Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common erythrocyte disorder?

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are two basic causes of anemia?

A

loss from body and destruction in body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes destruction the the body of RBCs?

A

hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some tests to detect anemia?

A

PCV, Hb, RBC morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is regenerative anemia?

A

the bone marrow is normal and the blood loss is from external/internal trauma, destruction of RBCs in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is hemorrhagic anemia?

A

acute or chronic blood loss from various causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is non-regenerative anemia?

A

decreased production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is iron deficiency anemia?

A

a nutritional deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which instrument requires EDTA?

A

HM5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which instrument helps evaluate organ function?

A

VetScan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which instrument can utilize a serum sample?

A

VetScan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which instrument counts cells?

A

HM5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which instrument requires that the technician runs a “blank” each morning?

A

HM5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hematology is the study of __.

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the “formed” elements of blood?

A

leukocytes, erythrocytes, thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The fluid portion of “whole blood” is called what?

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A platelet or thrombocyte is a fragment of what?

A

megakaryocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The specific function of the erythrocyte is to what?

A

carry oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The fluid portion of clotted blood is?

A

serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An anticoagulant is a chemical that what?

A

prevents clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Blood collected from an animal that has not been “fasted” may result in a sample that is what?

A

lipemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F. One function of blood is to help regulate body temperature.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A common type of blood film uses a technique that ___ blood across the base slide?

A

pushes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The must useful blood films are those that:

A. use freshest blood
B. use clean glass slides
C. heavy rouleaux
D. have adequate monolayer

A

A, B, D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Blood films are stained to?

A

assist with identification of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the procedure of the blood film staining technique?

A

fix, eosin stain, basic stain, rinse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Anisocytosis is a term used to describe erythrocytes that are of?

A

variable sizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The formation of blood begins in the ____ of most adult mammals?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

To properly examine and identify blood cells, use the ___ objective on your microscope.

A

100x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The avian leukocyte most often encountered on a blood film is the “_____”, which is very similar in function to the mammalian neutrophil.

A

heterophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Avian blood is very ____.

A

fragile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

From the choices, select the TWO avian leukocytes that may be easily confused with one another.

A) eosinophil
B) basophil
C) neutrophil
D) heterophil

A

heterophil and basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The erythrocytes of both avian and reptilian species are _____.

A

nucleated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Any agent that elicits an animal’s immune response is called what?

A

an antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Select the two fluid systems that are included in the discussion of the immune system of the body.

A) blood
B) mucus
C) urine
D) lymph

A

need to look up answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

This cell functions to attract, adhere to, engulf and ingest a foreign body.

A

phagocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Wandering macrophages make their way from place to place by this method.

A

diapedesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Azurophils are leukocytes that fight against bacteria in the ____.

A

reptile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A reticulocyte count will help the veterinarian to determine what?

A

regenerative anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A substance that elicits an immune response is called a/an?

A

antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

This cell engulfs and ingests foreign bodies.

A

macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

T cell production is a function of the what?

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F. The major function of the lymphocyte B cells to produce antibodies.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Select the two fundamental adaptive mechanisms within the immune system.

A) cell mediated
B) humoral
C) vaccination
D) immunoglobulin administration

A

need to look up answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

T/F. The HM5 does not provide a result for Hb, therefore we use the Hemoglobinometer.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T/F. The HM5 does not provide a result for TP.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The value for a total leukocyte count is indicated in ___ per mm3, while a value for a total erythrocyte count is indicated in ___ per mm3.

A

thousands/millions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

T/F. Basophils are often common in some lab animal species.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A kurloff body is found in this animal species.

A

guinea pig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

T/F. Blood collected by cardiocentesis vs. tail vein in the mouse may differ in value.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Inclusion body disease is a deadly problem in this group of animals.

A

pythons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do you calculate the safe amount of blood to collect?

A

.5 ml blood/kg of body weight per week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Can you freeze whole blood?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the leukocytes overall function?

A

to provide defense against disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the types of granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the types of agranulocytes?

A

monocytes, lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Where are leukocytes formed?

A

red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What WBC kills bacteria and cleans up dead tissue?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What happens with a neutrophil is full?

A

it self-destructs, and is carried away in lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How long do neutrophils last in circulation?

A

~10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When do you see an increase in neutrophils?

A

increase in stress, inflammation, increase in epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What color do eosinophil granules stain?

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the lifespan of a eosinophil?

A

less than 20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is there an increase of eosinophil with?

A

parasites and allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which WBC is rare in most species?

A

basophile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which WBC contains and produces heparin?

A

basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Basophils are more common in ___ horses.

A

grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are four main causes of of quantitative changes?

A

inflammation, stress/steroids, exercise/epinephrine, leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Left shift = more ____ neutrophils

A

band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Right shift = more ____ neutrophils

A

segmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What do toxic neutrophils suggest the presence of?

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is a ommon cause of neutrophilia with a right shift/

A

stress/steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Why don’t you expect to see a left shift with steroids?

A

steroids decrease emigration of neutrophils from the vascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Monocytosis is expected during diseases that are likely to have what?

A

a high need for macrophages like (malignant tumors, hemorrhagic or immune-mediated diseases or chronic diseases like tuberculosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What do reactive lymphocytes look like?

A

dark basophilic cytoplasm, larger size or irregular shaped nucleus may be observed but are not diagnostic of a specific problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How do eosinophils kill parasites?

A

by attaching to them and forming a digestive vacuole between the eo and the parasite where

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where are RBCs produced?

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is anisocytosis common in?

A

cattle and young animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is a Howell-Jolly body?

A

remnant of nuclear material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a Heinz body?

A

indicate an oxidative injury to the red cells hemoglobin and are usually associated with anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What causes Feline Infectious Anemia?

A

Micoplasma haemofelis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Feline Infectious Peritonitis has marked what?

A

lymphopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Feline Infectious Peritonitis has anemia in 40% of the cases due to what?

A

bone marrow depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What does ethylene glycol poisoning do to the kidneys?

A

solidifies them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are 3 major factors of clotting?

A

vascular factors, thrombocytes, clotting mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

small cytoplasmic fragments from megakaryocytes found in circulating blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Thrombocytes has a role in what?

A

aggregating to form a hemostatic plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How many factors are involved in the clotting mechanism?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is DIC?

A

condition in which small blood clots develop throughout the bloodstream, blocking small blood vessels and depleting circulating thrombocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are schistocytes?

A

erythrocyte fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What does DIC stand for?

A

disseminated vascular coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Schistocytes show up in what kind of anemia?

A

iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Cats have a _______ colored basophil.

A

lighter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the most encountered leukocyte in avains?

A

heterophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the most encountered leukocytes in reptiles?

A

heterophil and azurophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

T/F. Is avian/reptile blood fragile?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Is blood loss to birds critical?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Is blood loss to reptiles critical?

A

not up to 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What do avian erythrocytes look like?

A

oval cell with nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What color is the cytoplasm of avian erythrocytes?

A

light orange/pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What color are heterophils?

A

brick-red to orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Basophils may make up what percentage on a differential in avians?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What color is the cytoplasm in the monocyte in avians?

A

gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Cytoplasm may be 50% larger than nucleus in the monocyte of which species?

A

avian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

If reptiles have inclusion body disease, what happens?

A

can’t sustain life, lots of neurological issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Define antigen.

A

any substance that elicits an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the antigen-specific part of the immune system?

A

to recognize and act against particular antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the two main fluid systems?

A

blood and lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does lymph look like?

A

alkaline fluid, clear, transparent

110
Q

What does the lymph system flow from?

A

the interstitial fluid through lymphatic vessels

111
Q

What does the lymph system carry?

A

lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins

112
Q

What do lymph nodes serve as?

A

filters of lymphatic fluid and where antigen is usually presented to the immune system

113
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

a cell that attracts, adheres to, engulfs and digests foreign bodies

114
Q

What are APCs?

A

antigen presenting cells

115
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A

to produce mature T cells

116
Q

What is the immunologic filter of the blood?

A

spleen

117
Q

Where are B cells activated and produce large amounts of antibodies?

A

spleen

118
Q

What is the major function of lymphocyte B-cells?

A

to produce antibodies

119
Q

What are specialized proteins that specifically recognize and bind to one particular antigen?

A

lymphocyte b-cells

120
Q

What are dendritic cells covered with?

A

a maze of membranous processes that look like nerve cell dendrites

121
Q

What are highly efficient antigen presenting cells?

A

dendritic cells

122
Q

What are 2 adaptive mechanisms?

A

cell-mediated immunity, humoral immunity

123
Q

Which adaptive mechanisms sensitizes T cells to recognize antigens?

A

cell mediated

124
Q

What is the goal of vaccines?

A

to promote a primary immune reaction so that when the organism is again exposed, leads to a much stronger secondary immune response will be elicited

125
Q

What technique is used with a blood film?

A

push technique

126
Q

Greyhounds have grey what?

A

eosinophils

127
Q

What animal has eosinophils with rod-shaped granules?

A

cats

128
Q

What animal is notorious for big thrombocytes?

A

cats

129
Q

Define erythrocyte.

A

red blood cell that transports oxygen, contains hemoglobin

130
Q

Define reticulocyte.

A

an immature red blood cell

131
Q

Define leukocyte.

A

white blood cell

132
Q

Define hemopoiesis.

A

the formation of blood, particularly the cells

133
Q

Define plasma.

A

the fluid portion of whole blood

134
Q

Define serum.

A

plasma without the clotting factors

135
Q

Function of platelets.

A

stop leakage of blood

136
Q

What is a hemocytometer?

A

a precision instrument used for counting cells

137
Q

penia = ______ numbers

A

decreased

138
Q

philia = ______ numbers

A

increased

139
Q

Hematology is the study of _____.

A

blood

140
Q

The “formed” elements of blood are: (choose all that apply)

A) leukocytes
B) erythrocytes
C) thrombocytes
D) plasma
E) serium
A

leukocytes, erythrocytes, thrombocytes

141
Q

The fluid portion of “whole blood” is called:

A

plasma

142
Q

A platelet or thrombocyte is a fragment of a:

A

megakaryocyte

143
Q

The specific function of the erythrocyte is to:

A

carry oxygen

144
Q

The fluid portion of clotted blood is:

A

serum

145
Q

An anticoagulant is a chemical that:

A

prevents clotting

146
Q

Blood collection from an animal that has not been “fasted”, may result in a sample that is:

A

lipemic

147
Q

T/F. One function of blood is to help regulate body temperature.

A

true

148
Q

A common type of blood film uses a technique that ____ blood across the base slide.

A

pushes

149
Q

The most useful blood films are those that:

A) use freshest blood
B) use clean glass slides
C) heavy rouleaux
D) have adequate monolayer

A

use freshest blood, use clean glass slides, have adequate monolayer

150
Q

Blood films are stained to:

A

assist with identification of cells

151
Q

The blood film staining technique follows this procedure:

A

fix, eosin stain, basic stain, rinse

152
Q

T/F. One the blood film has completed the staining process it cannot be altered or adjusted.

A

false

153
Q

Hemolysis of a blood sample means that:

A

the red cells are broken

154
Q

The site of choice for blood collection from the cat is:

A

jugular vein

155
Q

Anisocytosis is a term used to describe erythrocytes that:

A

are of variable sizes

156
Q

Fido, the dog, is coming to the clinic for a HWT and pre-AX work up. He weighs 63 lbs. How much can we take this week?

A

14cc

157
Q

The erythrocyte of the domestic dog is described as:

A

biconcave

158
Q

To say that a blood sample shows “neutrophilia” means:

A

the neutrophils are increased in number

159
Q

Of the choices listed, which is the best anticoagulant for transfusion?

A) heparin
B) edta
C) sodium nitrate
D) ACD

A

ACD

160
Q

The use of a wet syringe for blood collection will most certainly result in:

A

hemolysis

161
Q

All blood cell types originate from:

A

stem cells

162
Q

The formation of blood begins in the ____ of most adult mammals.

A

bone marrow

163
Q

Which cell type is considered to be the bloods first line of defense?

A

neutrophil

164
Q

When we describe blood cell morphology, we are speaking of:

A) size
B) shape
C) contents
D) function

A

size, shape, contents

165
Q

Red blood cells take their color from the presence of ____.

A

hemoglobin

166
Q

T/F. An animal’s mental attitude may influence blood test results.

A

true

167
Q

Prior to making a blood film, it is important too: (circle all that apply)

A) shake the blood tube to mix it well
B) spin the blood tube to collect the cells
C) gently rock the tube to mix
D) check the color of the plasma before mixing

A

gently rock the tube to mix, check the color of the plasma before mixing

168
Q

To properly examine and identify blood cells, use the ____ objective on your microscope.

A

100X

169
Q

If blood films are allowed to dry too slowly the result may be:

A

crenated RBCs

170
Q

Thrombocytes initiate the ____ and activate ____. (circle all that apply)

A) clotting cascade
B) vasoconstriction
C) clot retraction
D) heparin release

A

clotting cascade and vasoconstriction

171
Q

When collecting blood from NCTA kennel animals, it is important to: (circle all that apply)

A) weight animal
B) check animal’s chart for other collections
C) calculate safe amount to collect
D) keep animal calm

A

all of them

172
Q

This white blood cell contains granules in the cytoplasm that take up neither the eosin stain nor the basic stain.

A

neutrophil

173
Q

White blood cells are divided into these two major groups.

A

agranulocytes/granulocytes

174
Q

This white blood cell contains granules in the cytoplasm that take up the basic stain.

A

basophil

175
Q

This white blood cell works against parasites and may also be found in increased numbers with allergic reactions.

A

eosinphil

176
Q

The “raspberry” cell is a ____ and found in the ____.

A

eosinophil/horse

177
Q

The results of a relative count on a differential examination, should be labeled as:

A

percentage

178
Q

This white blood cell produces heparin.

A

basophil

179
Q

The largest normal white cell type found in periferal blood is the:

A

monocyte

180
Q

Cytoplasmic “vacuoles” may help identify what cell?

A

monocyte

181
Q

A green top collection tube contains:

A

heparin

182
Q

A “tiger top” tube is designed for collection of blood to obtain a ____ sample.

A

serum

183
Q

The red cell formation described as a “stack of coins” is called:

A

rouleaux

184
Q

A red top blood collection tube contains:

A

nothing

185
Q

This cell functions as a part of the body’s long term immune system.

A

lymphocyte

186
Q

A “hypersegmented” neutrophil is:

A

older

187
Q

This white blood cell has a large solid nucleus, cytoplasm that is easily molded and may be described as amoeboid.

A

lymphocyte

188
Q

The most distinctive white blood cell in equine blood is:

A

eosinophil

189
Q

The approximate lifespan of a lymphocyte is:

A

years

190
Q

This large white blood cell may be found in increased numbers with chronic conditions or necrotic tissue.

A

look up answer

191
Q

T/F. Whole blood samples may be stored frozen for long periods of time and still give useful results.

A

false

192
Q

T/F. A platelet evaluation can be done by the HM5.

A

true

193
Q

The HM5 requires what sample?

A

whole blood, EDTA

194
Q

T/F. Thrombocytes have a large dark nucleus and pale blue cytoplasm.

A

flase

195
Q

Salem, a cat, weights 5.3 kg. Approximately how much blood can be safely collected from him this week?

A

2 cc

196
Q

The “flow chart” is used to follow the individual animal’s hemogram for:

A) anesthesia
B) nursing
C) surgery
D) all of the above

A

all of the above

197
Q

T/F. The validity and usefulness of laboratory results can be influenced by many factors that should be understood by the technician so that they may be eliminated or minimized as much as possible

A

true

198
Q

T/F. Blood is a type of connective tissue.

A

true

199
Q

The “buffy” coat layer of the PCV is composed of;

A) serum
B) plasma
C) white blood cells
D) platelets

A

white blood cells, platelets

200
Q

A canine patient has a recorded PCV of 11%. Is this within the normal range?

A

no

201
Q

The size (gauge) and length of needle used to collect blood may vary, by should not be smaller than ____.

A

25 g

202
Q

An animal with a PCV about the normal value, may be:

A

dehydrated

203
Q

From you lap experiences counting a differential “relative” value, an eosinophil result of 15%, would be:

A

above the normal dog value

204
Q

The PCV results are recorded as:

A

a percentage

205
Q
The flow chart includes which of the following categories?
A) CBC and blood chemistries
B) fecal examination and EKG
C) urinalysis
D) all of the above
A

all of the above

206
Q

The element that makes it possible for the red blood cell to transport oxygen is:

A

Hb

207
Q

T/F. The technician should always note the visual characteristics of the plasma, and include the description on the lap report.

A

true

208
Q

The nucleus of a “band” neutrophil has:

A

parallel sides and rounded ends

209
Q

Hemoglobin evaluations give information about the status of this cell.

A

erythrocyte

210
Q

In most domestic animals, the normal “relative’ value of basophils is:

A

0

211
Q

A PCV test is useful in determining the % of ____ in a volume of blood.

A

erythrocytes

212
Q

This anticoagulant may create artifacts when the blood sample is used for a differential count.

A

heparin

213
Q

T/F. Refrigerated whole blood samples from the equine should be warmed to room temperature prior to making a blood film.

A

true

214
Q

A blood sample that has been collected to harvest serum, should be: (circle all that apply)

A) allowed to stand at room temp for approx. 30 minutes
B) be frozen prior to centrifugation
C) should be centrifuged prior to separation
D) can be frozen once separated

A

A, C, D

215
Q

before using the HM5 to run samples for the day, the technician should;

A

run a blank

216
Q

T/F. The HM5 does not count platelets.

A

false

217
Q

T/F. Lipemia may give inaccurate, increased results on some blood tests.

A

true

218
Q

T/F. The instrument used to obtain blood chemistries is the:

A

Vet Scan

219
Q

The appropriate size EDTA tube to choose for blood collection from a 5.5 lb cat would hold no more than ____ of whole blood.

A

2 ml

220
Q

In the normal maturation process of red blood cells, early cells are usually ____ and become progressively ____ as they mature.

A

larger / smaller

221
Q

______ is the abnormal clumping of erythrocytes, but ____ describes red cell formation.

A

hemagglutination / rouleaux

222
Q

The instrument used to perform the total protein test is called __________.

A

a refractometer

223
Q

Increases in the number of monocytes are expected during the course of a diseases that are likely to have a high need for ____.

A

macrophages

224
Q

Reticulocytes are:

A

immature RBCs

225
Q

Temporary leukocytosis during exercise or stress is common in _____ patients.

A) feline
B) ovine
C) porcine
D) all

A

all

226
Q

Hemolytic anemia refers to erythrocytes that are:

A

being destroyed

227
Q

Non-regenerative anemia is sometimes due to:

A

iron deficienc

228
Q

Anisocytosis of the ___ cell is common in ____.

A

red / cattle

229
Q

Red blood cells that are macrocytic may be due to the presence of:

A

reticulocytes

230
Q

Is this regenerative or non-regenerative anemia?

iron deficienc

A

non-regenerative

231
Q

Is this regenerative or non-regenerative anemia?

blood parasites

A

regenerative

232
Q

Is this regenerative or non-regenerative anemia?

hemolysis

A

regenerative

233
Q

Is this regenerative or non-regenerative anemia?

reticulocytes

A

regenerative

234
Q

Is this regenerative or non-regenerative anemia?

bone marrow defects

A

non-regenerative

235
Q

Is this regenerative or non-regenerative anemia?

poisonous plants

A

regenerative

236
Q

Equine blood is noted for _____. (circle all that apply).

A) RBC size
B) rouleaux
C) eosinophil
D) anisocytosis

A

rouleaux and eosinophil

237
Q

Goat blood is noted for _______. (circle all that apply).

A) RBC size
B) rouleaux
C) eosinophil
D) anisocytosis

A

RBC size

238
Q

Bovine blood is noted for _______. (circle all that apply).

A) RBC size
B) rouleaux
C) eosinophil
D) anisocytosis

A

anisocytosis

239
Q

Cat blood is noted for _______. (circle all that apply).

A) crenation
B) nrbcs
C) emotional leukocytosis
D) eos with rod-shaped granules

A

emotional leukocytosis, eos with rod-shaped granules

240
Q

An abundance of hyper-segmented neutrophils on a differential count indicates:

A

right shift / old segs

241
Q

Polychromasia usually refers to the overall picture of:

A

red blood cells

242
Q

A “clown nose” on an RBC is called:

A

a heinz body

243
Q

The term “anisocytosis” refers to:

A

a variation in size of RBCs on a differential slide

244
Q

In which domestic animal is a low platelet count considered normal?

A

horse

245
Q

What condition might be indicated by a PCV result lower than normal?

A

anemia

246
Q

Which of the following can be used to determine total protein from an EDTA tube?

A) plasma
B) RBCs
C) whole blood
D) serum

A

plasma

247
Q

What setting on the centrifuge is used to run a PC?

A

MCHT

248
Q

The immature RBC of a mammal contains:

A

a nucleus

249
Q

The formation of blood is called __.

A

hemopoiesis

250
Q

Anemias are classified by: (circle all that apply)

A) RBC size
B) hemoglobin concentration
C) bone marrow response
D) none of these

A

A, B, C

251
Q

Neutrophils are able to enter tissues quickly by a process called _______.

A

diapedesis

252
Q

Serum is the fluid portion of _____ blood.

A

clotted

253
Q

Eosinophilia would describe a condition where:

A

eosinophils are increased in numbers

254
Q

The marginal ear vein is a common blood collection site in the _____.

A

rabbit

255
Q

The blood collection tube with the green stopper contains _________.

A

heparin

256
Q

T/F. A heparin tube can be used for blood transfusion.

A

false

257
Q

In the developmental stages of erythrocytes in hematopoisis, the younger the cells are _____ and the mature cells are _________.

A

nucleated/non-nucleated

258
Q

Hemostasis depends on these: (circle what applies)

A) thrombocytes
B) vascular system
C) hemoglobin
D) clotting factors

A

A, B, D

259
Q

Alaskan Malamutes with hereditary hemolytic anemia may show ____ morphology of the red cell.

A

stomatocyte

260
Q

The feline has ___ shaped granules in the cytoplasm of the eosinophil.

A

rod

261
Q

_____ of the red blood cell is common when examining pig blood.

A

crenaton

262
Q

T/F. There will be blood value differences between the hot-blooded and the cold-blooded horse.

A

true

263
Q

In the horse, there should be no ______ found upon differential examination.

A

reticulocytes

264
Q

An animal suffering from malnutrition will likely show a ___ total protein value.

A

low

265
Q

To help locate the scale that should be read for a total protein value, you should look for the number ___ on the scale.

A

7

266
Q

This anticoagulant may create artifacts when the blood sample is used for a differential count.

A

heparin

267
Q

What nutitional problem might decrease bone marrow production of erythrocytes?

A

low iron

268
Q

Leukocytes are ___ until called to duty.

A

non-functional

269
Q

A platelet estimation is based on ____.

A

the average number of platelets in 10 FOV

270
Q

____ help defend the body against pathogens and remove toxins, wastes, and abnormal or damaged cell

A

leukocytes

271
Q

Heinz bodies are round, protruding structures on the erythrocyte representing ____.

A

denatured hemoglobin

272
Q

A hemoglobin concentration should be recorded as ____.

A

grams/deciliter