Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Hygiene Board Review > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

the _______ of the drug is plotted where the dose is increasing sharply

A

therapeutic range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the ________ of a drug may exhibit is plotted where the curve plateaus

A

maximum response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a function of the amount of a drug to produce an effect

A

potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the potency is _____ when the dose is smaller

A

greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

maximum intensity of effect or response that can be produced by the drug regardless of dose

A

efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what happens when you administer more of a drug? - more or less chance of adverse effects? more or less efficacy?

A

same efficacy, more chance of adverse effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

half life is related to what?

A

duration of effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the length of drugs effect

A

duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the time it takes for the drug to have an effect

A

onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

placed directly into the GI tract by oral or rectal administration

A

enteral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

drug bypasses GI tract, includes injection, inhalation, and topical

A

parenteral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

considered safest, least expensive, and most convenient drug administration

A

oral route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

largest area of absorption

A

small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

drugs with high first pass effect needs smaller or larger dose

A

larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

drug blood levels are less predictable for which drug administration

A

oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

are drugs absorbed well or poorly rectally?

A

poorly and irregularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

produces most rapid drug response, absorption phase is bypassed, more predictable response, drug irretrievability, allergy, local irritation

A

IV route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

absorption occurs due to high blood flow in skeletal mm, useful for sustained effect, massage increases absorption

A

IM route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

places for IM injections

A

deltoid or gluteal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

route used to administer protein products, may produce sterile abscess or hematoma, ex: insulin and LA

A

Subcutaneous route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

provides rapid delivery of drug across large surface area or respiratory mucosa

A

inhalation route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

drug application to body surface, most effective in keratinized tissue, used when local effect is desired, may have systemic uptake

A

topical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

injected into dermis, ex: TB skin test

A

intradermal route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

topical contraindicated when

A

ulcerated, burned, abraded skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

study of how drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted by the body

A

pharmacokinetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

readily move across most biological membranes by diffusion (only drugs to pass blood brain barrier)

A

lipid soluble drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

transfer of drugs from site of administration to blood stream

A

absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

absorption depends on what factors

A

drug solubility, circulation at deposition site, surface area, drug pH, temp at site, mechanical factors (massaging injection site)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

process b which a drug reversibly leaves the blood stream and enters system

A

distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

after being absorbed, drugs go where?

A

organ with highest blood flow,
oral- liver
sublingual- heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

distribution dependent on what?

A

blood flow, capillary permeability (blood brain barrier), binding drugs to protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

an abundant plasma protein that binds to a remarkably wide range of drugs

A

plasma albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

major site for drug metabolism

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

does elimination terminate drugs effect?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

drugs are most often eliminated by biotransformation or excretion to where

A

urine or bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what excretion is most important?

A

renal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

routes of excretion

A

renal, liver, lungs, bile, GI, sweat, milk, exhalation, saliva, ging crevicular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

drugs may be excreted or unchanged as

A

metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

major route of Fl elimination

A

excretion in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

factors that alter drug effects

A

pt compliance, physiological factors, tolerance, pathologic state, time of administration, route of administration, sex, genetic variation, drug interactions, environment, age/weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

amount of desired effect is excessive, dose relation

A

toxic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

dose related reaction that is not part of the desired therapeutic outcome, non therapeutic action of drug such as the drowsiness that occurs with antihistamine use

A

side effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

abnormal drug response that is usually genetically related

A

idiosyncratic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

hypersensitivy response to a drug to which the pt has been previously exposed, not dose related!

A

drug allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

casual relationship between maternal drug use and congenital abnormalities
ex: thalidomide induction fo phocomelia (shortened limbs)

A

teratogenic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

local tissue irritation, ex: necrosis at site of injection

A

local effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

effect of one drug is altered by another

A

drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

immune hypersensitivity reaction, mild or life threatening

A

allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

tx of mild allergic reactions

A

antihistamine with to w/ out steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

tx of anaphylactic reaction

A

epi SQ w/ or w/ out steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

meds for ging enlargement

A

phenytoin, cyclosporine, CCBs (nifedipine, verapamil, amlodipine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

ging overgrowth associated with phenytoin generally occurs where

A

ant facial region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

do digoxin, beta blockers, and tegretol cause ging overgrowth?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ANS system controls what?

A

automatic, involuntary responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ANS responsible for

A

BP, HR, GI motility, salivation, bronchial/smooth mm tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

two divisions of ANS

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

NTM for rest and digest system

A

ACH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

used to mimic the effects of the PNS, also known as cholinergic agents or muscarinic drugs

A

parasympathomimetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

parasympathomimetics used to tx what?

A

xerostomia, urinary retention, glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

cholinergic agents derived from plant alkaloids

A

pilocarpine- stimulates saliva

nicotine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

contraindications for parasympathomimetics

A

asthma, peptic ulcer, cardiac disease, GI/urinary obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

inhibits ACH effects by blocking ACH receptors

A

anticholinergic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

examples of anticholinergics

A

atropine, immodium, scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

prototype of anticholinergic, use pre-op to decrease salivary flow in dental setting

A

atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

used for motion sickness, anticholinergic

A

scopolamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

SNS NTM

A

NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

sympathomimetics, or adrenergic agents, mimic effects of SNS

A

epi, albuterol, ritalin, adderal, dopamine, clonidine (opiate and benzo withdrawal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

adverse effects of adrenergic agents

A

CNS disturbances (anxiety, fear, tension, headache, tremor), cardiac arrhythmias, cerebral hemorrhage, pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

contraindications for sympathomimetics

A

angina, uncontrolled hypertension/hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

beta receptor located mainly in heart

A

beta 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

beta receptor located all over body, but mainly in lungs

A

beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

action of beta 1 receptors

A

increase heart rate/bp, heart needs more O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

prototype of nonselective b-adrenergic blockers, lowers BP by lowering CO, adverse reactions- bronchoconstriction, arrhythmias

A

propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

reduces aqueous humor in the eye, used topically in the tx of glaucoma

A

timolol (timoptol, timoptic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

cardioselective b-blocker, eliminates bronchoconstrictor effect, used in tx of hypertensive asthmatic pts

A

atenolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

cardioselective beta blocker, used for hypertension, prevention of MI and angina

A

metroprolol (lopressor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

limit epi containing LA to ___ carpules in pts taking non selective beta blockers due to potential increase in BP

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

prototype of non-narcotic analgesias, considered a NSAID, analgesia, antipyretic, anti-inflammator, inhibits PG synthesis, fever reduced through action on hypothalamus

A

aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

side effects of aspirin

A

interferes with clotting, GI irritation, hypersensitivity, Reye’s syndrome, toxicity (salicylism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

symptoms of aspirin toxicity

A

GI upset, vomiting, dim vision, tinnitus, coma, respiratory and metabolic acidosis, death from respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Considered a NSAID, inhibits PG synthesis, analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, side effects- interferes with clothing, GI irritation

A

Ibuprofen (advil, motrin, nuprin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

can you take ibuprofen with aspirin?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

considered NSAID, reversible inhibits COX 1 and @ enzymes, analgesic, antipyretic, anti-inflammatory, prolongs bleeding time, increased risk for CV thrombotic events

A

Naproxen (aleve)

84
Q

taking an NSAID and phenytoin can do what

A

increase phenytoin levels

85
Q

analgesic, antipyretic, prototype- Tylenol, side effects and interactions are rare, drug of choice for pts on anticoagulants or with PUD

A

Acetaminophen

86
Q

drug of choice following SRP

A

acetaminophen

87
Q

acetaminophen overdose can result in

A

hepatotoxicity, liver necrosis, death

88
Q

used for pain when non opioids fail, block pain receptors in the brain without loss of consciousness

A

narcotic/opioid analgesics

89
Q

narcotic/opioid prototype

A

morphine

90
Q

most commonly used opioid in dentistry

A

codeine

91
Q

sign of overdose/addiction of opioid is ___ pupils

A

pinpoint

92
Q

overdose of narcotics

A

respiratory depression and death

93
Q

emesis is a ___ of codeine

A

side effect

94
Q

does codeine cause constipation

A

yes it can

95
Q

opioid antagonist, used to tx opioid overdose

A

narcan

96
Q

tx of narcotic withdrawal and dependance, taken orally for once a day, heroin, morphine, other opioids,

A

methadone

97
Q

things to note for heroin users

A

pinpoint pupils, discolored tongue, use NSAIDs for pain relief

98
Q

the ability to kill bacteria, irreversible action

A

bactericidal

99
Q

the ability to inhibit or slow the multiplication or growth of bacteria

A

bacteriostatic

100
Q

lowest concentration needed to inhibit visible growth of an organism

A

minimun inhibitory concentration (MIC)

101
Q

natural or acquired ability of an organism to be immune or to resist the effects of an anti-infective agent

A

resistance

102
Q

range of activity of a drug

A

spectrum

103
Q

occurs when the combo of 2 antibiotics produce more effects that if their individual effects were added

A

synergism

104
Q

occurs when a combo of 2 agents produce less effect than either agent alone

A

antagonism

105
Q

most commonly prescribed antibacterial in the dental profession

A

penicillin VK

106
Q

penicillin inactivated by gastric acids

A

penicillin G

107
Q

work by destroying bacterial cell wall integrity which leads to lysis, most effective against rapidly goring organism (logarithmic phase)

A

penicillin

108
Q

antibiotic most likely to produce anaphylactic reaction

A

penicillin, usually rash

109
Q

______ in combo with amoxicillin (known as augmentin) prevents penicillinase from breaking amoxicillin down

A

clavulanic acid

110
Q

may be used systemically to tx NUG/NUP, mixing this with other antibiotics usually results in antagonism, bacteriostatic, work by inhibiting protein synthesis

A

tetrecycline

111
Q

inhibit collagenase production- may be used in chronic perio

A

tetracyclines

112
Q

effective against obligate anaerobes only, has anabuse like reaction- alcohol should be avoided (even mouth rinse)

A

nitromidazoles (metronidazole)

113
Q

antiTB drugs

A

rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol (all 4 drugs need to be taken at same time to tx active TB)

114
Q

TB, red urine, tears, saliva

A

rifampin

115
Q

TB, may lead to hepatotoxicity

A

Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide

116
Q

TB, decreased red/green color discrimination, decreased visual acuity

A

ethambutol

117
Q

if taking only isoniazid and rifampin only, what does this mean?

A

preventative

118
Q

___ consecutive neg sputum tests needed to determine someone with TB is no longer contagious

A

3

119
Q

antigen used to aid in the diagnosis of TB, known as mantoux skin test

A

purified protein derivative

120
Q

topical, most frequently used anti fungal in dentistry

A

nystatin

121
Q

diflucan, systemic med used in tx of oral candidiasis

A

fluconazole, anti fungal

122
Q

clotrimazole

A

mycelex, anti fungal

123
Q

ketoconazole

A

Nizoral, anti fungal

124
Q

cardiac conditions you need premeditated for to precent IE

A

artificial heart valves, history of IE, congenital heart defects

125
Q

cardiac conditions that no longer need premedicated for IE

A

mitral valve prolapse

126
Q

what to administer for pre med if not allergic to penicillin

A

amoxicillin 2000 mg 30 min to 1 hr before

127
Q

what to use for premed if allergic to penicillin

A

Cephalexin 2000 mg 1 hr before, clindamycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin, cephradine 2000mg 1 hr before for joint replacement

128
Q

non cardiac conditions for pre med

A

renal dialysis shunt, ventroculoatrial hydrocephalic shunt, NOT STENTS

129
Q

preservative/antioxidant for vc in LA

A

sodium metabisulfite or sodium bisulfate

130
Q

how does LA work?

A

inhibit the influx of sodium ions

131
Q

metabolized in blood, greater potential for allergic reactions, not available in carts

A

esters

132
Q

examples of esters

A

procaine, benzocaine, tetracaine, proproxycaine

133
Q

metabolized in liver, allergic reactions uncommon

A

amides

134
Q

LA, most commonly used anesthetic solution in dental offices, profound anesthesia, medium duration, MRD 300mg, safe for lactation, can also have topical, comes in 1:100,000

A

Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

135
Q

LA, not effective topically, can have with Lev, shorter duration than Lido, max dose 300 mg

A

Mepivacaine (Carbocaine)

136
Q

LA, longer duration, 1:200,000, don’t use in pts with O2 problems, can cause methomoglobinemia

A

Prilocaine (citanest, citanest forte)

137
Q

LA, longest duration, max dose 90 mg

A

Bupivacaine (Marcaine)

138
Q

new LA, 4% 1:100,000, increase potency, max dose 500 mg

A

Articaine (Septocaine)

139
Q

LAs you can get w/ out vc

A

lido, mepivacaine, citanest

140
Q

LA that always have vc

A

articaine, bupivacaine

141
Q

maximum quantity of a drug that can be safely administered during an appt

A

MRD-max recommended dose

142
Q

to determine MRD do what?

A

MRD x pt weight

143
Q

an LA is a base or acid?

A

weak base

144
Q

2 major classes of anti anxiety agents

A

barbiturates and benzodiazepines

145
Q

principle effect: CNS depression, no analgesic effect, anti anxiety, phenobarbital is a long acting drug of this type used in tx of epilepsy

A

barbiturates

146
Q

useful in short term tx of anxiety, insomnia, and alcohol withdrawal, have sedative properties, no antipsychotic or analgesic activity, smoking reduces effectiveness, can be used for apprehensive dental pts, mm relaxer, used for TMJ problems, reverses status epileptics and LA overdose

A

Benzodiazepines

147
Q

what type of drugs are these? diazepam (valium), lorazepam (ativan), xanax (alprazolam), tranxene

A

benzos

148
Q

potent CNS depressant, produce reversible loss of consciousness and insensitivity to painful stimuli

A

general anesthetics

149
Q

stage of anesthesia, reduced pain sensation (development of anesthesia), pt remains conscious, end of this stage is marked by loss of consciousness

A

stage 1- analgesia

150
Q

stage of anesthesia, begins with unconsciousness and is associated with involuntary movement and excitement

A

stage 2- delirium or excitement

151
Q

stage of anesthesia, most major surgery performed in this

A

stage 3-surgical anesthesia

152
Q

stage of anesthesia, complete cessation of all respiration, if this stage is not immediately reversed, pt will die

A

stage 4- respiratory or medullary paralysis

153
Q

what is normally used for IV anesthetic?

A

short acting barbiturates or IV benzos

154
Q

most commonly used inhaled anesthetic, rapid onset/recovery, raises pain threshold, exhaustion is the route of excretion, no biotransformation

A

Nitrous oxide

155
Q

contraindications for N2O

A

COPD, upper respiratory infection -including stuffy nose, emotional instability, pregnancy, cystic fibrosis, language barrier

156
Q

N2O abuse symptoms

A

vitamin B12 deficiency, dementia and parkinson symptoms

157
Q

CV contraindications for dental tx

A

acute MI, unstable angina, uncontrolled CHF, uncontrolled arrhythmias, significant uncontrolled hypertension

158
Q

most common drug used in tx of CHF (increases contractile strength), Digoxin (lanoxin) most common, increases gag reflex and salivation

A

Digitalis Glycosides

159
Q

problems with digitalis glycosides

A

in combo with sympathomimetics, digoxin can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, use caution in in LA with vc, tetracycline and erythromycin increase digoxin blood levels

160
Q

drug of choice for acute angina, vasodilator, smooth mm relaxant

A

nitroglycerin

161
Q

most often pts are asymptomatic, but can experience what symptoms

A

headache, visual changes, dizziness

162
Q

considered 1st line therapy for hypertension, promotes excretion of sodium and water, decreases blood volume and pressure

A

diuretics

163
Q

hypertension med, hydrochlorothiazide is most common, frequently associated with xerostomia, must avoid orthostatic hypotension

A

thiazide diuretics

164
Q

used in management of hypertensive pts with CHF, Furosemide (Lasix) most common

A

Loop diuretics

165
Q

lowers BP by decreasing cardiac output, considered 2nd line therapy, ex: propranolol (inderol- non selective) and metoprolol (lopressor-selective)

A

b-adrenergic blocking agent

166
Q

work by producing systemic vasodilation by blocking vasoconstriction in smooth mm of bcd, not reduced by NSAIDs, can cause xerostomia and ging enlargement

A

CCBs

167
Q

what type of drugs are these?

Cardizem (dilitiazem), norvase (amlodipine), verapamil (isoptin, calan), nifedipine (procardia, adalat)

A

CCBS- know these!

168
Q

BP lowered by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II (causes vasodilation), adverse reactions- hypotension, allergic reactions, dry cough

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitors

169
Q

what type of drugs are these?
Lisinopril (prinivil, zestril), Catopril (capoten), Analapril (vasotec)
*** end in -pril

A

ACE inhibitors

170
Q

NSAIDs decrease effectiveness of what?

A

ACE inhibitors

171
Q

one of most commonly employed anticoagulant agent used in hospitals, injection only

A

heparin

172
Q

often used to prevent blood clots after a recent heart attack or stroke, and in people with certain disorders of the heart or bvs, into coagulant

A

plavix (clopidogrel)

173
Q

most serious drug reaction of warfarin

A

aspirin- increase bleeding tendencies, antibiotics also effect them

174
Q

anticonvulsant, ging enlargement occurs, often used with phenobarbital

A

Phenytoin (dilantin)

175
Q

most common barbiturate used in tx if epilepsy, most common side effect- sedation

A

phenobarbital

176
Q

used for partial seizures, tx trigeminal neuralgia, anticonvulsant

A

carbamazepine (tegretol)

177
Q

benedryl most common, mild allergic reactions, cause xerostomia and sedation, block antihistamine receptors (involved in respiratory function- vasodilation and bronchospasm)

A

antihistamine

178
Q

common examples of oral hypoglycemics

A

metformin (glucophage) and glyburide (diabeta, micronase)

179
Q

diseases tx with drugs include?

A

asthma, COPD, upper respiratory tract infections

180
Q

midl asthma, use what?

A

inhaled b agonist- usually albuterol

181
Q

rapidly alleviates an acute attack of asthma when taken by inflation but is rarely used as a bronchodilator

A

isoproterenol

182
Q

produces dilation of the bronchioles and improves airway function, useful as bronchodilator in the tx of asthma and for reversal of bronchospasm

A

metaproterenol (alupent)

183
Q

type of asthma inhaler, provide immediate relief, albuterol (proventil, ventolin) and pirbuterol (maxair)

A

short acting bronchodilators

184
Q

used in long term to prevent asthma attacks

A

corticosteroids

185
Q

oral medication used to tx chronic asthma and the bronchospasm associated with emphysema and chronic bronchitis

A

theophylline

186
Q

what asthma drug can cause insomnia

A

albuterol

187
Q

what should you avoid in asthmatics?

A

aspirin

188
Q

1st line tx for COPD

A

anticholinergics

189
Q

drug of choice for long term management of COPD

A

ipratropium (atrovent)

190
Q

b-adrenergic agonists that act to constrict the BVs of the nose, font use for more then 3-5 days

A

nasal decongestants

191
Q

drugs that promote removal of exudate or mucus from respiratory passages

A

expectorants

192
Q

may contain opioids or related agents used for the symptomatic relief of a nonproductive cough

A

antitussives

193
Q

partially neutralize hydrochloric acid in the stomach, can inhibit absorption of tetracyclines, digitalis, iron, GI drug

A

antacids

194
Q

most prevalent GI disease in US

A

GERD

195
Q

2 ways GERD is tx-

A

histamine blocking agents (don’t use with antacids), and PPIs (potent inhibitor of gastric acid secretion)

196
Q

name PPIs

A

omeprazole (prilosec)

197
Q

name histamine blocking agents

A

cimetidine (tagametHB), famotidine (pepcid AC)

198
Q

if taking tagamet, what does that mean?

A

usually being tx for ulcers

199
Q

what type of drugs are these?

lipitor (atorvastatin), mevacor (lovastatin)

A

statin drugs used to lower cholesterol

200
Q

what are these used for?

Zidovudine (AZT), Didanosine (ddl), Zalcitabine (ddC), Stavudine (d4T), Laninvudine (3TC)

A

HIV protease inhibitors

201
Q

what is levothyroxine?

A

synthroid, thyroid hormone replacement

202
Q

if sythroid use is too low, pt might be

A

cold intolerant, if taken off too soon can cause myxedema coma

203
Q

may cause ging enlargement, steroid hormone, nausea, vomiting, can promote endometrial carcinoma, lowers LDL, increase HDL

A

estradiol

204
Q

exogenous thyroid hormone used in tx of hypothyroidism, give once daily because of long half life, toxicity- nervousness, heart palpitations, tachycardia, intolerance to heat

A

synthroid

205
Q

antihyperlipidemic agent which limits cholesterol synthesis and increases catabolism of LDL, decrease triglyceride levels, GI upset common, don’t take with Warfarin

A

Lipitor (atorvastatin)

206
Q

another antihyperlipidemic drug increases catabolism of LDL, inhibits HMG Co-A

A

Mevacor (lovastatin)

207
Q

intermediate acting glucocorticoid, reduces inflammatory response, suppresses immunity, can exacerbate hypertension, osteoporosis with long use

A

Prednisone

Dental Hygiene Board Review (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions