Clinical Pathology

Question 1

More than ___ of the glomeruli of both kidneys must be non-functional before serum chemistry changes occur.

Answer 1

70%

Question 2

What is creatinine?

Answer 2

byproduct of muscle metabolism, and filtered out almost entirely by glomeruli

Question 3

When do you see an increase of creatinine?

Answer 3

with a lock of functional glomeruli in the kidneys

Question 4

What does BUN stand for?

Answer 4

blood urea nitrogen

Question 5

What is BUN?

Answer 5

end product of protein metabolism

Question 6

BUN is excreted primarily by what?

Answer 6

kidneys

Question 7

What does serum amylase do?

Answer 7

breaks down starches and glycogen

Question 8

What does serum lipase do?

Answer 8

breaks down long chain of fatty acids

Question 9

What can an increase in bilirubin cause?

Answer 9

jaundice

Question 10

What is ALT?

Answer 10

liver cells breaking down (alanine amino transferase)

Question 11

What is AP?

Answer 11

alkaline phosphatase, cancer/liver in dog

Question 12

Urine is ___ water.

Answer 12

95%

Question 13

If you want to preserve urine, it’s _ drop of ___ formalin in 1 oz urine.

Answer 13

1, 40%

Question 14

What is the function of the kidney?

A) filtration and elimination of metabolic waste
B) regulation of water and electrolyte balance
C) conservation of nutrients such as glucose and amino acids
D) all of the above

Answer 14

all of the above

Question 15

Glycosuria usually is a sign of which kidney disease?

Answer 15

diabetes mellitus

Question 16

What cells are seen in higher quantities when urine is collected through a catheter?

Answer 16

epithelial transitional

Question 17

Which of the following crystals tend to be found in acidic urine?

A) amorphous urates
B) calcium oxalates
C) struvite
D) calcium carbonate

Answer 17

amorphous urates and calcium oxalates

Question 18

Why is normal fresh equine urine cloudy?

Answer 18

mucus and calcium carbonate cyrstals

Question 19

What do virulence factors help bacteria to do?

Answer 19

invade the host, cause disease, evade host defenses

Question 20

What are invasion factors?

Answer 20

surface components that allow the bacterium to invade host cells can be encoded on plasmids

Question 21

What are siderophores?

Answer 21

iron-binding factors that allow some bacteria to compete with the host for iron

Question 22

Define bacteriology.

Answer 22

the study of bacteria

Question 23

Define virology.

Answer 23

the study of non-cellular organisms called viruses

Question 24

Mycology.

Answer 24

the study of fungi

Question 25

Define protozoology.

Answer 25

the study of protozoa

Question 26

Define algology.

Answer 26

the study of algae

Question 27

Where do heterotrophics obtain energy from?

Answer 27

an organic source

Question 28

Where do autotrophs get energy from?

Answer 28

an inorganic source

Question 29

What is the most common source of energy for bacteria?

Answer 29

glucose

Question 30

Most bacteria require about _____ moisture in the medium to grow.7-10%

Answer 30

7-10%

Question 31

Lipids are only utilized by a few what?

Answer 31

bacteria

Question 32

Microaerophilic.

Answer 32

grow best at O2 levels less than air

Question 33

What is the optimum pH for most pathogenic bacteria?

Answer 33

6.5-7.5

Question 34

How do bacteria reproduce?

Answer 34

binary fission

Question 35

Of the epithelial cells that may be present in urine sediment, which is the smallest?

Answer 35

renal

Question 36

This crystal is most likely to be found in alkaline urine. A) uric acid B) cystine C) leucine D) triple phosphate

Answer 36

triple phosphate

Question 37

Casts found upon urinalysis are formed in the ___.

Answer 37

renal tubules

Question 38

Uroliths or calculi are composed of various ____.

Answer 38

minerals

Question 39

Creatine is a byproduct of:

Answer 39

muscle metabolism

Question 40

T/F. Some chemistry results may be altered by hemolysis.

Answer 40

true

Question 41

Once the Abaxis "rotors" have been removed from the foil packets they must be used within the next ____.

Answer 41

15 minutes

Question 42

Upon testing, the dog's PCV was found to be below normal value. This would indicate a deficit in the ____.

Answer 42

red cell volume

Question 43

Red cell parasites would commonly contribute to a condition of _______ anemia.

Answer 43

regenerative

Question 44

T/F. Blood coagulation is a relatively simple process. As long as platelets are available in normal values, the animal's blood will clot in a timely manner.

Answer 44

false

Question 45

T/F. A lipemic serum sample may falsely lower some test results.

Answer 45

true

Question 46

ALT or AST. If you could only run one test for determining liver function, which would be most helpful?

Answer 46

ALT

Question 47

Blood cell "indices" are useful calculations in situations of ____.

Answer 47

anemia

Question 48

A ____ count is helpful when assessing bone marrow response for erythrocyte production.

Answer 48

reticulocyte

Question 49

When a blood urea nitrogen test is ordered, the veterinarian wants to evaluate ____ function.

Answer 49

kidney

Question 50

A sweet or fruity odor associated with a urine sample might indicate ____.

Answer 50

ketones

Question 51

The specific gravity of polyuric animals tends to be ___.

Answer 51

low

Question 52

An animal that is polyuric and polydipsic may have this disease.

Answer 52

diabetes

Question 53

Hepatic disease or bile duct obstruction may elevate _____ levels.

Answer 53

bilirubin

Question 54

Small numbers of _______ cells are normally present in voided urine.

Answer 54

transitional

Question 55

What is the normal range for urine pH in a canine?

Answer 55

5.5-7.5

Question 56

T/F. PT results using the VSPro give value to the intrinsic elements of coagulation.

Answer 56

false

Question 57

Oil droplets found upon microscopic examination of urine may be due to ___.

Answer 57

a lubricated catheter

Question 58

During which stage of the estrus cycle of the bitch is the owner most likely to detect the dog is in heat?

Answer 58

proestrust

Question 59

This leukocyte may be elevated in number when an animal has parasites.

Answer 59

eosinophil

Question 60

This leukocyte may be elevated in number with a chronic condition like TB.

Answer 60

monocyte

Question 61

This leukocyte may be elevated in number with inflammation or infection.

Answer 61

neutrophil

Question 62

The high dry objective on our microscopes have a total magnification of ___X normal size.

Answer 62

400

Question 63

To grade as "very good" a bull must meet the criteria of no more than ____ primary abnormalties.

Answer 63

10

Question 64

Sperm morphology considered abnormalities of the ___ as primary. A) head B) midpiece C) tail D) all of the above

Answer 64

all of the above

Question 65

T/F. Bull sperm morphology must be evaluated on 10X.

Answer 65

false

Question 66

T/F. The "InPouch TF" test is specific for T. foetus in cattle.

Answer 66

false

Question 67

T/F. "Trich" is a reportable disease.

Answer 67

true

Question 68

Why is testing of bulls greater than 4 years of age more difficult?

Answer 68

organisms harbored in penile crypts