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Exits > Nursing > Flashcards

Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

What does SOAP stand for?

A

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan

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2
Q

What does HEAP stand for?

A

History, Examination results, Assessment, Plan

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3
Q

Is a record a legal document?

A

yes

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4
Q

How can obtaining accurate patient history/information be a challenge?

A

owner reluctance to talk/too talkative, distracted by worry for pet, children, companion, cell phone, person presenting animal may not be the owner

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5
Q

Why should you follow a consistent order when taking a patient’s history?

A

to ensure that nothing is missed/overlooked

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6
Q

What is the dose of a drug?

A

the amount of drug administered at one time to achieve the desired effect

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7
Q

What is the dosage of the drug?

A

the amount of drug per animal species’ body weight or measure

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8
Q

What is dosage interval?

A

how frequently the dosage is given

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9
Q

What is dosage regimen?

A

dosage internal and the dosage together

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10
Q

What is the basic unit of weight measurement in the apocethary system?

A

grain

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11
Q

What are the two sides of a stethoscope?

A

diaphragm and bell

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12
Q

Explain the diaphragm side of a stethoscope.

A

flat side, high frequency sounds, used most often, appropriate for lungs and heart

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13
Q

Explain the bell side of a stethoscope.

A

cupped, low frequency sounds, not commonly used, may enhance certain cardiac sounds

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14
Q

T or F. All stethoscopes have a bell side and diaphragm side.

A

False

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15
Q

What does CRT reflect?

A

cardiac output

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16
Q

What does a complete ocular exam require?

A

specialized ophthalmic equipment

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17
Q

What internal eye structures can be examined without specialized equipment?

A

eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, sclera, iris, pupil, lens, anterior chamber

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18
Q

T or F. The nictitating membrane (3rd eyelid) is usually not visible or only partially visible.

A

true

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19
Q

If you have a #3 Bard Parker handle, which size blade is most common to use?

A

10

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20
Q

If you have a #3 Bard Parker handle, which size blades can be used?

A

10, 11, 12, 15

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21
Q

If you have a #4 Bard Parker handle, which size blade is most common to use?

A

20

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22
Q

If you have a #3 Bard Parker handle, which size blades can be used?

A

20, 21, 22, 23, 25

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23
Q

What do operating scissors look like?

A

flat upper surface of blades

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24
Q

What are operating scissors used for?

A

suture, all purpose, tough tissue

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25
Q

What do mayo scissors look like?

A

blunt ends, heavy blade, triangular cross-section to blade

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26
Q

What are mayo scissors used for?

A

all purpose, suture, tough tissue

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27
Q

What do metzenbaum scissors look like?

A

long blades with rounded surface, blunt ends

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28
Q

What are metzenbaum scissors used for?

A

delicate tissues

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29
Q

What scissors can be B/B, B/S, or S/S?

A

operating

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30
Q

What scissors can only be S/S?

A

iris

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31
Q

What do iris scissors look like?

A

small, s/s tips

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32
Q

What are iris scissors used for?

A

ophthalmic work, biopsies

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33
Q

What are utility scissors used for?

A

all purpose, cut drapes

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34
Q

What are bandage scissors used for?

A

to remove bandages and other dressings

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35
Q

What kind of scissors are used to remove bandages and other dressings?

A

bandage scissors

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36
Q

What type of bandage scissors have finer blades and straight tines allow placement beneath tightly fitting bandages?

A

Knowles Bandage Scissors

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37
Q

What do wire cutting scissors do?

A

cut wire suture

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38
Q

What type of scissors cut wire suture?

A

wire cutting scissors

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39
Q

What are Littauer stitch scissors used for?

A

removing sutures in large animals

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40
Q

What type of stitch/suture scissors are used for removing sutures in large animals?

A

Littauer stitch scissors

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41
Q

What are Spencer stitch scissors used for?

A

removing sutures in small animals

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42
Q

What type of stitch/suture scissors are used for removing sutures in small animals?

A

Spencer stitch scissors

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43
Q

What are thumb forceps used for?

A

to hold and easily release tissue without damage to tissue

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44
Q

What are dressing thumb forceps used for?

A

to apply and remove dressing

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45
Q

What do Brown-Adson thumb (tissue) forceps look like?

A

“hour glass” shape handle, alligator teeth tip

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46
Q

What tissue forceps have an hour glass shape handle and alligator teeth tip?

A

Brown-Adson

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47
Q

What do Adson thumb (tissue) forceps look like?

A

“hour glass” shape handle, rat teeth tip

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48
Q

What tissue forceps have an hour glass shape handle and rat teeth tip?

A

Adson

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49
Q

What do rat tooth thumb (tissue) forceps look like?

A

long, thin handle, rat teeth at tip

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50
Q

What tissue forceps have a long, thin handle with rat teeth at tip?

A

rat tooth

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51
Q

What do DeBakey thumb (tissue) forceps look like?

A

long jaws with delicate teeth for reaching and handling vessels in vascular surgery

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52
Q

Do Young-Tongue holding forceps have a curve to the jaws?

A

yes

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53
Q

Why should you never lock doyen intestinal tissue forceps beyond the 1st ratchet?

A

can necrose intestinal tissue

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54
Q

What are hemostatic foreceps used for?

A

to clamp, crush, and hold blood vessels with a self-locking mechanism

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55
Q

What type of towel clamp has a metal bead or “ball stop” attached to the jaws?

A

Roeder towel clamps

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56
Q

What do periosteal elevators do?

A

pry periosteum or muscle from bone surface

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57
Q

What do curettes do?

A

retrieve cancellous bone from medullary cavity to use in bone grafts often used during fracture repair

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58
Q

What are hemostatic forceps used for?

A

to clamp, crush, and hold blood vessels with a self-locking mechanism

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59
Q

What are ferguson angiotribes used for?

A

crushing large masses of tissue

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60
Q

What kind of towel clamp looks like thumb forceps?

A

jones towel clamp

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61
Q

What is the snook spay hook used for?

A

to expose the horn of the uterus during a spay

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62
Q

A Hohmann retractor is used almost exclusively in what kind of surgery?

A

orthopedic surgery

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63
Q

What is the Frazier retractor designed to be used in?

A

spinal laminectomies

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64
Q

What do bone-holding forceps do?

A

hold bone and bone fragments in alignment while orthopedic implants are applied

65
Q

What are trephines used for?

A

to biopsy bone, to drill small holes in skull or sinus

66
Q

What type of metal used for orthopedic implants are the most resistant to corrosion?

A

titanium

67
Q

What type of metals are used for orthopedic implants?

A

stainless steel alloy, cobalt-chromium alloy, titanium

68
Q

What else are spoon splints called?

A

mason meta splints

69
Q

If a dog gets a total hip prosthesis, which parts are replaced?

A

both the femoral head and acetabulum

70
Q

When is an arthroscope used?

A

in horses and dogs for exam and to remove chip fragments and lesions on articular surfaces in joints, visualize sinuses in horses

71
Q

Can you deliver fluid through an arthroscope?

A

yes

72
Q

What does a groove director do?

A

protect abdominal organs from scalpel during incision

73
Q

What are contraindications of an enema?

A

acute abdomen, decreased bowel vitality

74
Q

What are usually the best solutions to use when doing an enema?

A

isotonic solutions

75
Q

What solutions can you use for an enema?

A

isotonic, hypertonic

76
Q

Why are fleet enemas popular?

A

they’re convenient

77
Q

Fleet enemas are not recommended for which patients?

A

cats and small dogs

78
Q

What do fleet enemas do?

A

phosphate is absorbed causing hypocalceia due to imbalance relative to phosphate. pulls fluid into bowel.

79
Q

Why do you want to avoid hot water when doing an enema?

A

cause bleeding and irritate colonic mucosa

80
Q

When doing an enema, how high should you suspend the bag?

A

4-5 feet

81
Q

What should you avoid doing while giving an enema?

A

rapid injection of large volumes of solution, trapping fluid in rectum, and fast flow in or overloading may cause vomiting

82
Q

When doing an ID injection, what angle do you go at?

A

15 degree

83
Q

When doing a SQ injection, what angle do you go at?

A

45 degrees

84
Q

When doing an IM injection, what angle do you go at?

A

90 degrees

85
Q

Absorption of a SQ injection is slowed in which patients?

A

obese

86
Q

When would you do an ID injection?

A

to desensitize skin with local anesthetic, to perform allergy skin testing

87
Q

If doing an IP injection with horses, what is it associated with?

A

abdominal surgery or placed standing for peritonitis

88
Q

What does RFID stand for?

A

radio frequency identification

89
Q

What can RFIDs be located in?

A

a microchip, an ear tag, a collar

90
Q

What kind of automatic identification and data capture can RFIDs have?

A

ID number, HR, temp

91
Q

What size needle is used when placing microchips?

A

12G or 14G needle

92
Q

What do microchip scanners do?

A

send out a signal, interact with the microchip, which sends back a signal that is read by the scanner

93
Q

What are 3 main reasons owners weren’t found despite an animal being microchipped?

A
  1. incorrect or disconnected phone number
  2. owner didn’t return call
  3. unregistered microchip
94
Q

Are ranch tags considered an official ID?

A

mo

95
Q

What color is the BANGS tag?

A

orange

96
Q

What color is the USDA tag?

A

silver

97
Q

What ear is the BANGS metal tag placed on?

A

right ear

98
Q

What does a BANGS tag mean?

A

female between 4-12 months was vaccinated for brucellosis

99
Q

What ear is a cow BANGS tattooed?

A

right ear

100
Q

When doing notching on hog ears, what is the right ear used for?

A

litter number

101
Q

When doing notching on hog ears, what is the left ear used for?

A

individual ID within a litter

102
Q

On a horse lip tattoo, an asterisk at the beginning means what?

A

the horse was foaled outside of North America

103
Q

Define titer.

A

measurement of antibodies in blood

104
Q

What type of vaccine is associated more with anaphylaxis?

A

bacterins

105
Q

What animals are hypersensitive to vaccines?

A

small dog breeds, white dogs, dogs with a diluted coat color, Old English sheep dogs

106
Q

What is corneal clouding also called?

A

blue eye

107
Q

If a cat has a vaccine reaction, what is the organ of reaction in the cat?

A

lung

108
Q

What happens when lungs react to a vaccine in a cat?

A

they become wet and make breathing difficult

109
Q

What breeds are more susceptible in cats to vaccine reactions?

A

Burman, siamese

110
Q

How can you avoid vaccine reactions in cats?

A

use monovalent vaccines, give one shot at a time

111
Q

What eye test should you always do first?

A

schirmer tear test

112
Q

How long do you leave the paper in the eye for the schirmer tear test?

A

one minute

113
Q

What is the normal distance that gets wet with a tear test?

A

15-25mm

114
Q

What is the fluorescein eye stain used for?

A

to test for defects in surface of corneal epithelium, test for patent nasolacrimal duct

115
Q

What do tonometers do?

A

test for intraocular pressure

116
Q

Intraaocular pressure is elevated in which disease?

A

glaucoma

117
Q

What is the normal intraocular pressure in dogs/cats?

A

10-20 mmHg

118
Q

What breeds are pre-disposed to glaucoma?

A

Cocker Spaniel, Poodle, Artic breeds, Beagle, Bassett Hound, Bouvier, Dalmatian, Shar Pei, Chow Chow

119
Q

What is an example of an applanation tonometer?

A

tonopen

120
Q

What do applanation tonometers do?

A

force to flatten or applanate the cornea

121
Q

What is an example of a rebound tonometer?

A

tonovet

122
Q

What do rebound tonometers do?

A

force at which a bead bounces off the cornia

123
Q

What is an example of an indenation tonometer?

A

Schiotz tonometer

124
Q

What can cause a faulty increased eye pressure reading?

A

increased eyelid tension, too much restraint

125
Q

Animals having trouble breathing often do what?

A

lean forward and have a wide-based stance

126
Q

What are five types of wounds?

A

abrasions, open, penetrating, pressure, surgical

127
Q

What is usually the first step in wound management?

A

control of hemorrhage

128
Q

What kind of fluids/solutions are preferred for lavage?

A

large volumes of warm, sterile, balanced electrolyte solution

129
Q

Why would you fill a wound with sterile lube?

A

to prevent clipped hairs from sticking in wound

130
Q

How do you achieve best lavage?

A

35ml syringe and 18G needle

131
Q

Wound lavage should be discontinued before the takes take on what appearance?

A

a water logged

132
Q

The bactericidal effect of povidone-iodine lasts how long?

A

4-6 hours

133
Q

Define debridement.

A

removal of devitalized or necrotic tissue

134
Q

Debridement should be performed as what kind of procedure?

A

aspetic

135
Q

Do drains obliterate dead space?

A

yes

136
Q

What is the most common type of drain?

A

penrose

137
Q

How long should drains be left in place?

A

3-5 days

138
Q

Why would you want to use radiopaque drains?

A

they’re evident on radiograph

139
Q

What is healing by first intention?

A

suturing or grafting a wound soon after injury

140
Q

What is healing by second intention?

A

healing by contraction and epithelialization (no sutures placed)

141
Q

What is healing by third intention?

A

suture after 3-5 days, take advantage of granulation tissue present

142
Q

Wounds treated within how many hours is primary closure?

A

6-8

143
Q

What are the 3 layers of bandages and what do they do?

A
  1. Primary - in contact with the wound
  2. Secondary - absorbs and cushions
  3. Tertiary - holds in place
144
Q

When doing bandaging, you work ___ to ___.

A

distal to proximal

145
Q

When bandaging, you wrap ___ to ____ as you look at the outside of the limb.

A

anterior to posterior

146
Q

T/F. All wounds are contaminated.

A

true

147
Q

What are the four phases of the healing process?

A

Phase 1 - inflammatory
Phase 2 - debridement
Phase 3 - repair
Phase 4 - maturation

148
Q

When does phase 1 of healing begin?

A

immediately after the injury and lasts 0-6 days

149
Q

In which healing phase does a clot form?

A

phase 1

150
Q

When does phase 2 of healing begin?

A

6 hours after injury, lasts 0-6 days

151
Q

When does phase 3 of healing begin?

A

after the blood clot has formed and necrotic tissue and foreign material have been removed (3-5 days after injury) lasts 0-9 days

152
Q

What is the repair phase characterized by?

A

increase in wound strength

153
Q

What factors affect wound healing?

A

host factors, wound characteristics, external factors

154
Q

High-velocity projectiles destroy tissue by what?

A

shock waves or “cavitation”

155
Q

What do hobbles do?

A

prevent excessive abduction of hind limbs

156
Q

What can be quite high prior to an abscess rupturing or opening?

A

body temperature

157
Q

What causes a sole abscess?

A

bruising on the sole from stones

158
Q

Define caseous.

A

inspissated or dry pus

159
Q

One ejaculate =

A

one breeding

Exits (12 decks)

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