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Exits > Diseases > Flashcards

Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Equine encephalitis is commonly called what?

A

sleeping sickness

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2
Q

The equine disease “tetanus/lockjaw” is the result of invasion by what?

A

Clostridium sp.

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3
Q

This is a reportable equine disease.

A

EIA

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4
Q

When horses have “heaves” the proper medical terminology is:

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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5
Q

Equine “colic” may develop in several forms, select those that may qualify as “colic”.

A) Gaseous
B) Obstructive
C) Spasmodic
D) Stricture

A

Gaseous, obstructive, spasmodic, stricture

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6
Q

T/F. Moldy or spoiled hay may be implicated in a “colic” episode.

A

true

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7
Q

Lack of water may contribute to this form of colic.

A

impaction

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8
Q

Is it possible that stress could contribute to a “colic” episode?

A

true

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9
Q

From the list, select those that are neurological in nature.

A) sleeping sickness
B) west nile
C) influenza
D) EVA

A

sleeping sickness, west nile

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10
Q

This disease may cause a horse to produce a brownish/red urine.

A

rhabomyolisis

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11
Q

A benign tumor implies what?

A

not cancerous

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12
Q

A cat that produces increased amounts of urine is described as what?

A

polyuric

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13
Q

From the list below, select those that may commonly cause abortion in the pregnant mare.

A) strangles
B) rhino
C) azoturia
D) heaves

A

rhino

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14
Q

T/F. There is no cure for Equine Infectious Anemia virus.

A

true

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15
Q

West Nile Virus is transmitted principally by various species of what?

A

mosquitoes

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16
Q

T/F. Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis is a bacterial organism.

A

false

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17
Q

Azoturia is a disease that ____. Choose all that apply.

A) may be hereditary
B) may be readily transmitted via ticks
C) may be improved by dietary changes
D) may be prevented by vaccination

A

may be hereditary and may be improved by dietary changes

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18
Q

T/F. Split a horse’s grain ration out into two or more feedings if the grain amount exceeds 0.5% of the horse’s body weight.

A

true

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19
Q

EHV-1 and EHV-4 are versions of equine ____.

A

rhino

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20
Q

Define emphysema.

A

a chronic, irreversible disease of the lungs characterized by abnormal enlargement of air spaces in the lungs accompanied by destruction of the tissue lining the walls of the air spaces

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21
Q

Define emphysematous.

A

related, similar to or involving emphysema

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22
Q

What term describes having been subject to decomposition.

A

decomposed

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23
Q

Define evisceration.

A

the removal of internal organs

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24
Q

What term describes the removal of internal organs.

A

evisceration

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25
Q

Define edema.

A

excess of fluids collecting in the cavities or tissues of the body

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26
Q

What term describes the excess of fluids collecting in the cavities or tissues of the body?

A

edema

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27
Q

Define edematous.

A

an abnormal accumulation of fluid in cells, tissues, or cavities of the body resulting in swelling

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28
Q

Define empyema.

A

collection of pus in the space between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall

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29
Q

What term describes the collection of pus in the space between the lung and the inner surface of the chest wall.

A

empyema

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30
Q

Define purulent.

A

consisting of, containing, or discharging pus

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31
Q

What term means consisting of, containing, or discharging pus.

A

purulent

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32
Q

Define catarrhal.

A

inflammation of a mucous membrane, especially of the respiratory tract

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33
Q

What term means inflammation of a mucous membrane, especially of the respiratory tract?

A

catarrhal

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34
Q

Define serous.

A

of, resembling, or of the nature of mucus

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35
Q

What term means of, resembling, or of the nature of mucus?

A

serous

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36
Q

Define mucoid.

A

of, involving, resembling, or of the nature of mucus

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37
Q

What term means of, involving, resembling, or of the nature of mucus?

A

mucoid

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38
Q

Define cirrhosis.

A

scarring of the liver, disease marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation, and fibrous thickening

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39
Q

What term means scarring of the liver, disease marked by degeneration of cells, inflammation, and fibrous thickening?

A

cirrhosis

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40
Q

Define icterus.

A

presence of jaundice seen in the sclera of the eye

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41
Q

What term means presence of jaundice seen in the sclera of the eye?

A

icterus

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42
Q

Define phlegmon.

A

localized area of acute inflammation of the soft tissues

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43
Q

What term means localized area of acute inflammation of the soft tissues?

A

phlegmon

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44
Q

Define hematemesis.

A

vomiting of blood

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45
Q

What term means vomiting of blood?

A

hematemesis

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46
Q

Define hemoptysis.

A

coughing up of blood

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47
Q

What term means coughing up of blood?

A

hemoptysis

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48
Q

Define epistaxis.

A

bleeding from the nose

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49
Q

What term means bleeding from the nose?

A

epistaxis

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50
Q

Define hemopericardium.

A

blood in the pericardial sac of the heart

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51
Q

What term means blood in the pericardial sac of the heart?

A

hemopericardium

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52
Q

Define hematuria.

A

presence of blood in urine

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53
Q

What term means presence of blood in urine?

A

hematuria

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54
Q

Define diapedesis.

A

passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries

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55
Q

What term means passage of blood cells through the intact walls of the capillaries?

A

diapedesis

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56
Q

Define rhexis.

A

rupture of an organ or blood vessel

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57
Q

What term means rupture of an organ or blood vessel?

A

rhexis

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58
Q

Define septicemia.

A

bloodstream infection

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59
Q

What term means bloodstream infection?

A

septicemia

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60
Q

Define bacteremia.

A

presence of bacteria in the blood

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61
Q

What term means presence of bacteria in the blood?

A

bacteremia

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62
Q

Define multifocal.

A

two or more foci or arising from two or more places

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63
Q

What term means two or more foci or arising from two or more places?

A

multifocal

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64
Q

Define circumscribed.

A

confined to a limited area

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65
Q

What term means confined to a limited area?

A

circumscribed

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66
Q

Define encapsulated.

A

confined to a specific area, surrounded by a thin layer of fibrous tissue

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67
Q

What term means confined to a specific area, surrounded by a thin layer of fibrous tissue?

A

encapsulated

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68
Q

Define serosanguineous.

A

containing or consisting of both blood and serous fluid

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69
Q

What term means containing or consisting of both blood and serous fluid?

A

serosanguineous

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70
Q

Define sanguinous.

A

of, relating to, or consisting of blood

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71
Q

What term means of, relating to, or consisting of blood?

A

sanguinous

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72
Q

Define liquefaction.

A

the process of making or becoming a liquid

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73
Q

What term means the process of making or becoming a liquid?

A

liquefaction

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74
Q

Define macule.

A

small, circumscribed changes in the color of skin that are neither raised or depressed

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75
Q

What term means a small, circumscribed changes in the color of skin that are neither raised or depressed?

A

macule

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76
Q

Define papule.

A

a small, raised, solid pimple or swelling

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77
Q

What term means a small, raised, solid pimple or swelling?

A

papule

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78
Q

Define cyst.

A

closed epithelium-lined sac or capsule containing a liquid or semi solid substance

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79
Q

What term means a closed epithelium-lined sac or capsule containing a liquid or semi solid substance?

A

cyst

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80
Q

Define ruptured.

A

tearing or disruption of tissues

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81
Q

What term means tearing or disruption of tissues?

A

ruptured

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82
Q

Define obstruction.

A

the act of blocking or clogging

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83
Q

What term means the act of blocking or clogging?

A

obstruction

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84
Q

Define necrotic membrane.

A

death of the membrane cells

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85
Q

What term means the death of the membrane cells?

A

necrotic membrane

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86
Q

Define peritonitis.

A

inflammation of the peritoneum, the cause may be infectious or chemical

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87
Q

What term means inflammation of the peritoneum, and the cause may be infectious or chemical?

A

peritonitis

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88
Q

Define meconium.

A

yellow/orange mucilaginous material in the intestine of the full-term fetus

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89
Q

What term means yellow/orange mucilaginous material in the intestine of the full-term fetus?

A

meconium

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90
Q

Define impacted.

A

being wedged in firmly

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91
Q

What term means being wedged in firmly?

A

impacted

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92
Q

Define bifurcation.

A

division of two branches

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93
Q

What term means division of two branches?

A

bifurcation

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94
Q

Define meningitis.

A

inflammation of the meninges

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95
Q

What term means inflammation of the meninges?

A

meningitis

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96
Q

Define trauma.

A

wound or injury, especially damage produced by external force

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97
Q

What term means wound or injury, especially damage produced by external force?

A

trauma

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98
Q

Define broken mouth.

A

dentition when some of the incisors have been lost or badly worn and irregular so they are unable to graze/eat effectively

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99
Q

What term means dentition when some of the incisors have been lost or badly worn and irregular so they are unable to graze/eat effectively?

A

broken mouth

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100
Q

Define malformation.

A

an abnormally formed part of the body

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101
Q

What term means an abnormally formed part of the body?

A

malformation

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102
Q

Define hernia.

A

part of an organ is displaced and protrude through the wall of the cavity containing it

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103
Q

What term means part of an organ is displaced and protrude through the wall of the cavity containing it?

A

hernia

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104
Q

Define defect.

A

an imperfection

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105
Q

What term means an imperfection?

A

defect

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106
Q

Define renal fat?

A

fat padding in the kidney

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107
Q

What term means fat padding in the kidney?

A

renal fat

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108
Q

Define buccal mucosa.

A

inside lining of the cheeks and floor of the mouth

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109
Q

What term means inside lining of the cheeks and floor of the mouth?

A

buccal mucosa

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110
Q

Define mycotic.

A

relating to, or caused by a fungus

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111
Q

Define thickened.

A

to make or become thicker

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112
Q

Define gaseous.

A

relating to or having the characteristics of a gas

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113
Q

Define blood-tinged.

A

something that has characteristics similar to blood

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114
Q

What term means something that has characteristics similar to blood?

A

blood tinged

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115
Q

Define calvarium.

A

skull cap, top of skull

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116
Q

What term means skull cap, top of skull?

A

calvarium

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117
Q

Define neoplasia.

A

the formation or presence of a new, abnormal growth of tissue

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118
Q

What term means the formation or presence of a new, abnormal growth of tissue?

A

neoplasia

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119
Q

Define oncology.

A

the study and treatment of tumors

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120
Q

What term means the study and treatment of tumors?

A

oncology

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121
Q

Define malignant.

A

very virulent or infectious

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122
Q

What term means very virulent or infectious?

A

malignant

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123
Q

Define ascites.

A

the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling

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124
Q

What term means the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling?

A

ascites

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125
Q

Define aneurysm.

A

an excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall

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126
Q

What term means an excessive localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall?

A

aneurysm

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127
Q

Define stenosis.

A

the abnormal narrowing of a passage in the body

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128
Q

What term means the abnormal narrowing of a passage in the body?

A

stenosis

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129
Q

Define crepitus.

A

a grating sound or sensation produced by friction between bone and cartilage or the fractured parts of a bone

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130
Q

What term means a grating sound or sensation produced by friction between bone and cartilage or the fractured parts of a bone?

A

crepitus

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131
Q

Define adhesion.

A

an abnormal union of membranous surfaces due to inflammation or injury

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132
Q

What term refers to an abnormal union of membranous surfaces due to inflammation or injury?

A

adhesion

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133
Q

Define diaphragmatic lobe.

A

the base of the lung that rests upon the diaphragm

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134
Q

What term refers to the base of the lung that rests upon the diaphragm?

A

diaphragmatic lobe

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135
Q

Define apical lobe.

A

top section of the lung

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136
Q

What term refers to the top section of the lung?

A

apical lobe

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137
Q

Define cardiac lobe.

A

middle section of the lung

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138
Q

What term refers to the middle section of the lung?

A

cardiac lobe

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139
Q

Define hyperemic.

A

having increased blood flow to a part of the body

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140
Q

What term refers to having increased blood flow to a part of the body?

A

hyperemic

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141
Q

Define necrotic.

A

dead cells or tissues through disease or injury

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142
Q

What term refers to dead cells or tissues through disease or injury?

A

necrotic

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143
Q

Define myocardium.

A

muscular tissue of the heart

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144
Q

What term refers to the muscular tissue of the heart?

A

myocardium

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145
Q

Define epicardium.

A

a serous membrane that forms the innermost layer of the pericardium and the outer surface of the heart

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146
Q

What term refers to a serous membrane that forms the innermost layer of the pericardium and the outer surface of the heart?

A

epicardium

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147
Q

Define endocardium.

A

the thin, smooth membrane that lines the inside of the chambers of the heart and forms the surface of the values

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148
Q

What term refers to the thin, smooth membrane that lines the inside of the chambers of the heart and forms the surface of the values?

A

endocardium

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149
Q

Define suppurative foci.

A

area of pus formation

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150
Q

What term refers to an area of pus formation?

A

suppurative foci

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151
Q

Define abscess.

A

a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus

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152
Q

What term refers to a swollen area within body tissue, containing an accumulation of pus?

A

abscess

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153
Q

Define petechiae.

A

tiny spots due to bleeding under the skin/mucous membranes due to either minor trauma or blood-clotting

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154
Q

What term refers to tiny spots due to bleeding under the skin/mucous membranes due to either minor trauma or blood-clotting?

A

petechiae

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155
Q

Define petechial.

A

having tiny red/brown/purple spots

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156
Q

What term refers to having tiny red/brown/purple spots?

A

petechial

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157
Q

Define ecchymosis.

A

a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by bruising

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158
Q

What term refers to a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by bruising?

A

ecchymosis

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159
Q

Define ecchymoses.

A

multiple spots of skin discoloration/bleeding from underneath from bruising

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160
Q

What term refers to multiple spots of skin discoloration/bleeding from underneath from bruising?

A

ecchymoses

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161
Q

Define coalescing.

A

coming together and forming one mass

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162
Q

What term refers to coming together and forming one mass?

A

coalescing

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163
Q

Define massive hemorrhage.

A

blood loss exceeding circulating blood volume within a 24hr period

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164
Q

What term refers to blood loss exceeding circulating blood volume within a 24hr period?

A

massive hemorrhage

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165
Q

Define clot.

A

thick mass of coagulated liquid, especially blood

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166
Q

What term refers to a thick mass of coagulated liquid, especially blood?

A

clot

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167
Q

Define embolism.

A

a moving clot or bubble of air

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168
Q

What term refers to a moving clot or bubble of air?

A

embolism

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169
Q

Define autolysis.

A

destruction of cells or tissues by their own enzymes, especially those released by lysosome

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170
Q

What term refers to destruction of cells or tissues by their own enzymes, especially those released by lysosome?

A

autolysis

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171
Q

Define hepatomegaly.

A

enlarged liver

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172
Q

What term refers to an enlarged liver?

A

hepatomegaly

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173
Q

Define hyperplastic.

A

cells that have gone through abnormal changes

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174
Q

What term refers to cells that have gone through abnormal changes?

A

hyperplastic

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175
Q

Define caries.

A

decay and crumbling of a tooth or bone

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176
Q

What term refers to decay and crumbling of a tooth or bone?

A

caries

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177
Q

Define rhinitis.

A

irritation/inflammation/swelling of the mucous membrane in the nose

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178
Q

What term refers to irritation/inflammation/swelling of the mucous membrane in the nose?

A

rhinitis

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179
Q

Define anasarca.

A

generalized swelling

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180
Q

What term refers to generalized swelling?

A

anasarca

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181
Q

Define decrement.

A

reduction or diminution

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182
Q

What term refers to reduction or diminution?

A

decrement

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183
Q

Define increment.

A

an increase or addition

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184
Q

What term refers to an increase or addition?

A

increment

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185
Q

Define etiology.

A

cause origin specifically

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186
Q

What term refers to cause origin specifically.

A

etiology

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187
Q

Define morphology.

A

study of the forms of things

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188
Q

What term refers to the study of the forms of things?

A

morphology

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189
Q

Define pneumonia.

A

infection that inflame air sacs in one or both lungs

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190
Q

What term refers to an infection that inflame air sacs in one or both lungs?

A

pneumonia

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191
Q

Define infarct.

A

small or localized area of dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply

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192
Q

What term refers to a small or localized area of dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply?

A

infarct

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193
Q

Define friable.

A

easily crumbled

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194
Q

What term refers to easily crumbled?

A

friable

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195
Q

Define anamnesis.

A

patient’s medical history

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196
Q

What term refers to a patient’s medical history?

A

anamnesis

197
Q

Define fibrinonecrotic.

A

mucosa covered by adherent layer of necrotic cells

198
Q

What term refers to mucosa covered by adherent layer of necrotic cells?

A

fibrinonecrotic

199
Q

Define enteritis

A

inflammation of the intestine

200
Q

What term refers to inflammation of the intestine?

A

enteritis

201
Q

Define forensic.

A

scientific tests or techniques

202
Q

What term refers to scientific tests or techniques?

A

forensic

203
Q

Define calcinosis cutis.

A

calcium deposits in the skin

204
Q

What term refers to calcium deposits in the skin?

A

calcinosis cutis

205
Q

Define calcification.

A

accumulation of calcium salts in a body tissue

206
Q

What term refers to accumulation of calcium salts in a body tissue?

A

calcification

207
Q

Define crust.

A

outer hard layer

208
Q

What term refers to the outer hard later?

A

crust

209
Q

Define vesicle.

A

a fluid or air filled cavity or sac

210
Q

What term refers to a fluid or air filled cavity or sac?

A

vesicle

211
Q

Define diffuse.

A

to break up and distribute

212
Q

What term refers to breaking up and distributing?

A

diffuse

213
Q

Define erythema.

A

superficial reddening of the skin

214
Q

What term refers to superficial reddening of the skin?

A

erythema

215
Q

Define erythematous.

A

exhibiting abnormal redness of the skin

216
Q

What term refers to exhibiting abnormal redness of the skin?

A

erythematous

217
Q

Define purpura.

A

condition of red or purple discolored spots on the skin

218
Q

What term refers to a condition of red or purple discolored spots on the skin?

A

purpura

219
Q

Define hematoma.

A

solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues

220
Q

What term refers to a solid swelling of clotted blood within the tissues?

A

hematoma

221
Q

Define ulcer.

A

sore developed on the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine

222
Q

What term refers to a sore developed on the lining of the esophagus, stomach, or small intestine?

A

ulcer

223
Q

Define erosion.

A

gradual destruction of tissue

224
Q

What term refers to gradual destruction of tissue?

A

erosion

225
Q

Define focal.

A

main point of interest

226
Q

What term refers to the main point of interest?

A

focal

227
Q

Define patchy.

A

existing or happening in small, isolated area

228
Q

What term refers to existing or happening in small, isolated area?

A

patchy

229
Q

Define congested vessels.

A

engorgement of blood vessels with blood

230
Q

What term refers to the engorgement of blood vessels with blood?

A

congested vessels

231
Q

Define congested (in reference to tissues).

A

containing an abnormal amount of blood

232
Q

What term refers to containing an abnormal amount of blood?

A

congested

233
Q

Define pallor (in reference to tissues).

A

tissue that has a paler appearance than normal

234
Q

What term refers to tissue that has a paler appearance than normal?

A

pallor

235
Q

Define hemorrhagic.

A

accompanied by, or produced by hemorrhage of or relating to a hemorrhage

236
Q

What term refers to being accompanied by, or produced by hemorrhage of or relating to a hemorrhage?

A

hemorrhagic

237
Q

Define gelatinous.

A

having a jelly-like consistency

238
Q

What term refers to having a jelly-like consistency?

A

gelatinous

239
Q

Define purulent discharge.

A

discharge that is full of, containing or forming pus

240
Q

What term refers do discharge that is full of, containing or forming pus?

A

purulent discharge

241
Q

Define hydrocephalus.

A

fluid accumulated in the brain, enlarges the head

242
Q

What term refers to fluid accumulated in the brain, enlarges the head?

A

hydrocephalus

243
Q

Define hydrometra.

A

a distended uterus filled with clear, non-infected fluid

244
Q

What term refers to a distended uterus filled with clear, non-infected fluid?

A

hydrometra

245
Q

Define atelactasis.

A

incomplete expansion of the lungs, collapse of the lung or a part of the lung

246
Q

What term refers to incomplete expansion of the lungs, collapse of the lung or a part of the lung?

A

atelactasis

247
Q

Define fibrin.

A

an insoluble protein formed from fibrinogen during the clotting of blood

248
Q

What term refers to an insoluble protein formed from fibrinogen during the clotting of blood?

A

fibrin

249
Q

Define fibrin tags.

A

excess fibrin that causes scar tissue or growth

250
Q

What term refers to excess fibrin that causes scar tissue or growth?

A

fibrin tags

251
Q

Define fibrinous.

A

marked by the presence of fibrin

252
Q

What term means marked by the presence of fibrin?

A

fibrinous

253
Q

Define prosector.

A

a person who dissects corpses for examination or anatomical demonstration

254
Q

What term means a person who dissects corpses for examination or anatomical demonstration?

A

prosector

255
Q

Define myoglobinuria.

A

presence of myoglobin in the urine, usually associated with rhabdomyolysis or muscle destruction

256
Q

What term means the presence of myoglobin in the urine, usually associated with rhabdomyolysis or muscle destruction?

A

myoglobinuria

257
Q

Define melena.

A

dark sticky feces containing partly digested food

258
Q

What term means dark sticky feces containing partly digested food?

A

melena

259
Q

Define artifact.

A

any change or a feature that is likely to lead to misinterpretation of medically significant antemortem findings

260
Q

What term means any change or a feature that is likely to lead to misinterpretation of medically significant antemortem findings?

A

artifact

261
Q

Define pigment.

A

a coloring matter in animals and plants especially in a cell or tissue

262
Q

What term means a coloring matter in animals and plants especially in a cell or tissue?

A

pigment

263
Q

Define deposits.

A

extraneous inorganic matter collected in the tissues or in an organ of the body

264
Q

What term means extraneous inorganic matter collected in the tissues or in an organ of the body?

A

deposits

265
Q

Define deposition.

A

the process of depositing something

266
Q

What term means the process of depositing something?

A

deposition

267
Q

Define idiopathic.

A

a symptom or syndrome that appears without apparent cause

268
Q

What term means a symptom or syndrome that appears without apparent cause?

A

idiopathic

269
Q

Define iatrogenic.

A

relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment

270
Q

What term means relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment?

A

iatrogenic

271
Q

Define nosocomial.

A

an infection that is acquired in a hospital or other health care facility

272
Q

What term means an infection that is acquired in a hospital or other health care facility?

A

nosocomial

273
Q

Define zoonosis.

A

infectious diseases that can be naturally transmitted between animals and humans

274
Q

What term means infectious diseases that can be naturally transmitted between animals and humans?

A

zoonosis

275
Q

Define pathognomonic.

A

specifically characteristic or indicative of a particular disease or condition

276
Q

What term means specifically characteristic or indicative of a particular disease or condition?

A

pathognomonic

277
Q

Define pedunculated.

A

having, growing on, or being attached be a peduncle

278
Q

What term means having, growing on, or being attached be a peduncle?

A

pedunculated

279
Q

Define sessile.

A

fixed in one place, immobile

280
Q

What term means fixed in one place, immobile.

A

sessile

281
Q

Define pendulous.

A

hanging down freely

282
Q

What term means hanging down freely?

A

pendulous

283
Q

Define thrombus.

A

a blood clot formed within the vascular system of the body and impeding blood flow

284
Q

What term means a blood clot formed within the vascular system of the body and impeding blood flow?

A

thrombus

285
Q

Define thrombi.

A

blood clots formed within the vascular system of the body and impede blood flow

286
Q

What term means blood clots formed within the vascular system of the body and impede blood flow?

A

thrombi

287
Q

Define embolus.

A

a blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit or other object which has been carried in the bloodstream to lodge in a vessel and cause an embolism

288
Q

What term means a blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit or other object which has been carried in the bloodstream to lodge in a vessel and cause an embolism?

A

embolus

289
Q

Define segmental.

A

composed of separate parts of sections

290
Q

What term means being composed of separate parts of sections?

A

segmental

291
Q

Define necrosis.

A

the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the bloody supply

292
Q

What term means the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the bloody supply?

A

necrosis

293
Q

Define metastasis.

A

the spread of a disease-producing agency from the initial or primary site of disease to another part of the body

294
Q

What term means the spread of a disease-producing agency from the initial or primary site of disease to another part of the body?

A

metastasis

295
Q

Define metastases.

A

multiple growths/tumors that have spread from a primary tumor

296
Q

What term means multiple growths/tumors that have spread from a primary tumor?

A

metastases

297
Q

Define atrophy.

A

waste away, typically due to the degeneration of cells, or become vestigial during evolution

298
Q

What term means to waste away, typically due to the degeneration of cells, or become vestigial during evolution?

A

atrophy

299
Q

Define hypertrophy.

A

the enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in size of its cells

300
Q

What term means the enlargement of an organ or tissue from the increase in size of its cells?

A

hypertrophy

301
Q

Define hyperplasia.

A

the enlargement of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the reproduction rate of its cells

302
Q

What term means the enlargement of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the reproduction rate of its cells?

A

hyperplasia

303
Q

Define granulation.

A

process of forming of grains or granules from a powdery or solid substance, producing a granular material

304
Q

What term means the process of forming of grains or granules from a powdery or solid substance, producing a granular material?

A

granulation

305
Q

Define hemosiderin.

A

a yellowish brown granular pigment formed by breakdown of hemoglobin

306
Q

What term means a yellowish brown granular pigment formed by breakdown of hemoglobin?

A

hemosiderin

307
Q

Tissue death (necrosis) due to inadequate blood supply to the affected area. It may be caused by artery blockages, rupture, mechanical compression, or vasoconstriction is call a/an ____.

A

infarct

308
Q

Which of the following are key to successful swine management?

A) immunization
B) strict sanitation
C) excellent nutrition
D) all of the above

A

all of the above

309
Q

What is the definition of SPF?

A

specific pathogen free

310
Q

T/F. rotavirus in pigs is an enteric, species specific disease.

A

true

311
Q

T/F. Rotavirus is usually a problem in nursing and post-weaned pigs.

A

true

312
Q

One clinical signs of rotavirus in pigs is:

A) coughing
B) reddened skin
C) scouring
D) all of the above

A

scouring

313
Q

This bacteria may cause rectal strictures in pigs.

A

Salmonella sp

314
Q

______ is a severe disease affecting the colon (large intestine) of pigs causing diarrhea, frequently mixed with mucus and blood, which can lead to death.

A

swine dysentery

315
Q

Which disease has a “garden hose” description?

A

proliferative enteropathy

316
Q

Hypoglycemia, Streptococcus suis, Salt poisoning and Edema disease in pigs all exhibit ______ signs.

A

neurological

317
Q

Water deprivation may result in a condition of ______.

A

salt poisoning

318
Q

This disease can result due to fighting or contaminated surgical equipment.

A

suppurative arthritis

319
Q

This nutritional deficiency results in watery muscle tissue and is called ______.

A

white muscle disease

320
Q

White muscle disease is the result of what?

A

selenium deficiency

321
Q

Parvovirus, Leptospirosis, PRRS, and Brucellosis are considered ____ diseases of the pig.

A

reproductive

322
Q

T/F. PRRS and Parvovirus are viruses that can be controlled by vaccination.

A

true

323
Q

T/F. Leptospirosis, erysipelis and pasturellosis are bacteria that can be controlled by vaccination.

A

true

324
Q

Autogenous vaccines are those that are _____ for pig facilities.

A

specially designed

325
Q

SMEDI refers to the clinic signs often seen with ____ diseases of swine.

A

reproductive

326
Q

Meconium is _____.

A

neonatal initial feces

327
Q

The glandular stomach of the chicken is the _____.

A

proventriculus

328
Q

This is a necessary part of attire when a wild caught or disease suspect is an avian species.

A

mask

329
Q

The lungs of the chicken are located _____.

A

adhered to the thorax

330
Q

An example of a diphtheritic membrane might be what?

A

a milk coating on a tracheal surface

331
Q

Esophageal lesions found upon necropsy of a feedlot steer are sometimes due to:

A) parasite migration
B) improper placement of bolus
C) poor ration
D) all of the above

A

improper placement of bolus

332
Q

Which of the following is NOT included as a core vaccine for dogs?

A) distemper
B) adenovirus type 2
C) coronavirus
D) rabies

A

coronavirus

333
Q

T/F. The infectious agent responsible for Canine Infectious Tracheobronchitis, is restrited to the virus, Bordetella bronchiseptica.

A

false

334
Q

“Kennel cough” is said to show clinical signs of “acute onset of a paroxysmal hacking cough lasting several days to a few week.” What does this mean?

A

sudden fit of coughing and retching

335
Q

Fomites involved in transmission of many diseases of animals and humans may include:

A) contaminated cages and exam tables
B) food/water dishes
C) human hands/clothing
D) all of the above

A

all of the above

336
Q

When cleaning surfaces in the necropsy area, why would a slow stream of water to clear or rinse an area be better than a hard, pressurized flow?

A

it would not aerosolize and present a potential agent for disease transmission

337
Q

Which contagious canine disease can shed infective organisms 6-9 months in urine post recovery?

A

hepatitis

338
Q

T/F. Innate immunity is non-specific, genetically based and passed on to offspring.

A

true

339
Q

T/F. Older, vaccinated animals that break with parvo probably still had robust maternal immunity at time of vaccination.

A

true

340
Q

What is the term that refers to the branch of medicine that deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health?

A

epidemiology

341
Q

When was the germ theory proven?

A

1800’s

342
Q

What are examples of non-infectious diseases?

A

nutritional deficiencies, metabolic disorders, trauma, toxic materials, venom, congenital defects

343
Q

What are non-infectious diseases caused by?

A

non-living agents

344
Q

What are infectious diseases caused by?

A

living agents

345
Q

When does decompisition begin?

A

immediately

346
Q

What is a prion?

A

a small protein

347
Q

What does prion cause?

A

spongiform encephalopathies of humans and animals

348
Q

In which dog disease are foot pads hard like concrete?

A

distemper

349
Q

What are the four forms of canine distemper?

A

GI, respiratory, epithelial, neurologic

350
Q

In canine distemper, there is hardening of what?

A

foot pads, planum nasale, pustular dermatitis

351
Q

What causes canine distemper?

A

Paramyxovirus

352
Q

When will death occur with canine distemper?

A

3-4 weeks

353
Q

How is canine distemper transmitted/

A

aerosal droplet secretions, the virus is shed in all secretions

354
Q

What is the incubation period for canine distemper?

A

approx. 3 days

355
Q

Will common disinfectants kill canine distemper?

A

yes

356
Q

What does ICH stand for?

A

infectious canine hepatitis

357
Q

What causes infectious canine hepatitis?

A

canine adenovirus type 1

358
Q

In which canine disease is hepatic necrosis associated with?

A

infectious canine hepatitis

359
Q

What canine disease has ocular lesions that include corneal edema?

A

infectious canine hepatitis

360
Q

How long can infectious canine hepatitis shed in urine post recovery?

A

6-9 months

361
Q

Is infectious canine hepatitis resistant to disinfectants?

A

yes

362
Q

How is infectious canine hepatitis spread?

A

shed in all secretions, oronasal

363
Q

What can canine parvovirus cause in utero or postnatal infection?

A

acute neonatal myocarditis with acute heart failure, sudden death, delayed onset CHF if survive

364
Q

How is canine parvovirus spread?

A

feco-oral route

365
Q

Which canine disease has severe leukopenia due to lymphopenia and granulocytopenia?

A

parvo

366
Q

Why is a dog with parvo given glucose?

A

to counteract hypoglycemia and sepsis

367
Q

What breeds are susceptible to canine parvovirus?

A

Dobermans, Pit Bulls, Rotties, English Springer Spaniel, Dalmatian, Siberian Huskey, GSD, Lab, Greyhound

368
Q

How would you disinfect canine parvovirus?

A

1:32 dilution of bleach (1oz bleach in 1 quart water)

369
Q

What does canine infectious tracheobronchitis refer to?

A

a collection of highly contagious infectious diseases of the canine resp. tract that cause tracheobronchitis and acute onset of a paroxysmal

370
Q

What are the most frequently isolated diseases in canine infectious tracheobronchitis?

A

bordetella bronchiseptica, parainfluenza

371
Q

T/F. Canine Coronavirus enteritis is mostly asymptomatic and afebrile.

A

true

372
Q

How many tablespoons are in an ounce?

A

2

373
Q

What is lyme disease caused by?

A

a spirochete called Borrelia burgdorferi

374
Q

How many days of antibiotics is an animal with lyme disease given?

A

14-21 days

375
Q

T/F. Rabies causes encephalitis.

A

true

376
Q

What are the 2 forms of rabies?

A

dumb (paralytic), furious (excitative)

377
Q

Giardia is a ________ disease.

A

water-borne

378
Q

What 3 diseases make up feline infectious respiratory disease complex?

A

feline viral rhinotracheitis, feline calicivirus, chlamydia

379
Q

What is the predominant manifestation of feline chlamydia?

A

persistent mucopurulent conjunctivitis

380
Q

Which feline virus is susceptible to drying and most disinfectants?

A

FHV

381
Q

Which feline virus can live 8-10days outside of the cat?

A

FCV

382
Q

FCV carriers shed from where and for how long?

A

pharynx and for months-years

383
Q

Chlamydia vaccines seem to have _____ reactions.

A

adverse

384
Q

What is panleukopenia also known as?

A

feline distemper

385
Q

Panleukopenia is shed in what? How long?

A

all body excretions, up to 6 weeks

386
Q

How long can panleukopenia survive?

A

for years

387
Q

Which feline disease can cause palpable ropey intestines?

A

panleukopenia

388
Q

FeLV and FIV are caused by what?

A

retrovirus

389
Q

What is FIP caused by?

A

a coronavirus

390
Q

What is a leading viral killer of cats?

A

FeLV (feline leukemia virus)

391
Q

What does FIV stand for?

A

Feline immunodeficiency virus

392
Q

What is FIV primarily spread by?

A

bite wounds

393
Q

Most cats with clinical signs of FIV are how old?

A

6+ years old

394
Q

Up to one in 12 cats in North America test positive for which disease?

A

FIV

395
Q

Which feline diseases have oral lesions?

A

calici, FeLV, FIV

396
Q

What does FIP stand for?

A

feline infectious peritonitis

397
Q

What breeds seem to be more susceptible to FIP?

A

Siamese, Burmese, Persian

398
Q

What is the most frequent early sign of FIP?

A

chronic fluctuating fever

399
Q

How long is the clinical course to death of FIP?

A

3-6 weeks

400
Q

Microsporum canis accounts for ____ of feline ringworm cases.

A

98%

401
Q

Up to ___ of long-haired cats are shown to carry spores of Microsporum canis?

A

35%

402
Q

What is giardia caused by?

A

protozoa

403
Q

Up to 70% of surface H20 is contaminated with what?

A

giardia

404
Q

What causes swine dysentery?

A

brachyspira hyodysenteriae

405
Q

What does feces look like with swine dysentery?

A

gray to yellow, mucoid feces

406
Q

What causes proliferative enteropathy?

A

lawsonia intracellulare

407
Q

What is salt poisoning usually due to?

A

water deprivation

408
Q

What causes suppurative arthritis?

A

streptococcus suis

409
Q

What does mycoplasmal arthritis cause?

A

edema of synovial tissue

410
Q

Which swine disease has a 100% prevalence?

A

porcine parvovirus

411
Q

What does SMEDI stand for?

A

still birth, mummy, embryonic death, infertility

412
Q

T/F. Brucellosis was the first agent to be weaponized by the US.

A

true

413
Q

What are the three types of equine encephalitis?

A

eastern, western, venezuelan

414
Q

What causes west nile virus?

A

flavivirus

415
Q

What causes equine influenza virus?

A

orthomyxovirus

416
Q

What causes strangles?

A

streptococcus equi

417
Q

What is tetanus caused by?

A

Clostridium tetani

418
Q

What is exertional rhabomyolysis?

A

azoturia

419
Q

What causes azoturia?

A

abnormal carbohydrate metabolism

420
Q

What causes anthrax?

A

bacillus anthracis

421
Q

The spore of what may survive for decades in the soil?

A

anthrax

422
Q

US will not import cattle from countries with a history of what?

A

foot and mouth

423
Q

What can brucellosis cause in humans?

A

Undulant fever

424
Q

The following clinical signs, might suggest that a dog is suffering from ______.

Fever
Secondary bacterial infections
pneumonia
serous to mucopurulent discharge
mucopurulent ocular discharge
GI - enteritis with diarrhea and vomiting
hardening of footpads, planum nasale, pustular dermatitis

A

distemper

425
Q

Treatment for the contagious, enteric diseases such as parvo and distemper continues to be:

A

supportive with fluids and antibiotics

426
Q

The incubation period for canine distemper is approximately ____.

A

3 days

427
Q

The following clinical signs would be in keeping with which contagious, canine disease?

Hepatic necrosis with subsequent related bleeding disorders as DIC due to liver damage
ocular lesions include corneal edema
pneumonia, pylenephritis

A

hepatitis

428
Q

Hemostatic congestion refers to:

A

pooled blood on the “down” side

429
Q

What is the importance of a necropsy?

A) legal issue
B) quality control tool
C) comfort to owner
D) all of the above

A

all of the above

430
Q

The current trend in disease management is _____.

A

prevention

431
Q

T/F. Chickens have no teeth to grind their food.

A

true

432
Q

Birds have _____ which are thin walled extensions of the lungs that assist in oxygenation of the tissues.

A

air sacs

433
Q

What structure of anatomy is responsible for producing the bird’s song?

A

syrinx

434
Q

Snake venom is an example of a/an _____ disease.

A

false

435
Q

Check this when performing a feedlot necropsy as an indicator of acidosis when examining the rumen.

A

pH

436
Q

Do rats have a gall bladder?

A

no

437
Q

What anatomical structure of the rat allows it to utilize low quality and fibrous foods?

A

cecum

438
Q

T/F. The hen produces eggs by alternating ova from two ovaries.

A

false

439
Q

A hen will normally produce about _ egg/eggs per day.

A

one

440
Q

T/F. Decomposition of a carcass begins immediately after death.

A

true

441
Q

T/F. The cecum of the chicken has two blind pockets.

A

true

442
Q

Vaccination protocols may vary from “core” recommendations due to which of the following situations?

A) animal use
B) exposure level
C) breed characteristics
D) all of the above

A

all of the above

443
Q

T/F. Ferrets and Mink are also susceptible to the “distemper” virus.

A

true

444
Q

T/F. Canine “distemper” varies from canine “parvo” in clinical signs because “distemper” has no gastrointestinal symptoms.

A

false

445
Q

T/F. A dog with ICH may later develop a bleeding disorder, due to liver damage.

A

true

446
Q

ICH is ___ to disinfectations.

A

very resistant

447
Q

T/F. Although “parvo” is a viral disease, therapy for the patient should still include the addition of antibiotics.

A

true

448
Q

The “infection zone” for Bordetella bronchiseptica in the canine is located ____.

A

at the base of the throat

449
Q

A term often used to describe the look of inflamed and abnormal intestines is “__”.

A

angry

450
Q

A dog owner may often mistake the onset of “kennel cough” for ____.

A

choke

451
Q

The bovine carcass at necropsy, should be positioned in ___ recumbency if possible.

A

left lateral

452
Q

T/F. Letting your dog finish your supreme pizza should have no ill effects.

A

false

453
Q

Compared to other states, Nebraska livestock producers are generally fortunate in having fewer poisonous plant problems.

A) true
B) false
C) NE has the highest percentage of toxic plants in the nation

A

true

454
Q

T/F. Poison hemlock is found state-wide in Nebraska.

A

true

455
Q

T/F. Grazing stocking rates are an important consideration when a pasture has areas of toxic plant species.

A

true

456
Q

T/F. Cellular changes in diseased tissues are often characteristic of a specific disease or group of diseases.

A

true

457
Q

Samples intended for histology are:

A) fresh
B) frozen
C) fixed
D) could be from any of these

A

fixed

458
Q

Samples intended for bacteriology are:

A) fresh
B) frozen
C) fixed
D) could be from any of these

A

fresh

459
Q

Autolyzed tissues are generally useless for histopathologic examination.

A) true
B) false
C) true unless intended for toxicology

A

true unless intended for toxicology

460
Q

T/F. Samples of the various organs that are intended for histopath should be cut <1 cm thick (preferably 7mm) and placed immediately into >or= times their volume of phosphate-buffered 10% formalin for fixation.

A

true

461
Q

T/F. Often, the brain is sent in one piece and fixed in formalin, properly refrigerated, for microbiologic tests.

A

false

462
Q

T/F. If feed or water is suspected as the source of poisoning, samples of these and any descriptive feed tag should accompany the tissue samples.

A

true

463
Q

T/F. If legal action is a possibility, all containers for shipment should be either sealed so that tampering can be detected or hand-carried to the laboratory and a receipt obtained. The chain of custody must be accurately documented.

A

true

464
Q

The definition of “pathology” is:

A

the study of disease

465
Q

T/F. Well-trained veterinary technicians may perform necropsies under appropriate supervision.

A

true

466
Q

T/F. The owner’s permission must be obtained before a necropsy can be conducted.

A

true

467
Q

It is important that a necropsy be performed as soon as possible to avoid ____.

A

autolysis

468
Q

Decomposition occurs most rapidly in ____ animals.

A

obese

469
Q

If the necropsy must be delayed the animal or animal samples should be kept _____.

A

refrigerated

470
Q

Which of these descriptive choices is best included in a necropsy report?

A) “there are multiple, dark, red 1-4mm diameter soft nodules”
B) “hermangiosarcoma noted”

A

there are multiple, dark, red 1-4mm diameter soft nodules

471
Q

This is the fixative of choice for preserving tissues.

A) 10% buffered formalin
B) 4% formaldehyde
C) 70% isopropol alcohol
D) none of the above

A

10% buffered formalin

472
Q

T/F. Slices of tissue no more than 1 cm thick should be placed in no more than twice the volume of fixative.

A

false

473
Q

T/F. Tissue fixatives may be irritants and carcinogens.

A

true

474
Q

All containers of fixed tissue samples should be: (choose all that apply)

A) mailed or delivered within 4 hours
B) clearly labeled
C) packaged to follow delivery guidelines
D) shipped in glass containers

A

clearly labeled, packaged to follow delivery guidelines

475
Q

Prosectors should wear ____ when performing a necropsy on wild ____.

A

masks/birds

476
Q

T/F. Animals that are suspected to have rabies must undergo necropsy at the clinic prior to shipping to the diagnostic lab.

A

false

477
Q

T/F. Formalin fixed tissues do not need refrigeration.

A

true

478
Q

T/F. Fetuses are often severely autolyzed so sample collection is not justified.

A

true

479
Q

Other than cost, cosmetic necropsies are unwise because:

A

the prosector may miss vital information

480
Q

Histopath is the examination of”

A

fixed tissues

481
Q

Look for the heart of the snake in this part of the body.

A

cranieal third

482
Q

T/F. Samples for toxicology may be frozen.

A

true

483
Q

This structure should be palpated to determine the nutritional status of a bird of flight.

A

keel bone

484
Q

A sharp knife is an important instrument which ______.

A

prevents crushing of tissues

485
Q

T/F. All personnel involved in packaging and shipping biological samples must be trained and tested every three years.

A

true

486
Q

T/F. Category A specimens for shipment might include a pure Salmonella culture.

A

true

487
Q

T/F. All packages for shipment of biological samples must be leak proof and contain sufficient absorbent in case a fluid container should rupture.

A

true

488
Q

T/F. Checking the pH of rumen contents may sometimes be a useful tool in determining acidosis.

A

true

489
Q

The interior surface of the ruminant’s reticulum has a ____ appearance.

A

honeycomb surface

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