Diseases Flashcards
Equine encephalitis is commonly called what?
sleeping sickness
The equine disease “tetanus/lockjaw” is the result of invasion by what?
Clostridium sp.
This is a reportable equine disease.
EIA
When horses have “heaves” the proper medical terminology is:
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
Equine “colic” may develop in several forms, select those that may qualify as “colic”.
A) Gaseous
B) Obstructive
C) Spasmodic
D) Stricture
Gaseous, obstructive, spasmodic, stricture
T/F. Moldy or spoiled hay may be implicated in a “colic” episode.
true
Lack of water may contribute to this form of colic.
impaction
Is it possible that stress could contribute to a “colic” episode?
true
From the list, select those that are neurological in nature.
A) sleeping sickness
B) west nile
C) influenza
D) EVA
sleeping sickness, west nile
This disease may cause a horse to produce a brownish/red urine.
rhabomyolisis
A benign tumor implies what?
not cancerous
A cat that produces increased amounts of urine is described as what?
polyuric
From the list below, select those that may commonly cause abortion in the pregnant mare.
A) strangles
B) rhino
C) azoturia
D) heaves
rhino
T/F. There is no cure for Equine Infectious Anemia virus.
true
West Nile Virus is transmitted principally by various species of what?
mosquitoes
T/F. Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis is a bacterial organism.
false
Azoturia is a disease that ____. Choose all that apply.
A) may be hereditary
B) may be readily transmitted via ticks
C) may be improved by dietary changes
D) may be prevented by vaccination
may be hereditary and may be improved by dietary changes
T/F. Split a horse’s grain ration out into two or more feedings if the grain amount exceeds 0.5% of the horse’s body weight.
true
EHV-1 and EHV-4 are versions of equine ____.
rhino
Define emphysema.
a chronic, irreversible disease of the lungs characterized by abnormal enlargement of air spaces in the lungs accompanied by destruction of the tissue lining the walls of the air spaces
Define emphysematous.
related, similar to or involving emphysema
What term describes having been subject to decomposition.
decomposed
Define evisceration.
the removal of internal organs
What term describes the removal of internal organs.
evisceration
Define edema.
excess of fluids collecting in the cavities or tissues of the body
What term describes the excess of fluids collecting in the cavities or tissues of the body?
edema
Define edematous.
an abnormal accumulation of fluid in cells, tissues, or cavities of the body resulting in swelling
Define empyema.
collection of pus in the space between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall
What term describes the collection of pus in the space between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall.
empyema
Define purulent.
consisting of, containing, or discharging pus
What term means consisting of, containing, or discharging pus.
purulent
Define catarrhal.
inflammation of a mucous membrane, especially of the respiratory tract
What term means inflammation of a mucous membrane, especially of the respiratory tract?
catarrhal
Define serous.
of, resembling, or of the nature of mucus
What term means of, resembling, or of the nature of mucus?
serous
Define mucoid.
of, involving, resembling, or of the nature of mucus
What term means of, involving, resembling, or of the nature of mucus?
mucoid
Define cirrhosis.
scarring of the liver, disease marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation, and fibrous thickening
What term means scarring of the liver, disease marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation, and fibrous thickening?
cirrhosis
Define icterus.
presence of jaundice seen in the sclera of the eye
What term means presence of jaundice seen in the sclera of the eye?
icterus
Define phlegmon.
localized area of acute inflammation of the soft tissues
What term means localized area of acute inflammation of the soft tissues?
phlegmon
Define hematemesis.
vomiting of blood
What term means vomiting of blood?
hematemesis
Define hemoptysis.
coughing up of blood
What term means coughing up of blood?
hemoptysis
Define epistaxis.
bleeding from the nose
What term means bleeding from the nose?
epistaxis
Define hemopericardium.
blood in the pericardial sac of the heart
What term means blood in the pericardial sac of the heart?
hemopericardium
Define hematuria.
presence of blood in urine
What term means presence of blood in urine?
hematuria
Define diapedesis.
passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries
What term means passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries?
diapedesis
Define rhexis.
rupture of an organ or blood vessel
What term means rupture of an organ or blood vessel?
rhexis
Define septicemia.
bloodstream infection
What term means bloodstream infection?
septicemia
Define bacteremia.
presence of bacteria in the blood
What term means presence of bacteria in the blood?
bacteremia
Define multifocal.
two or more foci or arising from two or more places
What term means two or more foci or arising from two or more places?
multifocal
Define circumscribed.
confined to a limited area
What term means confined to a limited area?
circumscribed
Define encapsulated.
confined to a specific area, surrounded by a thin layer of fibrous tissue
What term means confined to a specific area, surrounded by a thin layer of fibrous tissue?
encapsulated
Define serosanguineous.
containing or consisting of both blood and serous fluid
What term means containing or consisting of both blood and serous fluid?
serosanguineous
Define sanguinous.
of, relating to, or consisting of blood
What term means of, relating to, or consisting of blood?
sanguinous
Define liquefaction.
the process of making or becoming a liquid
What term means the process of making or becoming a liquid?
liquefaction
Define macule.
small, circumscribed changes in the color of skin that are neither raised or depressed
What term means a small, circumscribed changes in the color of skin that are neither raised or depressed?
macule
Define papule.
a small, raised, solid pimple or swelling
What term means a small, raised, solid pimple or swelling?
papule
Define cyst.
closed epithelium-lined sac or capsule containing a liquid or semi solid substance
What term means a closed epithelium-lined sac or capsule containing a liquid or semi solid substance?
cyst
Define ruptured.
tearing or disruption of tissues
What term means tearing or disruption of tissues?
ruptured
Define obstruction.
the act of blocking or clogging
What term means the act of blocking or clogging?
obstruction
Define necrotic membrane.
death of the membrane cells
What term means the death of the membrane cells?
necrotic membrane
Define peritonitis.
inflammation of the peritoneum, the cause may be infectious or chemical
What term means inflammation of the peritoneum, and the cause may be infectious or chemical?
peritonitis
Define meconium.
yellow/orange mucilaginous material in the intestine of the full-term fetus
What term means yellow/orange mucilaginous material in the intestine of the full-term fetus?
meconium
Define impacted.
being wedged in firmly
What term means being wedged in firmly?
impacted
Define bifurcation.
division of two branches
What term means division of two branches?
bifurcation
Define meningitis.
inflammation of the meninges
What term means inflammation of the meninges?
meningitis
Define trauma.
wound or injury, especially damage produced by external force
What term means wound or injury, especially damage produced by external force?
trauma
Define broken mouth.
dentition when some of the incisors have been lost or badly worn and irregular so they are unable to graze/eat effectively
What term means dentition when some of the incisors have been lost or badly worn and irregular so they are unable to graze/eat effectively?
broken mouth
Define malformation.
an abnormally formed part of the body
What term means an abnormally formed part of the body?
malformation
Define hernia.
part of an organ is displaced and protrude through the wall of the cavity containing it
What term means part of an organ is displaced and protrude through the wall of the cavity containing it?
hernia
Define defect.
an imperfection
What term means an imperfection?
defect
Define renal fat?
fat padding in the kidney
What term means fat padding in the kidney?
renal fat
Define buccal mucosa.
inside lining of the cheeks and floor of the mouth
What term means inside lining of the cheeks and floor of the mouth?
buccal mucosa
Define mycotic.
relating to, or caused by a fungus
Define thickened.
to make or become thicker
Define gaseous.
relating to or having the characteristics of a gas
Define blood-tinged.
something that has characteristics similar to blood
What term means something that has characteristics similar to blood?
blood tinged
Define calvarium.
skull cap, top of skull
What term means skull cap, top of skull?
calvarium
Define neoplasia.
the formation or presence of a new, abnormal growth of tissue
What term means the formation or presence of a new, abnormal growth of tissue?
neoplasia
Define oncology.
the study and treatment of tumors
What term means the study and treatment of tumors?
oncology
Define malignant.
very virulent or infectious
What term means very virulent or infectious?
malignant
Define ascites.
the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling
What term means the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling?
ascites
Define aneurysm.
an excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall
What term means an excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall?
aneurysm
Define stenosis.
the abnormal narrowing of a passage in the body
What term means the abnormal narrowing of a passage in the body?
stenosis
Define crepitus.
a grating sound or sensation produced by friction between bone and cartilage or the fractured parts of a bone
What term means a grating sound or sensation produced by friction between bone and cartilage or the fractured parts of a bone?
crepitus
Define adhesion.
an abnormal union of membranous surfaces due to inflammation or injury
What term refers to an abnormal union of membranous surfaces due to inflammation or injury?
adhesion
Define diaphragmatic lobe.
the base of the lung that rests upon the diaphragm
What term refers to the base of the lung that rests upon the diaphragm?
diaphragmatic lobe
Define apical lobe.
top section of the lung
What term refers to the top section of the lung?
apical lobe
Define cardiac lobe.
middle section of the lung
What term refers to the middle section of the lung?
cardiac lobe
Define hyperemic.
having increased blood flow to a part of the body
What term refers to having increased blood flow to a part of the body?
hyperemic
Define necrotic.
dead cells or tissues through disease or injury
What term refers to dead cells or tissues through disease or injury?
necrotic
Define myocardium.
muscular tissue of the heart
What term refers to the muscular tissue of the heart?
myocardium
Define epicardium.
a serous membrane that forms the innermost layer of the pericardium and the outer surface of the heart
What term refers to a serous membrane that forms the innermost layer of the pericardium and the outer surface of the heart?
epicardium
Define endocardium.
the thin, smooth membrane that lines the inside of the chambers of the heart and forms the surface of the values
What term refers to the thin, smooth membrane that lines the inside of the chambers of the heart and forms the surface of the values?
endocardium
Define suppurative foci.
area of pus formation
What term refers to an area of pus formation?
suppurative foci
Define abscess.
a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus
What term refers to a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus?
abscess
Define petechiae.
tiny spots due to bleeding under the skin/mucous membranes due to either minor trauma or blood-clotting
What term refers to tiny spots due to bleeding under the skin/mucous membranes due to either minor trauma or blood-clotting?
petechiae
Define petechial.
having tiny red/brown/purple spots
What term refers to having tiny red/brown/purple spots?
petechial
Define ecchymosis.
a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by bruising
What term refers to a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by bruising?
ecchymosis
Define ecchymoses.
multiple spots of skin discoloration/bleeding from underneath from bruising
What term refers to multiple spots of skin discoloration/bleeding from underneath from bruising?
ecchymoses
Define coalescing.
coming together and forming one mass
What term refers to coming together and forming one mass?
coalescing
Define massive hemorrhage.
blood loss exceeding circulating blood volume within a 24hr period
What term refers to blood loss exceeding circulating blood volume within a 24hr period?
massive hemorrhage
Define clot.
thick mass of coagulated liquid, especially blood
What term refers to a thick mass of coagulated liquid, especially blood?
clot
Define embolism.
a moving clot or bubble of air
What term refers to a moving clot or bubble of air?
embolism
Define autolysis.
destruction of cells or tissues by their own enzymes, especially those released by lysosome
What term refers to destruction of cells or tissues by their own enzymes, especially those released by lysosome?
autolysis
Define hepatomegaly.
enlarged liver
What term refers to an enlarged liver?
hepatomegaly
Define hyperplastic.
cells that have gone through abnormal changes
What term refers to cells that have gone through abnormal changes?
hyperplastic
Define caries.
decay and crumbling of a tooth or bone
What term refers to decay and crumbling of a tooth or bone?
caries
Define rhinitis.
irritation/inflammation/swelling of the mucous membrane in the nose
What term refers to irritation/inflammation/swelling of the mucous membrane in the nose?
rhinitis
Define anasarca.
generalized swelling
What term refers to generalized swelling?
anasarca
Define decrement.
reduction or diminution
What term refers to reduction or diminution?
decrement
Define increment.
an increase or addition
What term refers to an increase or addition?
increment
Define etiology.
cause origin specifically
What term refers to cause origin specifically.
etiology
Define morphology.
study of the forms of things
What term refers to the study of the forms of things?
morphology
Define pneumonia.
infection that inflame air sacs in one or both lungs
What term refers to an infection that inflame air sacs in one or both lungs?
pneumonia
Define infarct.
small or localized area of dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply
What term refers to a small or localized area of dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply?
infarct
Define friable.
easily crumbled
What term refers to easily crumbled?
friable
Define anamnesis.
patient’s medical history
What term refers to a patient’s medical history?
anamnesis
Define fibrinonecrotic.
mucosa covered by adherent layer of necrotic cells
What term refers to mucosa covered by adherent layer of necrotic cells?
fibrinonecrotic
Define enteritis
inflammation of the intestine
What term refers to inflammation of the intestine?
enteritis
Define forensic.
scientific tests or techniques
What term refers to scientific tests or techniques?
forensic
Define calcinosis cutis.
calcium deposits in the skin
What term refers to calcium deposits in the skin?
calcinosis cutis
Define calcification.
accumulation of calcium salts in a body tissue
What term refers to accumulation of calcium salts in a body tissue?
calcification
Define crust.
outer hard layer
What term refers to the outer hard later?
crust
Define vesicle.
a fluid or air filled cavity or sac
What term refers to a fluid or air filled cavity or sac?
vesicle
Define diffuse.
to break up and distribute
What term refers to breaking up and distributing?
diffuse
Define erythema.
superficial reddening of the skin
What term refers to superficial reddening of the skin?
erythema
Define erythematous.
exhibiting abnormal redness of the skin
What term refers to exhibiting abnormal redness of the skin?
erythematous
Define purpura.
condition of red or purple discolored spots on the skin
What term refers to a condition of red or purple discolored spots on the skin?
purpura
Define hematoma.
solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues
What term refers to a solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues?
hematoma
Define ulcer.
sore developed on the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine
What term refers to a sore developed on the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine?
ulcer
Define erosion.
gradual destruction of tissue
What term refers to gradual destruction of tissue?
erosion
Define focal.
main point of interest
What term refers to the main point of interest?
focal
Define patchy.
existing or happening in small, isolated area
What term refers to existing or happening in small, isolated area?
patchy
Define congested vessels.
engorgement of blood vessels with blood
What term refers to the engorgement of blood vessels with blood?
congested vessels
Define congested (in reference to tissues).
containing an abnormal amount of blood
What term refers to containing an abnormal amount of blood?
congested
Define pallor (in reference to tissues).
tissue that has a paler appearance than normal
What term refers to tissue that has a paler appearance than normal?
pallor
Define hemorrhagic.
accompanied by, or produced by hemorrhage of or relating to a hemorrhage
What term refers to being accompanied by, or produced by hemorrhage of or relating to a hemorrhage?
hemorrhagic
Define gelatinous.
having a jelly-like consistency
What term refers to having a jelly-like consistency?
gelatinous
Define purulent discharge.
discharge that is full of, containing or forming pus
What term refers do discharge that is full of, containing or forming pus?
purulent discharge
Define hydrocephalus.
fluid accumulated in the brain, enlarges the head
What term refers to fluid accumulated in the brain, enlarges the head?
hydrocephalus
Define hydrometra.
a distended uterus filled with clear, non-infected fluid
What term refers to a distended uterus filled with clear, non-infected fluid?
hydrometra
Define atelactasis.
incomplete expansion of the lungs, collapse of the lung or a part of the lung
What term refers to incomplete expansion of the lungs, collapse of the lung or a part of the lung?
atelactasis
Define fibrin.
an insoluble protein formed from fibrinogen during the clotting of blood
What term refers to an insoluble protein formed from fibrinogen during the clotting of blood?
fibrin
Define fibrin tags.
excess fibrin that causes scar tissue or growth
What term refers to excess fibrin that causes scar tissue or growth?
fibrin tags
Define fibrinous.
marked by the presence of fibrin
What term means marked by the presence of fibrin?
fibrinous
Define prosector.
a person who dissects corpses for examination or anatomical demonstration
What term means a person who dissects corpses for examination or anatomical demonstration?
prosector
Define myoglobinuria.
presence of myoglobin in the urine, usually associated with rhabdomyolysis or muscle destruction
What term means the presence of myoglobin in the urine, usually associated with rhabdomyolysis or muscle destruction?
myoglobinuria
Define melena.
dark sticky feces containing partly digested food
What term means dark sticky feces containing partly digested food?
melena
Define artifact.
any change or a feature that is likely to lead to misinterpretation of medically significant antemortem findings
What term means any change or a feature that is likely to lead to misinterpretation of medically significant antemortem findings?
artifact
Define pigment.
a coloring matter in animals and plants especially in a cell or tissue
What term means a coloring matter in animals and plants especially in a cell or tissue?
pigment
Define deposits.
extraneous inorganic matter collected in the tissues or in an organ of the body
What term means extraneous inorganic matter collected in the tissues or in an organ of the body?
deposits
Define deposition.
the process of depositing something
What term means the process of depositing something?
deposition
Define idiopathic.
a symptom or syndrome that appears without apparent cause
What term means a symptom or syndrome that appears without apparent cause?
idiopathic
Define iatrogenic.
relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment
What term means relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment?
iatrogenic
Define nosocomial.
an infection that is acquired in a hospital or other health care facility
What term means an infection that is acquired in a hospital or other health care facility?
nosocomial
Define zoonosis.
infectious diseases that can be naturally transmitted between animals and humans
What term means infectious diseases that can be naturally transmitted between animals and humans?
zoonosis
Define pathognomonic.
specifically characteristic or indicative of a particular disease or condition
What term means specifically characteristic or indicative of a particular disease or condition?
pathognomonic
Define pedunculated.
having, growing on, or being attached be a peduncle
What term means having, growing on, or being attached be a peduncle?
pedunculated
Define sessile.
fixed in one place, immobile
What term means fixed in one place, immobile.
sessile
Define pendulous.
hanging down freely
What term means hanging down freely?
pendulous
Define thrombus.
a blood clot formed within the vascular system of the body and impeding blood flow
What term means a blood clot formed within the vascular system of the body and impeding blood flow?
thrombus
Define thrombi.
blood clots formed within the vascular system of the body and impede blood flow
What term means blood clots formed within the vascular system of the body and impede blood flow?
thrombi
Define embolus.
a blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit or other object which has been carried in the bloodstream to lodge in a vessel and cause an embolism
What term means a blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit or other object which has been carried in the bloodstream to lodge in a vessel and cause an embolism?
embolus
Define segmental.
composed of separate parts of sections
What term means being composed of separate parts of sections?
segmental
Define necrosis.
the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the bloody supply
What term means the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the bloody supply?
necrosis
Define metastasis.
the spread of a disease-producing agency from the initial or primary site of disease to another part of the body
What term means the spread of a disease-producing agency from the initial or primary site of disease to another part of the body?
metastasis
Define metastases.
multiple growths/tumors that have spread from a primary tumor
What term means multiple growths/tumors that have spread from a primary tumor?
metastases
Define atrophy.
waste away, typically due to the degeneration of cells, or become vestigial during evolution
What term means to waste away, typically due to the degeneration of cells, or become vestigial during evolution?
atrophy
Define hypertrophy.
the enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in size of its cells
What term means the enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in size of its cells?
hypertrophy
Define hyperplasia.
the enlargement of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the reproduction rate of its cells
What term means the enlargement of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the reproduction rate of its cells?
hyperplasia
Define granulation.
process of forming of grains or granules from a powdery or solid substance, producing a granular material
What term means the process of forming of grains or granules from a powdery or solid substance, producing a granular material?
granulation
Define hemosiderin.
a yellowish brown granular pigment formed by breakdown of hemoglobin
What term means a yellowish brown granular pigment formed by breakdown of hemoglobin?
hemosiderin
Tissue death (necrosis) due to inadequate blood supply to the affected area. It may be caused by artery blockages, rupture, mechanical compression, or vasoconstriction is call a/an ____.
infarct
Which of the following are key to successful swine management?
A) immunization
B) strict sanitation
C) excellent nutrition
D) all of the above
all of the above
What is the definition of SPF?
specific pathogen free
T/F. rotavirus in pigs is an enteric, species specific disease.
true
T/F. Rotavirus is usually a problem in nursing and post-weaned pigs.
true
One clinical signs of rotavirus in pigs is:
A) coughing
B) reddened skin
C) scouring
D) all of the above
scouring
This bacteria may cause rectal strictures in pigs.
Salmonella sp
______ is a severe disease affecting the colon (large intestine) of pigs causing diarrhea, frequently mixed with mucus and blood, which can lead to death.
swine dysentery
Which disease has a “garden hose” description?
proliferative enteropathy
Hypoglycemia, Streptococcus suis, Salt poisoning and Edema disease in pigs all exhibit ______ signs.
neurological
Water deprivation may result in a condition of ______.
salt poisoning
This disease can result due to fighting or contaminated surgical equipment.
suppurative arthritis
This nutritional deficiency results in watery muscle tissue and is called ______.
white muscle disease
White muscle disease is the result of what?
selenium deficiency
Parvovirus, Leptospirosis, PRRS, and Brucellosis are considered ____ diseases of the pig.
reproductive
T/F. PRRS and Parvovirus are viruses that can be controlled by vaccination.
true
T/F. Leptospirosis, erysipelis and pasturellosis are bacteria that can be controlled by vaccination.
true
Autogenous vaccines are those that are _____ for pig facilities.
specially designed
SMEDI refers to the clinic signs often seen with ____ diseases of swine.
reproductive
Meconium is _____.
neonatal initial feces
The glandular stomach of the chicken is the _____.
proventriculus
This is a necessary part of attire when a wild caught or disease suspect is an avian species.
mask
The lungs of the chicken are located _____.
adhered to the thorax
An example of a diphtheritic membrane might be what?
a milk coating on a tracheal surface
Esophageal lesions found upon necropsy of a feedlot steer are sometimes due to:
A) parasite migration
B) improper placement of bolus
C) poor ration
D) all of the above
improper placement of bolus
Which of the following is NOT included as a core vaccine for dogs?
A) distemper
B) adenovirus type 2
C) coronavirus
D) rabies
coronavirus
T/F. The infectious agent responsible for Canine Infectious Tracheobronchitis, is restrited to the virus, Bordetella bronchiseptica.
false
“Kennel cough” is said to show clinical signs of “acute onset of a paroxysmal hacking cough lasting several days to a few week.” What does this mean?
sudden fit of coughing and retching
Fomites involved in transmission of many diseases of animals and humans may include:
A) contaminated cages and exam tables
B) food/water dishes
C) human hands/clothing
D) all of the above
all of the above
When cleaning surfaces in the necropsy area, why would a slow stream of water to clear or rinse an area be better than a hard, pressurized flow?
it would not aerosolize and present a potential agent for disease transmission
Which contagious canine disease can shed infective organisms 6-9 months in urine post recovery?
hepatitis
T/F. Innate immunity is non-specific, genetically based and passed on to offspring.
true
T/F. Older, vaccinated animals that break with parvo probably still had robust maternal immunity at time of vaccination.
true
What is the term that refers to the branch of medicine that deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health?
epidemiology
When was the germ theory proven?
1800’s
What are examples of non-infectious diseases?
nutritional deficiencies, metabolic disorders, trauma, toxic materials, venom, congenital defects
What are non-infectious diseases caused by?
non-living agents
What are infectious diseases caused by?
living agents
When does decompisition begin?
immediately
What is a prion?
a small protein
What does prion cause?
spongiform encephalopathies of humans and animals
In which dog disease are foot pads hard like concrete?
distemper
What are the four forms of canine distemper?
GI, respiratory, epithelial, neurologic
In canine distemper, there is hardening of what?
foot pads, planum nasale, pustular dermatitis
What causes canine distemper?
Paramyxovirus
When will death occur with canine distemper?
3-4 weeks
How is canine distemper transmitted/
aerosal droplet secretions, the virus is shed in all secretions
What is the incubation period for canine distemper?
approx. 3 days
Will common disinfectants kill canine distemper?
yes
What does ICH stand for?
infectious canine hepatitis
What causes infectious canine hepatitis?
canine adenovirus type 1
In which canine disease is hepatic necrosis associated with?
infectious canine hepatitis
What canine disease has ocular lesions that include corneal edema?
infectious canine hepatitis
How long can infectious canine hepatitis shed in urine post recovery?
6-9 months
Is infectious canine hepatitis resistant to disinfectants?
yes
How is infectious canine hepatitis spread?
shed in all secretions, oronasal
What can canine parvovirus cause in utero or postnatal infection?
acute neonatal myocarditis with acute heart failure, sudden death, delayed onset CHF if survive
How is canine parvovirus spread?
feco-oral route
Which canine disease has severe leukopenia due to lymphopenia and granulocytopenia?
parvo
Why is a dog with parvo given glucose?
to counteract hypoglycemia and sepsis
What breeds are susceptible to canine parvovirus?
Dobermans, Pit Bulls, Rotties, English Springer Spaniel, Dalmatian, Siberian Huskey, GSD, Lab, Greyhound
How would you disinfect canine parvovirus?
1:32 dilution of bleach (1oz bleach in 1 quart water)
What does canine infectious tracheobronchitis refer to?
a collection of highly contagious infectious diseases of the canine resp. tract that cause tracheobronchitis and acute onset of a paroxysmal
What are the most frequently isolated diseases in canine infectious tracheobronchitis?
bordetella bronchiseptica, parainfluenza
T/F. Canine Coronavirus enteritis is mostly asymptomatic and afebrile.
true
How many tablespoons are in an ounce?
2
What is lyme disease caused by?
a spirochete called Borrelia burgdorferi
How many days of antibiotics is an animal with lyme disease given?
14-21 days
T/F. Rabies causes encephalitis.
true
What are the 2 forms of rabies?
dumb (paralytic), furious (excitative)
Giardia is a ________ disease.
water-borne
What 3 diseases make up feline infectious respiratory disease complex?
feline viral rhinotracheitis, feline calicivirus, chlamydia
What is the predominant manifestation of feline chlamydia?
persistent mucopurulent conjunctivitis
Which feline virus is susceptible to drying and most disinfectants?
FHV
Which feline virus can live 8-10days outside of the cat?
FCV
FCV carriers shed from where and for how long?
pharynx and for months-years
Chlamydia vaccines seem to have _____ reactions.
adverse
What is panleukopenia also known as?
feline distemper
Panleukopenia is shed in what? How long?
all body excretions, up to 6 weeks
How long can panleukopenia survive?
for years
Which feline disease can cause palpable ropey intestines?
panleukopenia
FeLV and FIV are caused by what?
retrovirus
What is FIP caused by?
a coronavirus
What is a leading viral killer of cats?
FeLV (feline leukemia virus)
What does FIV stand for?
Feline immunodeficiency virus
What is FIV primarily spread by?
bite wounds
Most cats with clinical signs of FIV are how old?
6+ years old
Up to one in 12 cats in North America test positive for which disease?
FIV
Which feline diseases have oral lesions?
calici, FeLV, FIV
What does FIP stand for?
feline infectious peritonitis
What breeds seem to be more susceptible to FIP?
Siamese, Burmese, Persian
What is the most frequent early sign of FIP?
chronic fluctuating fever
How long is the clinical course to death of FIP?
3-6 weeks
Microsporum canis accounts for ____ of feline ringworm cases.
98%
Up to ___ of long-haired cats are shown to carry spores of Microsporum canis?
35%
What is giardia caused by?
protozoa
Up to 70% of surface H20 is contaminated with what?
giardia
What causes swine dysentery?
brachyspira hyodysenteriae
What does feces look like with swine dysentery?
gray to yellow, mucoid feces
What causes proliferative enteropathy?
lawsonia intracellulare
What is salt poisoning usually due to?
water deprivation
What causes suppurative arthritis?
streptococcus suis
What does mycoplasmal arthritis cause?
edema of synovial tissue
Which swine disease has a 100% prevalence?
porcine parvovirus
What does SMEDI stand for?
still birth, mummy, embryonic death, infertility
T/F. Brucellosis was the first agent to be weaponized by the US.
true
What are the three types of equine encephalitis?
eastern, western, venezuelan
What causes west nile virus?
flavivirus
What causes equine influenza virus?
orthomyxovirus
What causes strangles?
streptococcus equi
What is tetanus caused by?
Clostridium tetani
What is exertional rhabomyolysis?
azoturia
What causes azoturia?
abnormal carbohydrate metabolism
What causes anthrax?
bacillus anthracis
The spore of what may survive for decades in the soil?
anthrax
US will not import cattle from countries with a history of what?
foot and mouth
What can brucellosis cause in humans?
Undulant fever
The following clinical signs, might suggest that a dog is suffering from ______.
Fever
Secondary bacterial infections
pneumonia
serous to mucopurulent discharge
mucopurulent ocular discharge
GI - enteritis with diarrhea and vomiting
hardening of footpads, planum nasale, pustular dermatitis
distemper
Treatment for the contagious, enteric diseases such as parvo and distemper continues to be:
supportive with fluids and antibiotics
The incubation period for canine distemper is approximately ____.
3 days
The following clinical signs would be in keeping with which contagious, canine disease?
Hepatic necrosis with subsequent related bleeding disorders as DIC due to liver damage
ocular lesions include corneal edema
pneumonia, pylenephritis
hepatitis
Hemostatic congestion refers to:
pooled blood on the “down” side
What is the importance of a necropsy?
A) legal issue
B) quality control tool
C) comfort to owner
D) all of the above
all of the above
The current trend in disease management is _____.
prevention
T/F. Chickens have no teeth to grind their food.
true
Birds have _____ which are thin walled extensions of the lungs that assist in oxygenation of the tissues.
air sacs
What structure of anatomy is responsible for producing the bird’s song?
syrinx
Snake venom is an example of a/an _____ disease.
false
Check this when performing a feedlot necropsy as an indicator of acidosis when examining the rumen.
pH
Do rats have a gall bladder?
no
What anatomical structure of the rat allows it to utilize low quality and fibrous foods?
cecum
T/F. The hen produces eggs by alternating ova from two ovaries.
false
A hen will normally produce about _ egg/eggs per day.
one
T/F. Decomposition of a carcass begins immediately after death.
true
T/F. The cecum of the chicken has two blind pockets.
true
Vaccination protocols may vary from “core” recommendations due to which of the following situations?
A) animal use
B) exposure level
C) breed characteristics
D) all of the above
all of the above
T/F. Ferrets and Mink are also susceptible to the “distemper” virus.
true
T/F. Canine “distemper” varies from canine “parvo” in clinical signs because “distemper” has no gastrointestinal symptoms.
false
T/F. A dog with ICH may later develop a bleeding disorder, due to liver damage.
true
ICH is ___ to disinfectations.
very resistant
T/F. Although “parvo” is a viral disease, therapy for the patient should still include the addition of antibiotics.
true
The “infection zone” for Bordetella bronchiseptica in the canine is located ____.
at the base of the throat
A term often used to describe the look of inflamed and abnormal intestines is “__”.
angry
A dog owner may often mistake the onset of “kennel cough” for ____.
choke
The bovine carcass at necropsy, should be positioned in ___ recumbency if possible.
left lateral
T/F. Letting your dog finish your supreme pizza should have no ill effects.
false
Compared to other states, Nebraska livestock producers are generally fortunate in having fewer poisonous plant problems.
A) true
B) false
C) NE has the highest percentage of toxic plants in the nation
true
T/F. Poison hemlock is found state-wide in Nebraska.
true
T/F. Grazing stocking rates are an important consideration when a pasture has areas of toxic plant species.
true
T/F. Cellular changes in diseased tissues are often characteristic of a specific disease or group of diseases.
true
Samples intended for histology are:
A) fresh
B) frozen
C) fixed
D) could be from any of these
fixed
Samples intended for bacteriology are:
A) fresh
B) frozen
C) fixed
D) could be from any of these
fresh
Autolyzed tissues are generally useless for histopathologic examination.
A) true
B) false
C) true unless intended for toxicology
true unless intended for toxicology
T/F. Samples of the various organs that are intended for histopath should be cut <1 cm thick (preferably 7mm) and placed immediately into >or= times their volume of phosphate-buffered 10% formalin for fixation.
true
T/F. Often, the brain is sent in one piece and fixed in formalin, properly refrigerated, for microbiologic tests.
false
T/F. If feed or water is suspected as the source of poisoning, samples of these and any descriptive feed tag should accompany the tissue samples.
true
T/F. If legal action is a possibility, all containers for shipment should be either sealed so that tampering can be detected or hand-carried to the laboratory and a receipt obtained. The chain of custody must be accurately documented.
true
The definition of “pathology” is:
the study of disease
T/F. Well-trained veterinary technicians may perform necropsies under appropriate supervision.
true
T/F. The owner’s permission must be obtained before a necropsy can be conducted.
true
It is important that a necropsy be performed as soon as possible to avoid ____.
autolysis
Decomposition occurs most rapidly in ____ animals.
obese
If the necropsy must be delayed the animal or animal samples should be kept _____.
refrigerated
Which of these descriptive choices is best included in a necropsy report?
A) “there are multiple, dark, red 1-4mm diameter soft nodules”
B) “hermangiosarcoma noted”
there are multiple, dark, red 1-4mm diameter soft nodules
This is the fixative of choice for preserving tissues.
A) 10% buffered formalin
B) 4% formaldehyde
C) 70% isopropol alcohol
D) none of the above
10% buffered formalin
T/F. Slices of tissue no more than 1 cm thick should be placed in no more than twice the volume of fixative.
false
T/F. Tissue fixatives may be irritants and carcinogens.
true
All containers of fixed tissue samples should be: (choose all that apply)
A) mailed or delivered within 4 hours
B) clearly labeled
C) packaged to follow delivery guidelines
D) shipped in glass containers
clearly labeled, packaged to follow delivery guidelines
Prosectors should wear ____ when performing a necropsy on wild ____.
masks/birds
T/F. Animals that are suspected to have rabies must undergo necropsy at the clinic prior to shipping to the diagnostic lab.
false
T/F. Formalin fixed tissues do not need refrigeration.
true
T/F. Fetuses are often severely autolyzed so sample collection is not justified.
true
Other than cost, cosmetic necropsies are unwise because:
the prosector may miss vital information
Histopath is the examination of”
fixed tissues
Look for the heart of the snake in this part of the body.
cranieal third
T/F. Samples for toxicology may be frozen.
true
This structure should be palpated to determine the nutritional status of a bird of flight.
keel bone
A sharp knife is an important instrument which ______.
prevents crushing of tissues
T/F. All personnel involved in packaging and shipping biological samples must be trained and tested every three years.
true
T/F. Category A specimens for shipment might include a pure Salmonella culture.
true
T/F. All packages for shipment of biological samples must be leak proof and contain sufficient absorbent in case a fluid container should rupture.
true
T/F. Checking the pH of rumen contents may sometimes be a useful tool in determining acidosis.
true
The interior surface of the ruminant’s reticulum has a ____ appearance.
honeycomb surface
