Microbiology and Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

how are bacterial classified?

A

their morphological and metabolic/biochemical differences

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2
Q

allows to determine shape or organism, necessary because most bacteria are colorless and invisible to light

A

staining

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3
Q

most useful microbiological staining technique

A

gram stain

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4
Q

this type of bacteria stains blue

A

gram +

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5
Q

this type of bacteria stains red

A

gram -

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6
Q

different gram stains are a result of differences in what?

A

cell walls

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7
Q

what type of bacteria cell wall? very thick, contains teichoic acid, doesn’t block diffusion of antibiotics (vulnerable to penicillin and lysozyme), has 2 layers, low lipid content, no endotoxin, no space/porin channel.

A

gram positive cell wall

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8
Q

thin, cell wall has murrain lipoprotein, 3 layers, high lipid content, has periplasmic space and porin channel, outer cell membrane contains endotoxin (lipid A), blocks diffusion of things that attack walls (penicillins and lysozyme)

A

gram negative cell wall

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9
Q

are all organisms susceptible to gram staining?

A

no - require other accomodations

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10
Q

require dark field microscopy, can’t do gram stain

A

spirochetes

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11
Q

require acid fast staining, can’t do gram stain

A

mycobacteria

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12
Q

most disease causing organisms are what kind of bacteria?

A

gram neg rods or gram neg pleomorphic bacteria

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13
Q

do not form spores, non mobile

A

gram pos cocci

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14
Q

“spreading factor”, needed for invading tissue during spreading infection

A

hyaluronidase

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15
Q

spherical gram pos cocci, usually arranged in chains or pairs, all are catalase negative, divided into 3 groups based on their ability to homeless red blood cells

A

streptococcus

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16
Q

completely lyse RBCs, arranged in groups a-u, group a are among the most important human pathogens, many strains are anti-phagocytic, production of hemolysins, ability to adhere to pharyngeal epithelium

A

beta-hemolytic streptococcus

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17
Q

group A streptococci are causative for?

A

pyogenic infections, streptococcal pharyngitis, tonsillitis, scarlet fever/rhuematic fever

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18
Q

inflammatory disease that may develop after an infection with streptococcus bacteria can involve heart, joints, brain, skin

A

rheumatic fever

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19
Q

not bile soluble, most of these are alpha-hemolytic, normal inhabitants of nasopharynx sf gingival crevices, group of streptococcus

A

viridans group of streptococcus

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20
Q

part of viridans group, bind to teeth by producing dextran polysaccharides in presence of sucrose, not associated with period disease!

A

S. mutans

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21
Q

metabolize sucrose to lactic acid which creates an acidic environment

A

s. mutans

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22
Q

used by s. mutants to produce dextran

A

sucrose

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23
Q

can be digested by S. mutants but the end product is lactic acid

A

glucose, lactose, fructose

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24
Q

S. intermedius and S. anginosus (normal inhabitants of GI tract) are associated with what?

A

dental, brain, abdominal abscesses

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25
spherical, gram + bacteria, associated with tongue, colonize in mouth and URT of humans hours after birth
streptococcus salivarius
26
most common aerobic organisms implicated in facial cellulitis
viridans streptococcus
27
can be encapsulated with polysaccharide layer, resistant/destructive
streptococcus pneumoniae
28
generally harmless component of normal flora, penicillin G resistant, non mobile, non spore forming, arranged in grape like clusters, facultative anaerobe, typical for access formation
staphylococcus
29
most resistant disease causing organism that vancomycin and bactrim are often used 1st to tx
MRSA
30
major producer of leukocidins, significant exotoxins- coagulase, hyaluronidase (degrades hyaluronic acid - ground substance of subcutaneous tissue), produces pigmented compounds called carotenoids
staphylococcus aureus
31
bacillus (cause for anthrax and food poisoning) clostriudum (tetanus, botulism, gangrene, food poisoning, AB resistant pseudo colitis), corynebacterium (diptheria), listeria (endotoxins that cause meningitis and sepsis)
gram pos rods
32
causes lock jaw or tetanus, spores generally dust born
clostridium tetani
33
causative organism for meningitis and gonorrhea
neisseria, gram neg cocci
34
spirochetes (cause for syph**, terponemtosies, lyme disease, leptospirosis), found in associated with NUG/NUP
gram neg spiral shaped organisms
35
creates an acidic environment "aciduric", doesn't produce dextrans but produces a different extra-polysaccharide called lexan, associated with advanced caries in deep enamel
lactobacillus
36
have been implicated in root caries, role in dental caries initiation and progression is unknown
actinomyces
37
growth phase of bacteria. growth is slow at 1st as bacteria acclimate to environment, cellular metablic activity noy increased during this phase
lag phase
38
growth phase of bacteria. phase that microorganisms are most prone to breakdown by antimicrobial agents
logarithmic "eponential" phase
39
3 enzymes bacteria posses to break down oxygen products
catalase- breaks down hydrogen peroxide peroxidase- same superoxide dismutase- breaks down superoxide radical
40
have all the enzymes, uses kreb's cycle and glycolysis, examples: neisseria,
obligate aerobes
41
aerobic, can grow in absence of oxygen by using fermentation, ex: staphylococcus, listeria, actinomyces
facultative anaerobes
42
"aerotolerant anaerobes", use fermentation, tolerate low amts of O2, ex: streptococcus, spirochetes, campylobacter (pregnancy gingivitis)
microaerophilic bacteria
43
hate oxygen, ex: prevotella, porphymonas gingivalis
obligate anaerobes
44
most often associated with hormonal "pregnancy" gingivitis, facial cellulitis, and NUP/NUG
prevotella
45
produce collagenase, important pathogen for perio diseases
porphymonas gingivalis
46
what are most fungi?
obligate aerobes
47
most common fungus encountered in the dental setting, part of normal flora in digestive/respiratory/urogenital tracts
candidia albicans
48
energy-less, must have host cell, composed of protein core (capsid) surrounding genetic material, may have outer lipid bilayer (envelope) or may be naked, small (.02-.03 microns)
viruses
49
refers to the different kinds of organisms a virus can infect
host range
50
referes to specific kinds of cells a virus can infect and is determined mainly by whether a virus can attach to a cell
specificity
51
a complete virus particle (including its envelope if it has one)
virion
52
4 possible outcomes once a host cell has been infected by a virus
death, transformation, latent infection, chronic slow infections
53
what is the classification of viruses based on?
type and structure of viral nucleic acids (RNA or DNA- never both)
54
role of _____ is to move the info contained in the DNA to the cell's cytoplasm where protein synthesis and viral replication takes place
mRNA
55
primary function of mRNA
translation
56
transcription is what to what?
DNA to RNA
57
RNA genome can be similar to mRNA is known as what?
positive strand RNA
58
RNA genome is a template for production is known as what?
negative strand RNA
59
examples of RNA viruses?
HIV, Hep A, rhino virus, influenza virus, mumps, measles, rabies
60
virus that has both positive and negative strands, cannot be translated into proteins until it is transcribed into mRNA
DNA viruses
61
examples of DNA viruses
HPV, HSV I and II, VZV, CMV, EBV, small pox
62
spreads via nasopharyngeal secretions, can cross placental barrier, has Koplik's spots
measles
63
small, red-based lesions with blue center in mouth, seen in measles
Koplik's spots
64
causative organism for herpangina
coxsackie virus
65
causes chickenpox and shingles upon reactivation of the dormant virus
VZV
66
DNA hepatitis virus
hep B
67
RNA hepatitis virus
hep a, c, d, e
68
hep b vaccine is an example of what type of immunity?
artificial acquired active immunity
69
gamma globulin is an example of what type of immunity?
passive
70
protection of body is provided by what 2 systems?
cell mediated immunity and antibody mediated "humoral" immunity
71
what type of immunity? t-cell, defense against infection (esp mycobacterium tb, viral and fungal), allergic response, graft and tumor rejection, regulation of antibody response
cell mediated immunity
72
what type of immunity? b cells, defense against infection (opsonizes bacteria, neutralizes toxins, and viruses), allergic response, autoimmunity
antibody mediated "humoral" immunity
73
what type of immunity? non specific, not acquired from previous antigen exposure, doesn't improve after exposure, have no memory, includes skin/mucous membranes, natural killer cells, phagocytosis, inflammation, complement proteins
natural immunity
74
group of proteins that circulate in the blood and serve to assist other defense mechanisms
complement systems
75
2 complement pathways
classical- antibody dependent | alternative- spontaneous
76
what type of immunity? occurs after exposure, improves with repeated exposures, mediated by antibodies and t cells, long term memory, passive or active
acquired immunity
77
cells of immune systems made where
bone marrow
78
cells of immune systmes
leukocytes- granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, dendritic cells
79
types of t cells
t-cytoxic cells, helper cells "CD4 cell"
80
only T cels that can directly attack and kill diseased cells, including cancer cells
cytoxic t cells
81
produce cytokines that stimulate macrophages, NK cells, dendritic cells, and other t cells
t helper cells
82
what type of cell? differentiate into plasma cells and produce antibodies, antigen presenting cells, can form memory cells, involved in humoral immune response
b cells
83
what do plasma cells come from?
antibodies
84
functions of this cell- phagocytosis, antigen transportation/processing/presentation, cytokine production
macrophages
85
kill virus and tumor infected cells, active w/ out prior exposure to antigen, non specific, a lymphocyte, kill with out antibody
Natural killer (NK) cells
86
most numerous WBC, capable of phagocytosis, migrate in response to chemotactic factors (diapedesis), 1st line of defense
Polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)
87
key regulator of the immune system, antigen presenting cell capable of activating T and B cells
dendritic cells
88
immunoglobulins that react specifically with antigen, 5 classes- IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE
antibodies
89
immunoglobulin class, predominant in secondary response, opsonizes, capable of activating the classical (antibody) complement pathway
IgG
90
immunoglobulin class, produced in primary response, most efficient in agglutination "clumping", 10 binding sites, largest antibody, capable of activating the classical "antibody" complement pathway
IgM
91
immunoglobulin class, main immunoglobulin in secretions, has J chain and secretory component, prevents attachment of antigen to mucous membranes
IgA
92
immunoglobulin class, no known function in body, present in small amounts in serum
IgD
93
immunoglobulin class, mediates anaphylactic hypersensitivity by binding to mast cells and basophils, targets certain parasites
IgE
94
hypersensitivity reaction- IgE antibody is induced by antigen "allergen", binds to mast cells and basophils, release of mediators such as histamine, requires previous exposure to allergen
Type I- anaphylactic (immediate)
95
what cells release histamine?
mast cells
96
pallor is or is not a sign of histamine release?
is not
97
hypersensitivity reaction- antigens on a cell surface combine with antibody leads to complement mediated lysis, ex: Rh and transfusion reactions, primary antibody- IgG
Type II- cytotoxic
98
hypersensitivity reaction- release of lysosomal enzymes cause tissue destruction, complement is activated, PMNs called in, IgG primary antibody
Type III- Immune Complex
99
hypersensitivity reaction- helped T cells are sensitized by antigens, *cell versus antibody mediated, induces inflammation and activation of macrophages which release mediators, ex: Tb skin test
Type Iv- delayed
100
autoimmune diseases more common in male or female?
female
101
autoimmune disorder, associated with Raynaud's phenomenon and generalized widening of the periodontal ligament space
scleroderma
102
what makes up protein?
amino acids
103
smallest unit of protein
amino acids
104
buffer in saliva
sodium bicarbonate
105
primary cell in the PDL
fibroblasts
106
movement of cells to the site of inflammation
chemotaxis