Anatomy Flashcards
What are some functions of blood?
carries nutrients, carries O2 to tissues, carries CO2 to lunges, carries waste to kidneys, carries hormones, temperature control, maintains water balance, clotting, defense, buffers provide a constant pH
What are two main types of WBCs?
granulocytes and agranulocytes
Where do red blood cells form? In response to what?
bone marrow in response to O2 levels at kidneys
Hypoxia at kidneys promotes what?
release/secretion of erythropietin
How long does stimulation of the bone marrow take to bring more RBCs into circulation?
3 days
Do mature red blood cells have a nucleus?
no, unless it’s a bird or reptiles
What is O2 transported on?
hemoglobin
What does the RBC shape do?
provides a large surface area to absorb O2
What is the shape of an RBC?
biconcave disk
Where is iron temporarily stored?
liver/spleen
Where can iron be lost?
feces, urine, sweat, fetal development
What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?
3-4 months (120 days)
What is bilirubin excreted in?
stool and urine
An increase in bilirubin means what?
increased RBC breakdown (spleen) or problem with the processing of the pgment (liver)
What is the pigment of RBCs?
bilirubin
What is hemagglutination?
clumping of RBCs
What test is hemagglutination used in?
cross matching blood prior to blood transfusions from donors to recipients to chck for blood compatibility
What is anemia?
number of functional cells is less than normal or number of hemoglobin less than normal
What are causes of anemia?
decreased production, blood loss, increased destruction, failure to mature
What are results of anemia?
decreased O2 levels lead to tissue hypoxia, leading to increased heart rate. the blood is less viscous, causing body to work harder to deliver O2, acute heart failure
What is hemoconcentration?
too many RBCs for the amount of liquid
What causes hemoconcentration?
increased number of RBCs or decreased fluid from dehydration
What is plycythemia?
increased number of red blood cells
What does hemoconcentration result in?
thick blood that doesn’t flow properly, which can lead to heart failure
What are platelets also known as?
thrombocytes
What are platelts?
cytoplasm fragments off of large cells (megakaryocytes) in bone marrow
Do platelets have a nucleus?
no
What is the function of platelets?
clotting, they pluf small holes in vessels and initiate larger clotting system called “coagulation” for large tears
When does coagulation begin and end after injury?
15 seconds to 2 minutes after injury, lasts five minutes
What is coagulation?
clot that forms helps close edges of large tears
Absence of or decreased amounts of clotting factors causes what?
prolonged clotting time or no blotting
Is heparin naturally present in the body?
yes
Where is heparin stored in the body?
mast cells and basophils
What do coumarins cause?
internal hemorrhage and death
What are examples of coumarins?
dicumarol, warfarin
What are coumarins used for?
to thin blood (prolong clotting times)
Dietary deficiency of vitamin K results in what?
decreased clotting ability
What is the production of white blood cells caused?
leukopoiesis
What do granulocytes have?
granules present in cytoplasm
What are the types of granulocytes?
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
How do the granules of neutrophils stain?
they do not stain
What kind of nucleus do neutrophils have?
polymorphonuclear (PMN) nucleus
What is a PMN nucleus?
polymorphonuclear nucleus
What is the life span of neutrophils?
hours
What is the first line of defense among WBCs?
neutrophils
Tissues damage releases chemical that do what?
attract neutrophils
What is the most mobile of WBCs?
neutrophils
What does an increase in the number of neutrophils mean?
acute infection
What is left shift when talking about neutrophils?
when young cells appear in general circulation
Where are neutrophils located?
along blood bessel margins so stress flushes system causing leukocytosis with more neutrophils flushed out
Are neutrophils a phagocyte?
yes
What do neutrophils do?
engulf foreign materila and digest it using lysosome enzymes. They self destruct and lymph carries away debris or it accumulates as pus
Lymph passing through lymphnodes allows lymphnode cells to what?
identify problems and produce antibodies
What are other names for neutrophils?
segs or neuts
Eosinophils have what kind of nucleous?
polymorphicnuclear (PMN) nucleus
What colors do granules of eosinophils stain?
red
What is the life span of eosinophils?
hours
When do the number of eosinophils increase?
during chronic infections (especially parasites and allergies)
Eosinophils remove what?
ag/ab complexes that stimulate allergic responses
Are eosinophils phagocytic?
yes
What is another name for an eosinophil?
eos
What kind of nucleus do basophils have?
PMN nucleus
What color do granules of a basophil stain?
blue
What do basophils contain?
heparin and histamine
What does the histamine in basophils do?
relaxes smooth muscle of blood vessels, constricts smooth muscle in airways
Are basophils phagocytic?
yes
What causes an increase in the number of basophils?
chronic tissue inflammation, allergic reactions
What kind of cells are similar to basophils in tissue?
mast cells
Basophils and mast cell granules contain what? What does this cause?
histamine. inflammation.
Eosinophil granules contain what? What does this do?
histaminase. counteracts inflammation.
What do basophils and eosinophils both indicate?
allergies
What are agranulocytes?
no granules in cytoplasm
What are the types of agranulocytes?
monocytes and lymphocytes
What are two subtypes of lymphocytes?
B and T
What is the alrgest WBC?
monocytes
What kind of nucleus do monocytes have?
PMN nucleus
When are monocyte numbers increased?
chronic infections
What is the lifespan of monocytes?
months
Once monocytes are in tissues, what are they called?
macrophages
What do monocytes line?
liver and spleen (RES = reticuloendothelial system
In the RES system, what is the job of monocytes?
to destroy old RBCs, necrotic tissue, and foreign organisms
What is the life span of lymphocytes?
years
What do the nucleus of lymphocytes look like?
large round to bean-shaped
What type of lymphocyte is responsible for humoral immunity?
B lymphocytes
What type of lymphocyte is responsible for cellular immunity?
T lymphocytes
What do B lymphocytes do?
react with antigens and differentiate into (become) plasma cells within lymph nodes. This causes the lymph nodes to enlarge
What are plasma cells?
B lymphocytes programmed to produce a specific antibody
B lymphocytes programmed to produce a specific antibody is called what?
plasma cells
What is an antibody?
a small protein specific to control one antigen
What is a small protein specific to control one antigen?
antibody
What are antibodies also called?
imunoglobulins
What are immunoglobulins also called?
antibodies
Where is immunoglobulin A (Ig A) present?
in secretions and on mucous membranes (small amounts in serium)
Is Ig A antiviral?
yes
What is Ig A?
immunogloblulin A
What is the first line of defense for infections entering via the mucous membranes?
Ig A
Ig A is stimulated by what?
oral and aerosol immunizations
What immunoglobulin is stimulated by oral and aerosal immunizations?
immunoglobulin A
Is Ig A present in colostrum?
yes
What is Ig D needed for?
maturation of B cells to become plasma cells
Where can you find small amounts of Ig D?
in serum and on the surface of B lymphocytes
What is Ig D?
Immunoglobulin D
Ig E responds to what?
parasitic infections
What is Ig E?
immunoglobulin E
What does Ig E bind to?
mast cells and basophils
What binds to mast cells and basophils?
Ig E
When do basophils and mast cells degranulate?
when Ig E antibody binds to antigen on the basophils and mast cells
What happens when Ig E antibody binds to antigen on the basophils and mast cells?
the cells degranulate
What do basophil and mast cells granules contain?
histamine and serotonin
What initiates the inflammatory response important to protect the body?
granules in basophils and mast cells
What is the most abundant immunoglobulin?
Immunoglobulin G
What is Ig G?
immunoglobulin G
How much of Ig G protein is found in serum?
80%
Is Ig G able to cross the placenta?
yes
What is the major immunoglobulin in colostrum?
Ig G
What indicates past exposure to antigen?
levels last Ig G
What does Ig G activate?
complement system
What activates the complement system?
Ig G
What does the complement system do?
neutralizes viruses, initiates inflammatory response, lyses antigen when antigen is an intact cell, participates in phagocytosis
What is the first antibody produced by the immune system?
Ig M
What is Ig M?
immunoglobulin M
What does an Ig M antibody titer mean?
an active infection
What is produced early in infection?
Ig M
Does Ig M also activate complement system?
yes
Why is humoral immunity “humoral”?
antibodis are dissolved in the blood
Where are T cells educated to perform immune jobs in cell-mediated immunity?
thymus
In cell-mediated immunity, what are T lymphocytes stimulated by?
antigens that produce chronic diseases (fungi, TB, Brucella, cancer, organ transplants)
In cell-mediated immunity, what acts as the antibody?
entire cell
In cell-mediated immunity, the entire cell acts as what?
the antibody
In cell-mediated immunity, the cell attaches to what?
foreign body and both T cell and foreign body are destroyed
What are the four types of T-cells?
helper, cytotoxic, memory, NK
What do helper t-cells do?
recognize antigenic material and get the process started
What do cytotoxic t-cells do?
“killer” cells against certain foreign antigens on almost any cells
What do memory t-cells do?
remember the antigen for the future
What do NK t-cells do?
“natural killer” specific for cells infected with viruses
What type of t-cell recognizes antigenic material and get the process started?
helper
What type of t-cell kills cells against certain foreign antigens on almost any cell?
cytotoxic
What type of t-cells remember the antigen for the future?
memory
What type of t-cells are a natural killer specific for cells infected with viruses?
NK
What percentage of blood is water?
92%
What percentage of blood is other liquids?
8%
What is in the ‘other’ liquid portion of blood?
7/8 Protein - albumin and globulin
1/8 Amino acids, waste, glucose, lipids, electrolytes
Where is albumin made?
the liver
What is the majority of the protein found in blood?
albumin
What does albumin do?
transport other substances throughout the body
What is albumin responsible for?
osmotic pressure to keep fluid in blood vessels.
What would happen to blood without osmotic pressure?
fluid in the blood vessels would leak to body cavities and tissues
Where is globulin made?
the liver
Globulin inactivates what?
precursors of enzymes or substrates for enzymes involved in blood clotting
What is the main bugger in blood?
HCO3 bicarbonate
What does a buffer in the blood do?
adjusts pH
Is bicarbonate positively or negatively charged?
negatively
What is plasma?
fluid part of unclotted blood
What does plasma contain?
antibodies and clotting factors
What is serum?
liquid portion of clotted blood
Does serum have clotting factors?
no
What does serum contain?
antibodies that we can give to another animal
What does immune serum mean?
has antibodies
What does hyperimmune serum mean?
lots of antibodies
Antibodies in serum give what?
temporary immunity until antibodies cone and then animal is susceptible again
Does plasma contain antibodies?
yes
What is blood volume?
total amount of blood in body
What is the total amount of blood in body?
blood volume
What is the range of blood volume?
7%-9% of body weight
In dogs, what is the blood volume calculation?
40ml / #
In cats, what is the blood volume calculation?
20ml / #
What percentage of a horse’s body weight is there blood volume?
9.7%
What percentage of a cow’s body weight is there blood volume?
7.7#
What percentage of a sheep’s body weight is there blood volume?
8%
What is the conversion factor for # to ml?
454 ml / #
What are the other body fluids that are derived from blood?
lymph, CSF, synovial fluid, serous fluids, aqeous humor, endolymph and perilymph
What are the two ways that tissue fluid returns to the heart?
- venous capillaries to veins to the heart
2. lymphatics to a vein near heart and then to the heart
What is lymph transported in?
lymphatic vessels
What does lymph look like?
clear, colorless (basically plasma w/o RBCs)
What does lymph carry a lot of?
lymphocytes
What is lymph with fat in it called?
chyle
What is chyle?
lymph with fat in it
What does lymph with fat in it look like?
milky white
What does CSF stand for?
cerebrospinal fluid
Where is CSF formed?
formed in ventricles and ten circulates over brain and spinal cord to nourish and cushion
What does CSF look like?
blood with few cells and less protein
Where is synovial fluid present?
joint cavities, tendon sheaths, bursae to reduce friction (lubricate) and nourish surfaces
What does synovial fluid look like?
thick, clear, colorless to slight yellow
What is the mucopolysaccharide content like in synovial fluid?
high
What does the high mucopolysaccharide content account for?
thick and lubricating nature
Where are serous fluids present?
in body cavities to reduce friction
What do serous fluids look like?
clear, colorless to slight yellow
With infections and irritation, the volume of serous fluids will be what?
increased
An increase in the volume of serous fluids may mean what?
infections, irritation, low total protein, ascites
When total protein in blood is low (low osmotic pressure) and allowing fluid to leak out of blood vessels and into cavities, the volume of serous fluids will be what?
increased
What is aqueous humor produced by?
the ciliary body portion of the vascular tunic of the eye
What does aqueous humor do?
nourishes surfaces of the eye and provides proper refraction for sight
Where does aqueous humor circulate?
within the anterior segment of theeye
What does aqueous humor look like?
clear, colorless, very fluid
What nourishes the surfaces of the eye and provides proper refraction for sight?
aqueous humor
What are the fluids within the ear?
endolymph and perilymph
What are endolymp and perilymph?
fluids within the inner ear
What is responsible for stimulating nerves that detect sound and balance
movement
Movement is responsible for stimulating nerves in the ear that what?
detect sound and balance
Where is endolymph contained?
within the membraneous labyrinth in contact with the cells detecting hearing and balance
What fluid is found contained within the membraneous labyrinth in contact with the cells detecting hearing and balance?
endolymph
Where is perilymph contained?
within the boney labyrinth and is continuous with CSF
What fluid is contained within the boney labyrinth and is continuous with CSF?
perilymp
Why are inner ear infections bad?
perilymph is continuous with CSF
What is a cytokine?
chemical messenger
What are classic signs of acute inflammation?
swelling, pain, heat, redness
What does turgor also mean?
swelling
What does dolor also mean?
pain
What does calor also mean?
heat
What does rugor also mean?
redness
What does anamnestic response mean?
memory response
Immunologic memory means what?
ability to have a fast amplified response after an initial exposure
With active immunity, who made the immunity?
the animal made its own immunity
With passive immunity, who made the immunity?
someone else. the animal acquired its immunity from another source that did the work.
Skin has what kind of immunity function?
barrier
Macrophages secrete what?
chemotactic factors
Do injured cells secrete chemotactic factors?
yes
What are eicosanoids?
chemical derivatives of long chain-fatty acids
What do eicosanoids function as?
chemical messages
Where do eicosanoids coe from?
arachidonic acid
What are types of eicosanoids?
prostaglandins, leukotrienes, thrombaxanes
What type of eicosanoids is made in nearly every tissue of the body?
prostaglandins
What kind of effects do prostaglandins have (as eicosanoids)?
local effects
What do prostaglandins do as an eicosanoid?
regulate blood vessel diameter, inflammation, blood clotting, uterine contraction
What produces leukotrienes?
monocytes and mast cells
What are leukotrienes associated with?
allergic reactions
What do leukotrienes do?
increase vascular permeability and induce constriction of airways (asthma)
What reduces the synthesis of thrombaxanes?
aspirin
What are thrombaxanes involved in?
blood clotting
What does the lymphatic system provide for?
circulation, production and maturation of immune cells
What does the lymphatic system do?
drains tissue fluid, brings microorganisms and other foreign substances into contact with immune cells
What do lymphatic vessels do?
collect tissue fluid
What parallels the venous system?
lymphatic vessels
Where do lymphatic vessels empty?
into cranial vena cava near heart by way of the thoracic duct draining caudal half of body
Tracheal trunks do what?
drain head and neck and empty into jugular veins
What can be done to make lymphatic vessels more visible?
feed a fatty meal
What are lymphoid tissues?
lymphocytes trapped in connective tissue
What are the 3 patterns of lymphoid tissues?
scattered, nodules, encapsulated
Where can you find a scattered pattern of lymphoid tissues?
mucous membranes (some tonsils)
Where can you find a nodules pattern of lymphoid tissues?
intestinal mucosa
Where can you find a encapsulated pattern of lymphoid tissues?
lymph node, spleen, thymus, tonsils
What does lymph flow past that looks at the fluid for foreign cells and substances?
immune cells
What do lymph nodes do?
filter lymph
What filters lymph?
lymph nodes
What do lymph nodes contain?
lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages
Where are B and T lymphocytes stored?
spleen
What does the spleen remove?
old and worn out RBCs
What kind of animals is the thymus seen in?
immature animals
Does the thymus completely disappear?
no
What accumulated in the thymus? why?
lymphocytes, learn to be “T” cells
Where are tonsils?
close to epithelium so that it contacts antigens easily
What do the crypts of tonsils do?
increase surface area
What are Peyer’s patches?
‘intestinal tonsils’
What do arteries do?
carry blood away from the heart
What do capillaries do?
feed tissues
What do veins do?
carry blood to the heart
What do lymph vessels do?
carry tissue fluid
What kind of vessel carries blood away from the heart?
arteries
What kind of vessel feeds tissues?
capillaries
What kind of vessel carries blood to the heart?
veins
What kind of vessel carries tissue fluid?
lymph vessels
Which has thicker walls - veins or arteries?
arteries
What do large arteries have that helps maintain blood pressure during distole?
elastic tissue in walls
Large arteries have what in their walls?
elastic tissue
What do smaller arteries have in their walls?
smooth muscle
What does the smooth muscle in smaller arteries do?
controls size of vessels and amount of blood flow
What do arterioles have?
smooth muscle cuff at end
What does the smooth muscle cuff at the end that arterioles have do?
controls flow to capillaries and maintains blood pressure. the control is lost in shock.
Do capillaries have a thin or thick wall?
thin
What do capillaries do?
allow single row of RBCs to pass, allow water in and out, O2 our, nutrients out, wastes in
How many rows of RBCs do capillaries allow to pass?
a single row
Are veins or arteries larger?
veins
Do veins have thinner or thicker walls than arteries?
thinner
Veins are often more what?
superficial
Is the BP in veins higher or lower than in arteries?
lower
What keeps blood flowing towards the heart in veins?
valves
Valves keep blood flowing toward the heart in what?
veins
What does the lymphatic system consist of?
lymph vessels and lymphoid tissue
Lymphoid tissue is what?
accumulations of lymphocytes
What system forms antibodies?
lymphatic system
Lymph vessels resemble what?
veins
Do lymph vessels have thin or thick walls?
thin
How does lymph move?
by gravity with help from changing pressures in nearby structures such as muscles contracting
What is chylothorax?
lymph free in the chest
What are lacteals?
special lymph vessels that drain wall of small intesting, absorb lipids
What are lymphatics?
lymph vessels
Where to lymph vessels empty?
into vena cava in chest via thoracic duct
What do lymph vessels have so that lymph flows only towards the heart?
valves
Where is the thymus located?
in the anterior mediastinum
The thymus is large until how hold?
one year of age
What are functions of the spleen?
blood cell formation, Hb and iron metabolism, RBC destruction, blood filtration, phagocytosis, blood storage
What is the shape of the spleen in the chicken?
spherical
The thick capsule of the spleen contains what?
smooth muscle and elastic fibers to allow for large volume changes
Is the spleen essential to an adult?
no
What shape are lymph nodes?
bean/pea shaped
What do lymph nodes contain?
macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells
How does lymph move through the lymph nodes?
enters at the cortex, percolates through medulla, leaves the hilus (in swine it’s reversed)
What do plasma cells produce?
antibodies to foreign material discovered in the lymph
Condition of the lymph node reflects what?
conditions of the area the lymph node drains
Lymph nodes that are active do what?
increase in size
What are the 3 layers of the heart?
epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
Where do myocardial infarctions occur?
myocardium
Where is valvular endocarditis a problem?
in the endocardium
What is the outer layer of the heart?
epicardium
What is the middle layer of the heart?
myocardium
What is the inner layer of the heart?
endocardium
The heart is a __ chambered pump.
4
Reptiles and birds have a __ chambered heart.
3
What surrounds the heart?
serous sac within the mediastinum
The atrium cranial does what?
receives blood from veins
The ventricle caudal does what?
pumps blood out of the heart into arteries
Which side of the ventricle has a thicker wall?
left
The apex is on which side of the ventricle?
left
What is between chambers that keeps blood flowing one direction?
valves
What valves are between the atrium and ventricle?
A-V valves
The left A-V valve is what?
biscuspid / mitral valve
The right A-V valve is what?
tricuspid valve
What happens in A valves?
the free margin attaches to papillary muscles on wall by chordae tendinae
What are 3-cusped valves between ventricles and arteries called?
semilunar valves
Where is the aortic semilunar valve located?
between left ventricle and aorta
Where is the pulmonic semilunar valve located?
between right ventricle and pulmonary atery
What are the very first arteries after the aortic valve?
coronary arteries
Where do arteries branch?
head to limb
Axillary arteries return as what?
cephalic veins
Carotid arteries return as what?
jugular veins
The diaphragm separates what?
the thorax and the abdomen
What does the cranial vena cava drain?
head and front limbs
What does the caudal vena cava drain?
structures caudal to the heart
Define portal circulation
vein to capillaries to vein
In the hepatic portal system, venous blood drained from digestive tract is rich in what? Travels to liver in what?
nutrients. portal vein.
Nutrients in the blood within the portal vein are processed by what?
the liver
In the liver, the portal vein branches and reaches what?
sinusoids (capillary network)
In the liver, what mixes?
arterial and venous blood
With the hepatic portal system, blood comes in direct contact with liver cells which do what?
modify nutrients, store nutrients, detoxify any harmful substances
What is the blood flow in the liver?
flows to central vein of each liver lobule, to hepatic vein, to caudal vena cava and then to the heart
What is respiration initiated by?
ligation/severing of umbilical cord, handling fetus, draft of air
What is the general stimulus for shunts to close?
the increased oxygen levels that result from respiration
Increased O2 content of blood causes smooth muscle wall of ductus arteriousus to what?
contract and ductus arteriosus closes in a few minutes
What is diastole?
relaxation of a chamber of the heart just prior to and during filling
What is systole?
the contraction of a chamber of the heart in the process of partial emptying
What effects cardiac output?
heart rate and blood pressure
What is the cardiac cycle?
Blood enters R atrium (from systemic circulation), and L atrium (from lungs). Atrial pressure exceeds entricular pressure, AV valves open. Blood flows to ventricles. Atria depolarize and contract, empty, relax. Ventricles depolarize and contract. Increased ventricular pressure forces AV valves closed. Ventricular prssure exceeds arterial prssure, aortic and pulmonic semilunar valves open, blood flows to aorta and pulmonary truck. Arterial pressure exceed ventricular pressure, semilunar valves close.
What is the first heart sound?
when increased ventricular pressure forces AV valves closed
What is the second heart sound?
when arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure, semilunar valves close
What part of the heart is also called the pacemaker?
sinoatrial node
Where is the SA node located?
junction of cranial vena cava and right atrium
The heart beat originates where?
SA node
Electricity spreads through atria to __.
AV node
Where is the AV node located?
in septum (wall) between atrea
Impulse is conducted to ventricular muscle by what?
AV bundle
What are purkinje fibers?
special muscle cells that conduct like nerve fibers
What is a heart block?
interruption in the normal impulse pathway from the SA node to the ventricular wals
What can heart blocks resukt in?
VPCs
What causes the heart to beat regularly without outside control?
SA node
The vagus nerve does what when controlling the heart rate?
inhibits actions of the heart
Stellate ganglia does what when controlling the heart rate?
stimulates action of the heart
Why is metabolic rate increased in small animals?
because small animals have increased surface area per unit of body mass compared to larger animals
Where is the sublingual artery?
under the tongue
Where is the facial artery?
palpate medial surface of mandible at corner of jaw
What is an EKG a measurement of?
heart electrical activity as seen at the surface of the body
What is depolarization?
electricity prior to contraction
What is repolarization?
electricity after contraction
What happens during depolarization?
Na+ rushes in and inside cell becomes more +
What happens during repolarization?
K+ moves out and cell charge returns to beginning levels. ATP later restores Na+ and K+ to starting places
During depolarization, there is increased permeability of cell membrane to __.
Na+
During repolarization, there is increased permeability of cell membrane to __.
K+
What does the P wave represent?
depolarization of atrium
What activity does the P wave represent?
activity from SA node through atrium
Is the P wave a contraction?
no
What does the QRS complex represent?
depolarization of ventricle
What activity does the QRS complex represent?
activity from AV bundle through its branches
Is the QRS complex a contraction?
no
What does the T wave represent?
repolarization of the ventricles
Is the T wave positive or negative?
can be either, but should stay the same
Is the T wave a contraction?
no
Define arrhythmia.
variation from normal heart rhythm. abnormality of rate, regularity or site of origin of cardiac impulse.
Define sinus arrhythmia.
a physiologic cyclic variation in heart rate related to vagal impulses to the SA node
Define bradycardia.
Slow HR, less than 60 bpm
Define tachycardia.
rapid HR
Define heart block.
impaired heart conduction; often between the atria and ventricles
What does a 1st degree heart block look like?
P wave w/ wait for QRS complex (prolonged PR interval). Delay of impulse SA node to AV node.
What does a 2nd degree heart block look like?
P wave with no QRS complex (interspersed with normal PQRST)
What does a 3rd degree heart block look like?
P wave and QRS complex occurs but they are not related. Atria and ventricles beating on own without relationship to each other
Define fibrillation.
rapid randomized contractions. no coordinated contraction.
Which side of the heart has higher blood pressure?
left side of the heart
Which side of the heart has lower blood pressure?
right side of the heart
What will increase blood pressure in the heart?
resistance to flow
What does resistance to flow in aorta cause?
left ventricle to hypertrophy
Where is central venous pressure taken?
right atrium
Resistance to pulmonary flow causes what?
right ventricle to hypertrophy to create higher pressure to overcome resistance
What is blood pressure?
the pressure that blood exerts against vessel walls
What is it called when heart contraction causes a wave of systolic pressure to move through the system?
pulse / pulse wave
Where can you feel a pulse can you feel in small animals?
femoral artery
Where can you feel a pulse in large animals?
facial artery, coccygeal artery
How is pulse pressure maintained?
by elastic walls of arteries during diastole
Why is there a drastic drop in pressure from arterioles to capillary beds?
muscle cuff on end arteriole and large area of capillary bed
What in veins is too low for venous return?
pressure
Decreased blood pressure causes increased __.
HR
Increased blood pressure causes decreased __ and ___ of ____ vessels.
HR. vasodilation. peripheral.
What is BP measured in?
mmHg
What are 4 pieces of equipment you can use to measure BP?
Sphygmomanometer, Central Venous Pressure (CVP), Doppler, arterial line (A-line)
What is a sphygmomanometer?
BP cuff + stethoscope + monitor
Define shock.
condition that results when effective volume of blood circulated is insufficient to supply adequate nutrition to body tissues and to remove wastes.
What are some causes of shock?
hemorrhage, dilation of visceral vessels from histamine released due to trauma and/or sepsis, fluid loss into tissues due to edema/fracture/soft tissue trauma, failure of blood to return to heart, failure of heart to pump
What are signs of shock?
peripheral cooling, altered consciousness, altered respiration, altered heart rate, altered mucous membrane color, altered CRT
In shock, why is there peripheral vasoconstriction?
to maintain blood flow to heart/brain
With shock, why is there a decreased return to heart?
fluid losses continuing or peripheral toxin build up damaging capillary walls
What are some consequences of decreased return to heart with shock?
heart can’t pump enough for adequate coronary circulation, weakened capillary walls lose more fluid
Why does shock make irreparable heart damage?
permeable capillaries and sluggish blood clots
What is the endocrine system comprised of?
ductless glands whose products are secreted directly into the blood stream
What is the purpose of the glands in the endocrine system?
to produce hormones
What are hormones?
chemical substances which regulate and integrate a great variety of metabolic processes carried on by the other tissues and organs of the body
Why are most endocrine glands small?
minute amounts are required
How long does it take blood to circulate through the entire body?
20 seconds
Hormone levels do what?
influence production or inhibition of other hormones
When looking at the neuroendocrine connection, nerves serve what purpose?
afferent purpose (information in)
When looking at the neuroendocrine connection, hormones provide what?
the reaction (efferent, information out)
What does the pineal gland sense?
daytime and is responsible for diurnal rhythm (lets animals know breeding season as well)
Diurnal means what?
animal is active in the day
Nocturnal means what?
animal is active at night
Crepuscular means what?
animal is active at twilight or just before dawn
What does the hypothalamus exert control over?
pituitary
What does the hypothalamus determine?
what the pituitary will produce
How are hormones delivered to the pituitary from the hypothalamus?
by blood, hypothalamus makes hormones and sends them in nerve fibers that go to the pituitary
Nerve pathways to the hypothalamus trigger what?
production or inhibition of pituitary hormones
Hypothalamus actions are affected by what?
circulating hormone levels
What are some things that hormones influence?
conception, gestation, parturition, digestion, growth, puberty, aging, homeokinesis
What does the endocrine system consister of?
pituitary (hypophysis), thyroid, parathyroid, metabolism, pancreas, adrenal, gonads, placenta, +/- pineal gland and thymus
What does ACTH stand for?.
adrenocorticotropic hormone
What’s the abbreviation for adrenocorticotropic hormone?
ACTH
Where is the source of ACTH?
pituitary
What is the target of ACTH?
adrenal cortex
What does ACTH produce?
glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens
What do glucocorticoids help withstand?
stress
What are androgens?
masculine sex hormone
What can terminate pregnancy in late stages?
glucocorticoids
Without adrenal gland function, when will the animal die?
in 2 weeks
What does FSH stand for?
follicle stimulating hormone
What is the acronym for follicle stimulating hormone?
FSH
Where does FSH come from?
pituitary
What is the target for FSH?
the ovary and the testicle
What does FSH do?
stimulate follicle/ovum formation in the female, and stimulate sperm formation in the male
What does GH stand for?
growth hormone
What is the acronym for growth hormone?
GH
What does STH stand for?
somatotropic hormone
What is the acronym for someatotropic hormone?
STH
Where does GH come from?
pituitary
Where does STH come from?
pituitary
What is the target for GH?
body tissues
What is the target for STH?
body tissues
What does GH do?
promotes growth
What does STH do?
promotes growth
What does LH stand for?
luteinizing hormone
What is the acronym for luteinizing hormone?
LH
Where does LH come from?
pituitary
What is the target of LH?
ovary and testicle
What does LH do?
stimulate ovulation and CL formation in females, stimulate testosterone release in males
What does LTH stand for?
prolactin
What is the acronym for prolactin?
LTH
Where does LTH come from?
pituitary
Where does prolacin come from?
pituitary
What is the target of LTH?
mammary gland (CL in some)
What is the target of prolaction?
mammary gland (CL in some)
What does LTH do?
cause lactation (CL in some -> progesterone)
What does prolactin do?
cause lactation (CL in some -> progesterone)
What does TSH stand for?
thyroid stimulating hormone
What is the acronym for thyroid stimulating hormone?
TSH
Where does TSH come from?
pituitary
What is the target of TSH?
thyroid
What does TSH do?
causes thyroxine (T4) production to increase metabolic rate
What does ADH stand for?
antidiuretic hormone
What is the acronym for antidiuretic hormone?
ADH
Where does ADH come from?
pituitary
What is the target of ADH?
kidney tubules, smooth muscle in arterioles
What does ADH do?
conserve water, constrict arterioles leading to increased blood pressure
What does OT stand for?
oxytocin
What is the acronym for oxytocin?
pituitary
What is the target of OT?
uterus, mammary gland
What does OT do?
cause smooth muscle contraction (uterus contraction and breeding and parturition, milk letdown) as well as a mood elevator
Where do glucocorticoids come from?
adrenal cortex
What is the target of glucocorticoids?
body tissues
What do glucocorticoids do?
- control normal carbohydrate/protein metabolism
- stimulate conversion of protein to carbohydrate for energy
- mobilize fatty acids from lipid tissues
- decreases inflammation and immune response
What disease do you get from greatly increased adrenocortical hormones?
Cushing’s Disease
What do animals with Cushing’s disease look like?
pot-bellied, thin skin because muscle and skin protein are converted to energy
Where do mineralocorticoids come from?
adrenal cortex
What is the target of mineralocorticoids?
body tissues
What does mineralocorticoids do?
- aldosterone (reabsorb Na+, Cl- and water and excrete K
- can cause addison’s disease
What happens if you have a great decrease in adrenalcortical hormones?
Addison’s Disease
What kind of electrolyte imbalances do you get with Addison’s disease?
hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
Where does epinephrine come from?
adrenal medulla
What is the target of epinephrine?
sympathetic nervous system
What does epinephrine do?
creates fight or flight response - prepare for emergencies, mobilize energy
Where dose thyroxine (T4) come from?
thyroid
Where does Triiodothyronine (T3) come from?
thyroid
What is the abbreviation for thyroxine?
T4
What is the abbreviation for triiodothyronine?
T3
What does T4 stand for?
thyroxine
What does T3 stand for?
triiodothyronine
What is the target of T4?
body tissues (almost all cells)
What is the target of T3?
body tissues (almost all cells)
What does T4 do?
increase metabolic rate, increases O2 consumption and ATP generation
What does T3 do?
increase metabolic rate, increases O2 consumption and ATP generation
What is the principal hormone released by the thyroid?
T4 (thyroxine)
Why would T3 considered to be more biologically important?
higher affinity of intracellular receptors for T3
How much of T3 comes from T4 that was converted?
80%
T3 and T4 bind to what?
plasma proteins
Deficiency in T4 causes what?
dwarfism, CNS disturbances, impaired mental development
What does an increase in T4 cause?
thin, irritable animals
What does CT stand for?
Thyrocalcitonin or Calcitonin
What is the acronym for thyrocalcitonin?
CT
What is the acronym for calcitonin?
CT
Where does CT come from?
thyroid
What is the target of CT?
bone
What does CT do?
- decreases Ca+ resorption from bone to help regulate Ca+ blood levels
- decreases Ca+ in blood, increases phosphorus
What does PTH stand for?
parathormone
What is the acronym for parathormone?
PTH
Where does PTH come from?
parathyroid
What is the target of PTH?
bone, GI, Kidneys
What does PTH do?
Increase blood Ca+ and decrease phosphate in the blood.
How does PTH increase blood Ca+ and decrease phosphate in the blood.
Ca+ resorbed from the bone into the blood, improved Ca+ resorption from GI, the kidney saves Ca+.
Where does insulin come from?
pancreas
Where in the pancreas does insulin come from?
beta-cells within the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)
What is the target of insulin?
body cells
What does insulin do?
- moves glucose into cells
- stimulates skeletal muscle and liver to synthesize glycogen (which is a storage form of glucose)
Glycogen is a storage form of what?
glucose
What happens when cells don’t have insulin?
cells think glucose levels are low, and use gluconeogenesis in the liver to make energy (glucose) from fats and proteins. The animal gets sick from the by-products of the fat metabolism.
Where does glucagon come from?
pancreas
What part of the pancreas does glucagon come from?
alpha-cells within the pancreatic islets
What is the target of glucagon?
liver
What does glucagon do?
- stimulates glycogenolysis to increase glucose in the blood
- stimulates gluconeogenesis
What is glycogenolysis?
breakdown of stored liver carbohydrate (ex. glycogen)
What is gluconeogenesis?
glucose production from new sources like fat and protein
Where does estrogen come from?
follicles of ovary and the placenta
What is the target of estrogen?
reproductive tract, body cells
What does estrogen do?
-reproductive tract growth
-helps maintain pregnancy (placental)
-female behavior in estrus, secondary sex characteristics
-stimulates Ca+ uptake in bones
stimulates increase in oxytocin receptors in smooth muscle of the uterus before birth
Where does relaxin come from?
corpus luteum of pregnant ovary
What is the target of relaxin?
reproductive tract
What does relaxin do?
dilation of cervix and relaxation of muscles and ligaments associated with the birth canal prior to parturition, facilitates mammary gland development
Where does progesterone come from?
CL (corpus luteum)
What is the target of progesterone?
reproductive tract
What does progesterone do?
- maintains pregnancy
- stimulates mammary gland growth
What is androgen also referred to as?
testosterone
Where does testosterone come from?
testes
What is the target of testosterone?
reproductive tract, body cells
What is required for sperm maturation?
FSH and testosterone
What does testosterone do?
-causes spermatogenesis
-development of accessory sex glands
behavior, male characteristics, increased growth
Where does chorionic gonadotropin come from?
placenta
What is the target of chorionic gonadotropin?
reproductive tract
What does chorionic gonadotropin do?
maintain pregnancy
Gastrin and histamine are secreted in response to what?
food, especially proteins
Where does gastrin come from?
stomach (gastric epithelium)
Where does histamine come from?
stomach (gastric epithelium)
What is the the target of gastrin?
cells in stomach (parietal cells and chief cells within gastric glands)
What is the target of histamine?
cells in stomach (parietal cells and chief cells within gastric glands)
What does gastrin do?
- cause parietal cells to secrete HCl (kills bacteria, creates acid chyme)
- cause chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
What does histamine do?
- cause parietal cells to secrete HCl (kills bacteria, creates acid chyme)
- which cause chief cells to secrete pepsinogen
What caused by the HCl in the stomach activates pepsinogen to pepsin?
low pH
What begins protein digestion in the stomach?
pepsin
Protein digestion is finished where?
in the small intestine by other enzymes
Histamine receptors on parietal cells are what?
H2 receptors and produce HCl
Histamine receptors on cells involved in allrgic reactions are what?
H1 receptors and produce allergy symptoms
What are H2 receptors that produce HCl on parietal cells?
histamine receptors
What are H1 receptors that produce allergy symptoms on cells involved in allrgic reactions?
histamine receptors
Drugs that are H2 receptor antagonists are used to what?
reduce acid secretion
Antihistamines used for allergies bind to what?
H1 receptors only and don’t disturb digestion
Where does secretin come from?
duodenum
What is the target of secretin?
pancreas, liver, stomach
What does secretin do?
- secrete NaHCO3 to creat basic pH
- secrete bile
- to slow the stomach down
What is NaHCO3?
sodium bicarbonate
Where does pancreozymin come from?
duodenum
What is the target of pancreozymin?
pancreas, stomach
What does pancreozymin do?
- promote secretion of pancreatic enzymes amylase and lipase
- slow down stomach
Which pancreatic enzyme aids in starch digestion?
amylase
Which pancreatic enzyme aids in fat digestion?
lipase
Where does renin come from?
juxtaglomerular cells of kidney
What is the target of renin?
angiotensin system in the blood
What does renin do?
- promotes aldosterone secretion from adrenal glands which makes the kidney conserve Na+ and water. Results in increased BP and blood volume
- Makes smooth muscle of arterioles constrict (increased BP)
What is renin?
a hormone produced in the kidney
What is rennin?
a proteolytic enzyme secreted by gastric epithelial cells of very young mammals
What does rennin do?
- changes the character of ingested milk from liquied to a semisolid curd
- increases time milk is retained in the stomach, permits protein digestion to begin
Where does erythropoietin come from?
kidney
When is erythropoietin produced?
when kidney detects hypoxia
What is the target of erythropoietin?
bone marrow
What does erythropoietin do?
bone marrow increases RBC production
When does erythropoietin production cease?
when levels are adequate and O2 levels are normal in the kidney
In the horse, where is the long pastern located?
between the fetlock joint and pastern joint
What is the function of the long pastern?
to increase flexibility of the fetlock joint and thus reduce concussion
Where is the short pastern located?
between long paster and coffin bone
What is the function of the short pastern?
allows the foot to twist to adjust to uneven ground
What does the coffin bone determine?
shape of hoof
What is the coffin bone?
attachment spot for vessels and nerves that make up the sensitive structures of the foot, and form a hydraulic cushion between bone and hoof
Where is the navicular bone located?
between and underneat the short pastern and coffin bone
The navicular bone is a fulcrum for what?
the deep flexor tendon
What is the function of elastic structures in the hoof?
to absorb concussion and help circulate blood from foot
What are lateral cartilages?
wing-like on the sides of foot
What do lateral cartilages do?
reduce concussion and allow rear part of hoof wall to expand and contract
Where is the plantar cushion located?
between lateral cartilages on side, short pastern and navicular above and frog below
What is the plantar cushion?
shock absorber between pastern bone and frog
What is the coronary cushion?
elastic portion of the coronary band
What does the coronary cushion do?
reduces and transfers concussion between the hoof wall and coffin bone
What is on both sides of lateral cartilages and in sensitive structures are compressed by the plantar cushion and hoof wall against the lateral cartilages and coffin bone?
venous plexuses
Why are some structures in the hoof ‘sensitive’?
they contain mainy blood vessels and nerve endings
What does injury to sensitive structures in horses cause?
pain and bleeding
What is the coronary band known as?
hoof wall
Perioplic Ring =
Periople
sensitive laminae =
white line
sensitive sole =
sensitive frog = horny frog
horny sole
sensitive frog =
horny frog
Where is the coronary band?
around the upper edge of the hoof under hoof junction with skin
Injury to the coronary band will cause what?
defective horn in the oof at that point
What is the function of the hoof wall?
to bear weight of horse
What is the primary growth and nutritional source for the hoof wall?
coronary band
Changes in horse’s condition and body temp will cause what?
changes in growth of hoof (rings)
How many months of information is seen when observing a hoof?
12 months
Where is the perioplic ring?
just above coronary band and next to hairline
What does the periople protect?
the sensitive coronary band
What sensitive structure joins the skin to the hoof wall?
perioplic ring
The perioplic ring produces what?
thin layer of horn cells that extend 3/4” to 1” down hoof wall called periople
What is it called when the underside of the periople flakes off and is carried down hoof?
hoof varnish
Hoof varnish protects what?
the horn of hoof wall and reduces loss of moisture
What protects the horn of hoof wall and reduces loss of moisture?
hoof varnish
Where is the sensitive laminae?it lies between the hoof wall and coffin bone, and covers bone outer surface
it lies between the hoof wall and coffin bone, and covers bone outer surface
What does the sensitive laminae do?
join the coffin bone to the hoof wall, suspends horse from hoof wall by the interlocking lamina leaves
Sole end of the laminae leaves marks what?
the junction of hoof wall and sensitive lamina (white line)
How wide is the white line?
1/8”
What is a guide for shaping shoe and placing nails?
white line
What does the sensitive sole cover?
ventral surface of coffin bone
The sole is NOT what?
weight bearing
What does the sole protect?
sensitive structures about it
How does excess sole growth slough off?
by wear or is trimmed with hoof knife
What does the sensitive sole do?
nourishes horn-producing layer of cells which make horny sole
What is a good indicator of hoof health?
frog
What does the frog function as?
a shock absorber, traction device, circulation aid (helps transfer concussion to plantar cushion)
What does the sensitive frog nourish?
horn-producing layer of cells producing horny frog
Why does the frog remain elastic and pliable?
due to presence of fat-secreting glands and its high moisture content
In horses, support in standing is procided by what two structures?
stay apparatus in foreleg, stay apparatus and reciprocal apparatus in hindleg
Define stay apparatus.
those structures that permit the horse to stand with relatively little muscular activity in the limbs
What does the forelimb stay apparatus involve?
long head of triceps + tendon of biceps + ligaments, tendons, sesamoids to form a sling across the caudal surface of the fetlock that helps prevent excessive hyperextension of the fetlocl
What does the hindlimb stay apparatus involve?
tensor fasciae latae + ligaments, tendons, sesamoids that form a sling across the caudal surface of the fetlock
Define reciprocal apparatus.
attachment of muscles that require the hock and stifle to flex or extend in unison
What does a reciprocal apparatus involve?
1 muscle on front surface of leg and 2 muscles on back surface of leg
What does a reciprocal apparatus for the hock and stifle to do?
move in unison
Define arthrology.
the study of joints
Joints are either:
immoveable, lightly moveable, or freely moveable
What are joints classified by?
structure, and material joining the bones together
What are the three general types of joints?
fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
What are examples of fibrous joints?
joint between the splint bones and the cannon, sutures of the skull, joints between teeth and sockets in skull
What do fibrous joints not have?
joint cavity
What joins the bones in fibrous joints?
fibrous tissue
Fibrous joints allow what?
slight movement for some areas, no movement for others
Fibrous tissue joins the bones in what kind of joint?
fibrous joints
Do cartilaginous joints have a joint cavity?
no
What joins the bones in cartilaginous joints?
cartilage
Are cartilaginous joints moveable?
no, their immoveable
What is the exception to cartilaginous joints being immoveable?
hormonal influence on the joints of the pelvis at parturition allows for slight relaxation of the joints to enlarge the birth canal (especially in young cows)
What are examples of cartilaginous joints?
- growth plate of immature bone (hyaline cartilage)
- fibrocartilage connects adjacent sternebrae
- fibrocartilage connects adjacent vertebrae at the disc area between the veterbral bodies
- adjacent pelvic bones
- mandibular symphysis (jaw midline)
What are called the sternebrae?
the bones making up the breastbone
What are the bones making up the breatbone called?
sternebrae
What kind of joints are the ones we think of when we talk about joints?
synovial joints
Do synovial joints have a joint cavity?
yes
What kind of joint is freely moveable?
synovial joints
What are examples of synovial joints?
- stifle
- carpus
- some intervertebral joints (not the IV disc area, that’s cartilaginous)
- connection of ribs to vertebrae
- hip
When talking about a synovial joint, what is the articular cavity?
joint cavity
What is the potential space between the bones called?
joint cavity
Define joint cavity.
potential space between the bones
What are parts of the synovial joint?
articular surfaces, articular cartilage, articular cavity (joint cavity), joint capsule
What are articular surfaces when talking about synovial joints?
ends of bones within the joint
What are articular surfaces made out of when talking about synovial joints?
compact bone
What are articular surfaces?
ends of bones within the joint
What are articular surfaces made out of?
compact bone
What covers the compact bone on the articular surfaces?
hyaline cartilage
What does hyaline cartilage cover?
the compact bone on the articular surfaces
What does the joint capsule consist of?
two parts with a fat pad between in some areas
What are the two parts of the joint capsule?
synovial membrane and fibrous membrane
What is the inner part of the joint capsule called?
synovial membrane
What secretes fluid called “synovial fluid”?
synovial membrane
The synovial membrane secretes what?
a fluid called synovial fluid
Define arthritis.
increased amount of inflammation
What is an increased amount of inflammation called?
arthritis
What does synovial fluid look like?
clear and thick
What does synovial fluid do?
lubricates to decrease friction
What may the synovial membrane contain?
villi and folds to increase the inner capsule surface area
What is the outside part of a joint capsule called?
fibrous membrane
Define fibrous membrane.
outside part of the joint capsule
What may the fibrous membrane contain?
extracapsular ligaments
Where are extracapsular ligaments located?
in fibrous membrane of joint capsule (outer, superficial joint capsule)
Where are intracapsular ligaments located?
within the joint itself
Where are intra-articular ligaments located?
within the joint itself
What are examples of extracapsular ligaments?
collateral, dorsal, palmer (plantar), annular
Where are collateral extracapsular ligaments found?
on medial and lateral sides of joint
Where are dorsal extracapsular ligaments found?
on the front of the joint
Where are palmer (plantar) extracapsular ligaments found?
on back, ventral, and posterior surfaces of joint
Where are annular extracapsular ligaments found?
they surround the joint in a ring shape
What are examples of intracapsular ligaments?
cruciate ligaments (ACL and PCL), carpal/tarsal ligaments, round ligament
Where are cruciate ligaments found?
within the stifle joint
What are two examples of cruciate ligaments?
anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament
What do the carpal/tarsal ligaments do?
hold carpal/tarsal bones together
What does the round ligament do?
holds hip in the socket
Where is the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) located?
lateral condyle to cranial tibia
Where is the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) located?
medial condyl to caudal tibia
Where is the meniscus located?
at the stifle
What does the meniscus act as?
a shock absorber
A torn meniscus can cause some what?
difficulty
What is the meniscus?
fibrocartilage cushion between the femus and tibia
What are the types of synovial joints?
simple and compound
Examples of simple synovial joints.
shoulder joint and hip joint
Examples of compound synovial joints.
carpals, tarsals, radio-ulnar-carpal joint
What is a simple synovial joint?
only two bones involved within the joint capsule
What is a compound synovial joint?
more than two bones involved within the same joint capsule
What type of synovial joint may have more than one joint capsule? Example?
compound joint, tarsus (hock)
What does the bursa do?
protects structures that move a short distance in relation to each other
What si the bursa?
a synovial sac located between two structures that rub against each other
Is the bursa associated with a joint?
no
What is bursitis?
increase in fluid is seem with inflammation
In the bursa, what is an increase in fluid that is seen with inflammatino?
bursitis
What are examples of bursas?
bicipital bursa, atlantal bursa, supraspinous bursa, bursa between triceps tendon and olecranon process of the ulna, bursa between skin and superficial digital flexor tendon at point of the hock
Where is the bicipital bursa?
where the biceps tendon crosses the point of the shoulder and rubs humerus
What bursa is where the biceps tendon crosses the point of the shoulder and rubs humerus?
bicipital bursa
What is bicipital bursitis?
inflammation of the bicipital bursa
What is inflammation of the bicipital bursa?
bicipital bursitis
Where is the atlantal bursa?
where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the atlas (cervical vetebra 1)
What bursa is where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the atlas (cervical vetebra 1)?
atlantal bursa
What is poll evil?
inflammation of the atlantal bursa
What is inflammation of the atlantal bursa?
poll evil
Where is the supraspinous bursa?
where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the spinous process of the T2 vertebrae
What bursa is where the ligamentum nuchae contacts the spinous process of the T2 vertebrae?
supraspinous bursa
What is ‘fistulous withers’?
inflammation of th e supraspinous bursa
What is inflammation of the supraspinous bursa?
fistulous withers
What is the synovial sheath?
elongated bursa between tendon and surrounding issue
What does the synovial sheath surround?
the tendon
What does the synovial sheath do?
protects structures moving over a long distance
What is an increase in fluid in the synovial sheath called?
synovitis
What is synovitis?
an increase in fluid in the synovial sheath
The the synovial sheath and the tendon is inflammed, what is it called?
tendosynovitis
What is tendosynovitis?
the synovial sheath and the tendon is inflammed
Examples of synovial sheaths.
- synovial sheath around the superficial digital flexor tendon over the cannon bone
- synovial sheath around the deep digital flexor tendon over the cannon bone and above the hock
- inflammation involving both of these tendons over the cannon bone (bowed tendon)
- inflammation involving the deep digital flexor tendon about the hock (thoroughpin)
What do hinge joints allow?
flexion, extension, hyperextension
What do gliding joints allow?
gliding movements on small, flat surfaces
What are examples of hinge joints?
fetlock, atlanto-occipital joint (nodding yes), jaw when it opens and closes
What is an example of a gliding joint?
between carpal bones
What does ginglymus stand for?
hinge
What does arthrodial stand for?
gliding
How does a joint move if it’s rotary?
pivots around one axis
What are examples of joints with a rotary joint movement?
atlanto-axial joint (C1 and C2 pivot at the dens on C2 when shaking head “no”
What does rotary stand for?
trochoid
What does trochoid stand for?
rotary
What does ball and socket stand for?
spheroid or enarthrodial
What does spheroid or enarthrodial stand for?
ball and socket
What are examples of joints with a ball and socket movement?
coxo-femoral (hip) and scapulo-humeral (shoulder)
What kind of movements are possible with ball and socket joints?
many movements possible
What kind of injuries can occur with joints?
dislocations, fractures, sprains, cuts, punctures
What is dislocation of a joint also known as?
luxation
Why is early treatment of luxation of a joint important?
to avoid joint cavity filling with connective tissue
What happens with luxation of a joint?
stretch/tear ligaments, stretch/tear joint capsule, tear blood vessels
What happens if you don’t treat a luxation of a joint?
possible functional false joint, blood clot surrounding the bone becomes “orgaized” or mature, movement may be allowed
If a fracture is located near or within a joint, it is hard to what?
reduce (appose the edges)and immobilize the fracture
How would you treat a sprain of a joint?
rest
What is a sprain?
stretched ligaments
If a joint is cut, what does that mean?
the joint is open and it may involve tendons, or tendon sheaths
If a joint is cut, and has lost joint fluid, what does that result in?
decreased lubrication (joint moves less well)
Why is it hard to treat cuts in joints?
hard to get good drainage from the joint, hard to get drugs to all areas of the joint
How would an infection enter a cut in a joint?
from outside the body
When speaking about joints, what may a puncture involve?
tendons, sheaths
What does hematogenous spread mean?
infection due to spread through the blood stream
What does lymphogenous spread mean?
infection due to spread through the lymph
Define arthritis.
inflammation of the joint with swelling and pain
What is degenerative joint disease?
multiple changes in a chronically inflamed joint
What does degenerative joint disease include?
loss of articular cartilage, erosion of underlying bone, development of bone spurs around the margins of the joint
What are bone spurs also called?
osteophytes or enthesiophytes
What are osteophytes?
bone spurs
What are enthesiophytes?
bone spurs
If hyaline cartilage needs to be repaired, what will it be like?
fibrocartilage which won’t be as smooth
What does original hyaline cartilage look like?
smooth and glassy
What is scurvy?
joint pain due to a break down in collagen resulting from Vitamin C deficiency
What are signs of scurvy?
lameness, swollen joints (also hemorrhages in SQ, skeletal muscle, subperiosteum, adrenal cortex, intestines)
What species is susceptible to scurvy?
guinea pigs, primates
What does scurvy also cause?
immunosuppression and increase susceptibility to infectious diseases
What are the 3 types of muscle?
smooth, cardiac, skeletal
Which type of muscle is involuntary unstriated?
smooth
Which type of muscle is involuntary striated?
cardiac
Which type of muscle is voluntary striated?
skeletal
A penniform muscle shape is?
Fan shaped and has the greatest power
What is an example of a muscle with a penniform shape?
Trapezius
What is an example of a parallel muscle shape that is in wide sheets?
Abdominal muscles
What is an example of a parallel muscle shape that is in narrow bands?
Inner thigh muscle
What are examples of a spindle shape muscle?
Biceps and triceps
Spindle shape muscle has what kind of center?
fat
How does muscle attach to bone?
tendons
Most tendons are ___ or ____.
cords/bands
What are aponeuroses? Where are they found?
Tendons that are flat sheets. Abdominal muscles.
Most muscles attach to two ________.
different bones
What is the cutaneous trunci?
Attachment between skin and over muscles, it allows the skin to “flick” to remove a fly
Sphincter muscles are ____ or ____.
striated / smooth
What do sphincter muscles surround?
an opening
What do synergists do?
stabilize one or more bones
What stabilizes the shoulder when only elbow movement is desired?
synergists
Why would a muscle group be unacceptable for injection purposes?
Damage to cuts of meat, no good place for an infection to easily drain without causing extensive tissue damage
Which muscles are heavy muscles suitable for injections in horses?
pectorals
What muscles are heavy muscles that may be used for deep IM injections in dogs?
lumbar muscles
What kind of injection would you give a dog in the lumbar muscles?
Immiticide HW treatment
What is one muscle fiber called?
myofiber
Some muscle fibers are built for ____ and others for ___ action.
endurance, quick
T/F. Quarter horses have more quick fibers than Arabians, who have more endurance fibers.
true
What are the contractile elements of a myofilament?
actin and myosin
What do “cross-bridges” on the myosin do?
Link with actin during contraction and pull the actin toward the center of the muscle cell
The movement of the actin long the myosin causes what?
The striped pattern of skeletal muscle
The striped pattern of skeletal muscle is caused by what?
The movement of the actin along the myosin
Why would a piece of muscle placed under the microscope have visible stripes?
Due to the overlap of actin and myosin
What is the sarcotubular system?
Rapid transit for muscle messages
The sarcotubular system surrounds ____.
Each myofibril
What does the sarbotubular system form?
A connecting system that allows rapid conduction of nerve impulses to all parts of the muscle fiber at one time
How does nerve information get to the muscle cell?
through the motor unit
One nerve will branch to _____ muscle cells.
many
What is a motor unit?
The nerve fiber plus all the muscle fibers innervated
What is the neuromuscular junction?
The point where the nerve reaches the muscle fiber
Is there a space between the nerve ending and the muscle?
yes
What does ACh stan for?
acetylcholine
Where is acetylcholine stored?
at the end of the nerve
What does acetylcholine increase?
the permeability of the muscle fiber membrane to sodium
What does acetylcholine bind with?
receptor sites on the muscle fiber surface
Depolarization triggers muscle cell contraction if what?
the change in cell charge is great enough
Depolarization spreads how?
rapidly to the entire muscle through the sarcotubular system
Calcium helps what to form in the muscles?
cross-bridges
What does the sarcotubular system release?
calcium into the area around the actin and myosin contractile elements
What maintains the tone of muscle?
small contractions that may occur that we don’t see
A muscle contraction will not be seen unless what?
the stimulus is enough to trigger many muscle fibers to contract
What is an important role of calcium when it comes to muscles?
accelerates ACh release from the end of the nerve
Creatine phosphate is in __ concentration in the muscle.
high
ATP and Calcium are required for what?
contraction
How much ATP is needed for muscle contraction?
low amounts
How much ATP is needed for muscle relaxation?
high amounts
Define summation.
an additive effect of contraction
Define tetany.
continuous contraction (muscle spasm)
How many contractions are needed before maximum efficiency is reached?
30
What is pulmonary hypertensive heart disease a response to?
chronic hypoxia, hypocapnia, respiratory alkalosis of high-altitude environment
Smooth muscle is harder to what?
fatigue or tetanize
The sarcotubular system is not as well developed in which type of muscle?
cardiac
What do intercalated disks do?
provide connection between cardiac cells
High requirement for ___ in cardiac muscle.
ATP
is nerve stimulation required in cardiac muscle?
no
What depolarizes faster than any other part of the heart muscle?
SA node
T/F. Cardiac muscle contraction is slower than skeletal muscle.
true
Is tetany common in cardiac muscle?
no it’s rare
How is the right kidney in the horse shaped?
heart-shaped
In which species is the kidney spread out along the lumbosacral area?
chicken
What is the fundus of the bladder?
free rounded cranial portion
What is the trigone part of the bladder?
area of ureteral orifices and bladder sphincter
Increased pressure in the bladder stimulates what?
spinal reflex at L6-L7
Repro tract is ____ to urinary tract.
dorsal
How much of circulating blood is in a kidney at any given time?
1/4 total of circulating blood
What are the four main functions of the kidney?
- regulate water balance
- regulate electrolyte levels
- RBC productions (produces erythropoietin)
- eliminates waste
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
nephron
What percentage of nephrons work at any given time?
25%
What does sodium promote?
water retention
Destruction of adrenal cortex causes ______ in K+ which are life threatening.
elevations
Unregulated secretion of aldosterone by adrenal tumor can cause significant _____ in plasma K+ which are life threatening.
reductions
Where are the collecting tubules and loops of henle located?
medulla
The medulla is ____.
striated
Where does urine collect, enter the ureter and travel to the bladder?
renal pelvis
What does the proximal convulated tubule do?
reabsorbs most of the things the body needs, secretes wastes from blood into tubule
What triggers the release of erythrpoietin from the kidney?
hypoxia
Define hydronephrosis.
obstruction of urine flow with back flow of urine
