulin

670
Q

Do you need to have some pancreatic function with oral hypoglycemic agents?

671
Q

Are hypoglycemic agents more successful in cats or dogs?

672
Q

What are four categories of antifungals?

A

polyene antifungal agents, imidazole antifungal agents, antimetabolic antifungal agents, superficial antifungal agents

673
Q

How do polene antifungals work?

A

by binding to the fungal cell membrane

674
Q

What type of antifungal agent works by binding to the fungal cell membrane?

A

polyene antifungals

675
Q

What are examples of polyene antifungals?

A

nystatin (used orally) and amphotericin B (used IV for systemic infections)

676
Q

Amphotericin B is what?

A

extremely nephrotoxic, lighsensitive, can precipitate out of solution

677
Q

How do imidazole antifungals work?

A

by causing leakage of the fungal cell membrane

678
Q

What type of antifungal agents work by causing leakage of the fungal cell membrane?

A

imidazole antifungals

679
Q

What are examples of imidazole antifungals?

A

ketoconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole, miconazole

680
Q

How do antimetabolic antifungals work?

A

by interfering with the metabolism of RNA and proteins

681
Q

What is an example of an antimetabolic antifungal?

A

flucytosine

682
Q

How do superficial antifungals work?

A

by disrupting fungal cell division

683
Q

What is an example of a superficial antifungal?

A

griseofulvin

684
Q

Griseofulvin is what?

A

teratogenic

685
Q

What is lyme sulfur used for?

A

to topically treat ringworm

686
Q

What is lufenuron used for?

A

to treat ringworm in cats

687
Q

How do antiviral drugs act?

A

by preventing viral penetration of the host cell or by inhibiting the virus’s production fo RNA or DNA

688
Q

Are ther any antiviral drugs labeled for veterinary use?

689
Q

What are some antiviral drugs used in vet med?

A

acyclovir, interferon, and lysine

690
Q

What is acyclovir used for?

A

to treat ocular feline herpes virus infections

691
Q

What does acyclovir do?

A

interfere with the virus’s synthesis of DNA

692
Q

What does interferon do?

A

protects host cells from a number of different viruses

693
Q

What is interferon used to treat?

A

ocular feline herpes virus infection and FeLV

694
Q

What do disinfectants do?

A

kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on inanimate objects

695
Q

What do antiseptics do?

A

kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on animate objects

696
Q

Contact time is critical in what?

A

the efficacy of the product

697
Q

What is SDS?

A

safety data sheets

698
Q

What are types of disinfecting agents?

A

phenols, quaternary ammonium compounds, aldehydes, ethylene oxide, alcohols, halogens, biguanides

699
Q

How do phenols work?

A

by destroying the selective permeability of cell membranes

700
Q

What are phenols effective against?

A

gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, fungi, some enveloped viruses

701
Q

What is an example of a phenol?

702
Q

How do quaternary ammonium compound work?

A

by concentrating at the cell membrane and dissolving lipids in the cell walls and membranes

703
Q

What are quaternary ammonium compounds effective against?

A

gram pos and gram neg bacteria, fungi, enveloped viruses

704
Q

What is an example of a quaternary ammonium compound?

705
Q

How do aldehydes work?

A

by affecting protein structure

706
Q

What are aldehydes effective against?

A

gram os and gram neg bacteria, fungi, viruses, bacterial spores

707
Q

What are some examples of aldehydes?

A

formaldehyde, gluteraldehyde

708
Q

How does ethylene oxide work?

A

by destroying DNA and proteins?

709
Q

What is ethylene oxide used for?

A

a gas for chemical sterilization

710
Q

What is ethylene oxide effective against?

A

gram pos and gram neg bacteria, fungi, viruses, bacterial spores

711
Q

How do alcohols work?

A

by coagulating proteins and dissolving membrane lipids

712
Q

What are alcohols effective against?

A

gram pos and gram neg bacteria, fungi, envelped viruses

713
Q

How do halogens work?

A

by interfering with proteins and enzymes of the microbe

714
Q

What does chlorine kill?

A

bacteria, fungi, viruses

715
Q

What does iodine kill?

A

most classes of microbes if used at the proper concentration and exposure times

716
Q

How do biguanides work?

A

by denaturing proteins

717
Q

What are biguanides effective against?

A

gram pos and gram neg bacteria, fungi, enveloped viruses

718
Q

What is an example of a biguanide?

A

chlorhexidine

719
Q

Soaps and detergents have what?

A

limited bactericidal activity

720
Q

What does hydrogen peroxide do?

A

damages proteins, kills anaerobic bacteria, can cause tissue damage

721
Q

What are four reversal agents?

A

naloxone, atipamezole, yohimbine, tolazoline

722
Q

What are examples of antidotes?

A

activated charcoal, calcium EDTA, dimercaprol, penicillamine, pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM), acetylsysteine, methylene blue, sodium thiosulfate, ethanol, vitamin K, antivenin

723
Q

What is methylene blue used to treat?

A

nitrate toxicity

724
Q

What is ethylene glycol used to treat?

725
Q

Do herbal supplements require FDA approval? Why?

A

No, they are considered food supplements

726
Q

What is Ginkgo used for?

A

to reduce aging effects of the nervous system, to reduce hypertension, a general tonicqWhat are the active ingredients in ginkgo?

727
Q

What are active ingredients in ginkgo?

A

ginkgo flavone glycosides, terpene lactones

728
Q

What may ginkgo do?

A

inhibit cytochrome P450 and induce hypoglycemia

729
Q

What is St. John’s Wort used for?

A

to treat behavior disorders, aggression, separation anxiety, OCD

730
Q

What may St. John’s Wort do?

A

inhibit cytochrome P450, affect blood pressure, cause photosensitivity

731
Q

What is the active compenent of St. John’s Wort? What does it do?

A

hyperforin, regulates the effects of serotonin

732
Q

What is ginkgo also known as?

A

ginkgo biloba

733
Q

What is ginkgo biloba also known as?

734
Q

What is St. John’s Wort also known as?

A

hypericum perforatum

735
Q

What is hypericum perforatum also known as?

A

St. John’s Wort

736
Q

What is ginseng also known as?

A

Panax ginseng

737
Q

What is panax ginseng also known as?

738
Q

What does ginseng do?

A

stimulate natural killer cell activity, increses energy, counters stress, inhances physical performaance

739
Q

What is ginseng used to treat?

A

weight loss, anorexia, systemic infections

740
Q

What may ginseng effect?

A

blood glucose levels, increase blood pressure and heart rate, increase GI motility, induce seizures at high levels

741
Q

What is garlic also known as?

A

allium sativum

742
Q

What is allium sativum also known as?

743
Q

Garlic is believed to have what kind of properties?

A

anticarcinogenic

744
Q

In garlic, what does allicin cause?

A

reduction of chloesterol, triglyceride levels and hypertension

745
Q

What is garlic used to treat?

A

parasitic infections, fungal infections, respiratory problems, to acidify urine

746
Q

What may garlic cause?

A

inhibition of platelet aggregation, prolonged bleeding times, GI upset, Heinz body anemia

747
Q

What is echinacea also known as?

A

echinacia purpurea

748
Q

In echinacea, what do fructofuranosides do?

A

contribute to tissue regeneration, regulation of the inflammatory response, a mild cortisone-like effect

749
Q

What does echinacea stimulate?

A

phagocytosis and natural killer cell activity

750
Q

What is echinacea used for?

A

to shorten the severity and duration of infections

751
Q

What is evening primrose also known as?

A

oenothera biennis

752
Q

What does evening primrose contain?

A

gamma-linolenic acid

753
Q

What is evening primrose used to treat?

A

premenstrual syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, diabetic neuropathy, eczema in humans

754
Q

What are side effects of evening primrose?

A

loose stools and abdominal cramps

755
Q

What may evening primrose do?

A

lower the seizure threshold on some animals on phenothiazine medications

756
Q

What is goldenseal also known as?

A

hydrastis canadensis

757
Q

What gives goldenseal it’s antibacterial and antiparasitic properties?

758
Q

What is goldenseal used to treat?

A

bacterial and parasitic infections

759
Q

What are side effects of Goldenseal?

A

cardiac problems, stimulation of the CNS and uterine contractions

760
Q

What is cranberry also known as?

A

vaccinium macrocarpon

761
Q

What does cranberry do?

A

interferes with the attachment of urinary pathogens to the urinary bladder wall

762
Q

What is cranberry used to treat?

A

urinary tract infections

763
Q

What are some side effects of cranberry?

A

diarrhea, stomach problems, development of kidney stones

764
Q

What is valerian also known as?

A

valeriana officinalis

765
Q

What do volatile oils in valerian do?

A

break down the inhibitory substance GABA

766
Q

What is Valerian used to treat?

A

hyperactivity in dogs, for mild tranquilization, as a sleep aid

767
Q

What are side effects of Valerian?

A

hepatotoxicity with long-term use and interaction with other depressant drugs

768
Q

What is Hawthorn berry also known as?

A

crataegus oxyacantha

769
Q

What is hawthorn berry used as?

A

a heart and valvular tonic typically in animals in the early stages of congestive heart failure

770
Q

Why is hawthorn berry used in animals with kidney disease?

A

it’s ability to enhance blood flow

771
Q

What is ginger also known as?

A

Zingiber officinale

772
Q

How long before surgery do animals need to be off ginger?

773
Q

Why should you not use ginger in an animal with a temperature?

A

it raises body temperature

774
Q

What is ginger used to treat?

A

intestinal disorders, motion sickness, gastric upset, artiritis

775
Q

What is milk thistle also know as?

A

silybum marianum

776
Q

What are milk thistle seeds used for?

A

to relieve congestion of the liver, spleen and kidneys

777
Q

Milk thistle contains substances that ___.

A

are hepatoregenerative, hepatoprotective, reduce inflammation, have potent antioxidant effects

778
Q

When should you not use herbs in animals?

A

pregnant or nursing animals, very young or very old

779
Q

Why would proparacaine and tetracaine be used?

A

to help perform comprehensive eye exams or to remoe foreign material from the eye

780
Q

What do mydriatics do?

A

dilate the pupil

781
Q

What do cycloplegics do?

A

paralyze the ciliary muscles and minimize pain

782
Q

What are exampes of mydriatics and cycloplegics?

A

atropine, homatropine, phenylephrine, tropicamide, epinephrine

783
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

a group of diseases that increase intraocular pressure

784
Q

Why do miotics do?

A

constrict the pupil

785
Q

What are miotics used to treat? How?

A

open-angle glaucome, by increasing the outflor of aqueous humor

786
Q

What is an example of a miotic?

A

pilocarpine

787
Q

What do beta-adrenergic blockers do to the production of aqueous humor?

A

decreases it

788
Q

How can prostaglandins treat glaucoma?

A

increasing outflow of aqueous humor

789
Q

How do alpha-adrenergic agonists treat glaucoma?

A

reduce aqueous humor secretion

790
Q

What is KCS?

A

a disease in which tear production is decreased

791
Q

What does KCS result in?

A

mucopurulent conjunctivitis and corneal scarring/ulceration

792
Q

What are some drugs sued to treat KCS?

A

artificial tears, antibiotic steroid preparations, lacrimogenic, cyclosporine

793
Q

What are examples of systemic antipruritics?

A

cyclosporine (Atopica), oclacitinib (Apoquel)

794
Q

What is seborrhea characterized by?

A

abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermic

795
Q

What do keratolytics do?

A

remove excess keratin and promote loosening of the outer layers of the epidermis

796
Q

What are some drugs that are topically used to treat seborrhea?

A

sulfur, salicylic acid, coal tar, benzoyl peroxide, selenium sulfide

797
Q

What are astringents?

A

agents that constrict tissues, decrease secretions

798
Q

What are examples of astringents?

A

tannins, alcohol

799
Q

What are antiseptics?

A

substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microbes on living tissues

800
Q

What are examples of antiseptics?

A

alcohol, chlorhexidine

801
Q

What are soaks and dressings?

A

substances applied to areas to draw out fluid or relieve itching

802
Q

What are caustics?

A

substances that destroy tissues

803
Q

What may fatty acid supplements do?

A

improve condition of skin and hair, and may reduce pruritis

804
Q

What are examples of blood enhancing drugs?

A

iron and erythropoietin

805
Q

What is erythropoietin?

A

a protein made by the kidneys that stimulates the differentiation of bone marrow stem cells to form red blood cells

806
Q

What is an example of an erythropoietin product?

807
Q

What is an erythropoietin product used to treat?

A

anemia in animals with chronic renal failure

808
Q

What is an example of a thrombolytic drug?

A

streptokinase

809
Q

Do anticoagulants break down existing clots?

810
Q

Is heparin effective orally?

811
Q

What are examples of parenteral hemostatic drugs?

A

Vitamin K, protamine sulfate

812
Q

What are examples of topical hemostatic drugs?

A

silver nitrate, hemostat powder, gelfoam gelatin sponges, thrombogen topical thrombin solution

813
Q

What are the 5 phases of the cell cycle and what do they do?

A 
G1: enzymes needed for DNA synthesis are produced
S: DNA synthesis and replication
G2: RNA and protein synthesis
M: mitosis phase
G0: resting phase
814
Q

Define growth fraction.

A

percentage of cancer cells that are actively dividing

815
Q

A __ growth fraction occurs when cells are dividing rapidly.

816
Q

When tumors age and enlarge, their growth fraction ___.

817
Q

What is calculation of an antineoplastic drug dose based on?

A

body surface area in square meters

818
Q

How does OSHA recommend antineoplastics be prepared?

A

under a vertical laminar hood

819
Q

What is pulse dosing?

A

a method of delivering some types of chemotherapeutic agents that produces escalating levels of drugs early in the dose followed by a dose free interval

820
Q

What do cell-cycle nonspecific antineoplastic agents do?

A

alkylating agents cross-link DNA to inhibit its replication

821
Q

What are examples of cell-cycle nonspecific agents?

A

cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, chlorambucil, melphalan, carboplatin

822
Q

Antitumor antibiotics inhibit what?

A

DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis

823
Q

What are examples of antitumor antibiotics?

A

doxorubicin, dactinomycin, mitoxantrone

824
Q

What do antitubulins do?

A

stop cancer cell division

825
Q

What are examples of antitubulins?

A

vincristine and vinblastine

826
Q

What do antimetabolites affect?

A

the S phase involving DNA synthesis

827
Q

What are examples of antimetabolites used in cancer treatment?

A

methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil, cytarabine, azathoprine

828
Q

What are the three types of interferon?

A

alpha, beta, gamma

829
Q

What do colony stimulating factors do?

A

stimulate the growth, maturation and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells, treats neutropenia in dogs/cats

830
Q

What is an example of a colony stimulating factor?

A

filgrastim

831
Q

Monoclonal antibodies have what?

A

cytotoxic effects on tumor cells

832
Q

Acemannan is what?

A

a potent stimulator of macrophage activity and is used to treat fibrosarcomas and mast cells in dogs/cats

833
Q

Cyclosporine inhibits what?

A

the proliferation of T-lymphocytes

834
Q

What does Azathioprine affect?

A

cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibits T and B lymphocytes

835
Q

Cyclophosphamide interferes with what?

A

DNA and RNA replication, disrupting nucleic acid function

836
Q

How do immunosuppressive drugs work?

A

by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers

837
Q

Which immunosuppressive are cats more likely to develop severe side effects with?

A

azathiprine

838
Q

What are side effects of cyclophosphamides?

A

bone marrow suppression, gastroenteritis, hemorrhagic cystitis

839
Q

Nonspecific immunity includes what type of things?

A

physical barriers, mucus production, inflammation, fever, phagocytosis

840
Q

What is nonspecific immunity directed at?

A

against all pathogens

841
Q

When does specific immunity take over?

A

when nonspecific mechanisms fail

842
Q

Specific immunity is targeted for what?

A

a specific antigen

843
Q

Specific immunity arises from what?

A

B and T lymphocytes

844
Q

What happens with cell-mediated immunity?

A

T-lymphocytes directly attack the invading antigen

845
Q

What is cell-mediated immunity important for?

A

protecting against intracellular bacterial or viral infections, fungal diseases, and protozoal diseases

846
Q

What happens with antibody-mediated immunity?

A

B-lymphocytes produce antibodies that react to antigen

847
Q

What is antibody-mediated immunity important for?

A

extracellular phases of systemic viral and bacterial infections and protection against endotoxin and exotoxin-induced disease

848
Q

What does active immunity arise from?

A

when an animal receives an antigen that activates B- and T-lymphocytes

849
Q

What does active immunity create?

850
Q

What does passive immunity arise from?

A

when an animal receives antibodies from another animal

851
Q

When is natural immunity acquired?

A

during normal biological processes

852
Q

When is artificial immunity acquired?

A

through medical procedures

853
Q

What is an inactivated vaccine made from?

A

microbes, microbe parts, or microbe by-products that have been chemically treated or heated to kill the microbe

854
Q

What does inactivated vaccines contain?

855
Q

What are adjuvants?

A

substances that enhance the immune response by increasing the stability of the vaccine in the body

856
Q

Live vaccines are made from what?

A

live microorganisms that may be fully virulent

857
Q

Modified live vaccines are made from what?

A

microorganisms that have lost their virulence

858
Q

What is a recombinant vaccine?

A

when a gene or part of a microorganisms is removed from one organism and inserted into another microorganisms

859
Q

What is a toxoid vaccine?

A

a vaccine used against a toxin that has been deactivated by heat or chemicals, but is still able to stimulate antibody production

860
Q

What are antitoxins?

A

substances that contain antibodies obtained from an animal that has been hypersensitized to neutralize toxins

861
Q

What are maternally derived antibodies?

A

antibodies that offspring receive passively from their mothers

862
Q

What is intracellular fluid?

A

fluid within the cells

863
Q

What is extracellular fluid?

A

fluid within the blood vessels and in the tissue spaces between the blood vessels and cells

864
Q

What are cations?

A

positively charged ions

865
Q

What are anions?

A

negatively charged ions

866
Q

How does body water move in order to establish equilibrium?

A

along its concentration gradient

867
Q

Where does fluid exchange occur?

A

only across capillary walls

868
Q

What are crystalloids?

A

diffusible substances that dissolve in solution

869
Q

What are colloids?

A

nondiffusible substances

870
Q

What are disadvantages of intraperitoneal fluids?

A

possibility of sepsis, can’t use IP routes in animals waiting for abdominal surgery, can’t use hypertonic solutions

871
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

one that has the same osmotic pressure as blood and extracellular water

872
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

one that has osmolality lower than that of blood, RBCs can swell

873
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

one that has osmolality higher than that of blood, RBCs can strink

874
Q

Examples of isotonic solutions.

A

0.9% sodium chloride, LRS, Normosol, Plasmalyte

875
Q

Examples of hypotonic solutions.

A

5% dexrose in water (D5W), 1/4 NS (0.25% normal saline), 1/2 NS (0.45&=% normal saline)

876
Q

Examples of hypertonic solutions.

A

0.9% normal saline with 5% dextrose, 10% dextrose in water, 3% normal saline

877
Q

What should the label on a prescrition have?

A

name and address of the dispenser, clients name, animals name and species, drug name , drug strength, drug quantity, date of order, directions for use, any refill information

878
Q

What is fluid overload?

A

a condition in which the administration of fluid occurs at a greater rate than the rate at which the body can use or eliminate the fluid

879
Q

What are signs of fluid overload?

A

respiratory changes, fluid deposition in the subcutaneous space, weight gain

880
Q

What are colloid solutions?

A

fluids with large molecules that enhance the oncotic force of blood, causing fluid to move from the interstitial and intracellular spaces into the vascular space

881
Q

Examples of natural colloids

A

plasma, albumin, whole blood

882
Q

Examples of synthetic colloids.

A

dextrans, hydroxyethyl starch (hetastarch)

883
Q

What are types of fluid additives?

A

50% dextrose, potassium, sodium bicarbonate, calcium, vitamins

884
Q

Fenbendazole is used for treatment of what?

885
Q

Atropine is used to treat toxicities of which drug that may cause SLUDGE?

A

organophosphates

886
Q

Which of the following delivery methods treats the environment rather than the animal?

A) dips
B) foggers
C) injectables
D) tablets

887
Q

What does the spectrum of an antibiotic indicate?

A

which kind of bacteria it is useful against

888
Q

What other groups of antibiotics are cephalexins structurally similar to?

A

penicillins

889
Q

Enrofloxacin is used to what?

A

treat a bacterial infection

890
Q

Addison’s disease involves which gland?

891
Q

Which of the following is generally not a reason for administration of hormones?

A) maximize weight gain
B) control urinary incontenince
C) synchronize estrous cycle
D) treat otitis externa

A

treat otitis externa

892
Q

Which hormone may be used to assist in the diagnosis of Cushing’s disease?

893
Q

What is the active ingredient in Strongid, which is often used for deworming?

A

pyrantel pamoate

894
Q

Blood work is recommended during treatment with amphotericin B because it has a strong potential to damage what?

895
Q

T/F. Antiseptics are used to kill microorganisms on animals.

896
Q

Dermatophytes are?

897
Q

T/F. A veterinary feed directive is required when administering antibiotics to livestock via feed.

898
Q

Which of the following is the best description of a pheromone?

A) a hormone used to treat blindness
B) a hormone with a positive feedback loop
C) a synthetic hormone that increases milk production in dairy cattle
D) volatile chemicals that affect behavior in other animals

A

volatile chemicals that affect behavior in other animals

899
Q

Tresaderm is put directly into the ear canal to treat what?

900
Q

Selamectin is the active ingredient in which spot-on medication?

A

Revolution

901
Q

Permethrin is not safe for which animals?

902
Q

Which medication is commonly used to treat giardia?

A

metronidazole

903
Q

Clavamox is a brand of amoxicillin and clavulonic acid. It is significant because?

A

the combination increases the spectrum of activity

904
Q

Which of the following is a topical antibiotic commonly found in OTC ointment?

A) cephalosporin
B) polymyxin
C) streptomycin
D) tilmycosin

905
Q

Which species should not receive Chloramphenicol?

906
Q

The radioactive isotope of which element is used to treat hyperthyroidism?

907
Q

Which of the following is false.

A) insulin should be stored in the refrigerator
B) special syringes are used to administer insulin
C) too much insulin can cause dangerously low blood sugar
D) you must shake the bottle of insulin well, before administering it

A

you must shake the bottle of insulin well before administering it

908
Q

The drug Albon used to treat coccidia contains what?

A

sulfadimethoxine

909
Q

Some collies have mutations in a multi drug resistance gene, which makes them very sensitive to toxicity from which drug?

A

ivermectin

910
Q

What drug is in Quest dewormer?

A

moxidectin

911
Q

What disinfectant is used as a gas?

A

gluteraldehyde

912
Q

What is antibiotic residue?

A

presence of an antibiotic or its netabolites in animal tissues or food products

913
Q

Which of the following is not a type of antibiotic?

A) ceftiofur
B) ketoconazole
C) streptomycin
D) trimethoprim sulfa

A

ketoconazole

914
Q

Prostaglanding F2 alpha is used to what?

A

synchronize estrous in cattle

915
Q

Which of the followin is false regarding oxytocin?

A) it has a positive feedback loop
B) it is naturally produced by the ovaries
C) it should be efrigerated
D) it stimulates uterine contractions

A

it should be refrigerted

916
Q

Mitotane is used for treatment of what?

A

Cushing’s disease

917
Q

which drug can affect the cartilage in growing dogs?

A

ampicillin

918
Q

Coccidiostats are most effective against what?

919
Q

Regular insulin has what duration of action in animals?

920
Q

Which of the following is an antibiotic?

A) acyclovir
B) levamisole
C) piperazine
D) tylosin

921
Q

Which drug is used to treat tapeworms in cats?

A

Praziquantel

922
Q

Milbemycin is the active ingredient in Sentinel, which is used for which disease?

923
Q

Which of the following drugs may be used to treat Lyme disease?

A) amoxicillin
B) doxycycline
C) florfenicol
D) ivermectin

A

amoxicillin

924
Q

Amprolium (Corid) is used to treat which poutry disease?

925
Q

Which of the following would likely NOT be used to treat flea infestations?

A) fipronil
B) griseofulvin
C) inidaclopride
D) lufenuron

A

griseofulvin

926
Q

The amino acid, Lysine, has been documented in some studies to be beneficial in treating which infection?

927
Q

Otomax would be contraindicated in what patient?

A

patient with reuptured ear drum

928
Q

A cat is diagnosed with glaucoma. Which of these drugs could make the condition worse?

A) acetazolamide
B) pilocarpine
C) tetracaine
D) tropicamide

A

tetracaine

929
Q

A dog is diagnosed with having a corneal ulcer. Which of the following could make it worse?

A) beta blocker
B) diuretic
C) miotic
D) steroid

930
Q

Which drug is used for treating KCS?

A) albendazole
B) cyclosporine
C) glucosamine
D) lufenuron

A

cyclosporine

Exits (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions