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Dental Hygiene Board Review > Microbiology and Immunology > Flashcards

Microbiology and Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

how are bacterial classified?

A

their morphological and metabolic/biochemical differences

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2
Q

allows to determine shape or organism, necessary because most bacteria are colorless and invisible to light

A

staining

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3
Q

most useful microbiological staining technique

A

gram stain

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4
Q

this type of bacteria stains blue

A

gram +

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5
Q

this type of bacteria stains red

A

gram -

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6
Q

different gram stains are a result of differences in what?

A

cell walls

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7
Q

what type of bacteria cell wall? very thick, contains teichoic acid, doesn’t block diffusion of antibiotics (vulnerable to penicillin and lysozyme), has 2 layers, low lipid content, no endotoxin, no space/porin channel.

A

gram positive cell wall

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8
Q

thin, cell wall has murrain lipoprotein, 3 layers, high lipid content, has periplasmic space and porin channel, outer cell membrane contains endotoxin (lipid A), blocks diffusion of things that attack walls (penicillins and lysozyme)

A

gram negative cell wall

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9
Q

are all organisms susceptible to gram staining?

A

no - require other accomodations

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10
Q

require dark field microscopy, can’t do gram stain

A

spirochetes

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11
Q

require acid fast staining, can’t do gram stain

A

mycobacteria

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12
Q

most disease causing organisms are what kind of bacteria?

A

gram neg rods or gram neg pleomorphic bacteria

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13
Q

do not form spores, non mobile

A

gram pos cocci

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14
Q

“spreading factor”, needed for invading tissue during spreading infection

A

hyaluronidase

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15
Q

spherical gram pos cocci, usually arranged in chains or pairs, all are catalase negative, divided into 3 groups based on their ability to homeless red blood cells

A

streptococcus

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16
Q

completely lyse RBCs, arranged in groups a-u, group a are among the most important human pathogens, many strains are anti-phagocytic, production of hemolysins, ability to adhere to pharyngeal epithelium

A

beta-hemolytic streptococcus

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17
Q

group A streptococci are causative for?

A

pyogenic infections, streptococcal pharyngitis, tonsillitis, scarlet fever/rhuematic fever

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18
Q

inflammatory disease that may develop after an infection with streptococcus bacteria can involve heart, joints, brain, skin

A

rheumatic fever

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19
Q

not bile soluble, most of these are alpha-hemolytic, normal inhabitants of nasopharynx sf gingival crevices, group of streptococcus

A

viridans group of streptococcus

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20
Q

part of viridans group, bind to teeth by producing dextran polysaccharides in presence of sucrose, not associated with period disease!

A

S. mutans

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21
Q

metabolize sucrose to lactic acid which creates an acidic environment

A

s. mutans

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22
Q

used by s. mutants to produce dextran

A

sucrose

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23
Q

can be digested by S. mutants but the end product is lactic acid

A

glucose, lactose, fructose

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24
Q

S. intermedius and S. anginosus (normal inhabitants of GI tract) are associated with what?

A

dental, brain, abdominal abscesses

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25
Q

spherical, gram + bacteria, associated with tongue, colonize in mouth and URT of humans hours after birth

A

streptococcus salivarius

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26
Q

most common aerobic organisms implicated in facial cellulitis

A

viridans streptococcus

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27
Q

can be encapsulated with polysaccharide layer, resistant/destructive

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

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28
Q

generally harmless component of normal flora, penicillin G resistant, non mobile, non spore forming, arranged in grape like clusters, facultative anaerobe, typical for access formation

A

staphylococcus

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29
Q

most resistant disease causing organism that vancomycin and bactrim are often used 1st to tx

A

MRSA

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30
Q

major producer of leukocidins, significant exotoxins- coagulase, hyaluronidase (degrades hyaluronic acid - ground substance of subcutaneous tissue), produces pigmented compounds called carotenoids

A

staphylococcus aureus

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31
Q

bacillus (cause for anthrax and food poisoning)
clostriudum (tetanus, botulism, gangrene, food poisoning, AB resistant pseudo colitis), corynebacterium (diptheria), listeria (endotoxins that cause meningitis and sepsis)

A

gram pos rods

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32
Q

causes lock jaw or tetanus, spores generally dust born

A

clostridium tetani

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33
Q

causative organism for meningitis and gonorrhea

A

neisseria, gram neg cocci

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34
Q

spirochetes (cause for syph**, terponemtosies, lyme disease, leptospirosis), found in associated with NUG/NUP

A

gram neg spiral shaped organisms

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35
Q

creates an acidic environment “aciduric”, doesn’t produce dextrans but produces a different extra-polysaccharide called lexan, associated with advanced caries in deep enamel

A

lactobacillus

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36
Q

have been implicated in root caries, role in dental caries initiation and progression is unknown

A

actinomyces

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37
Q

growth phase of bacteria. growth is slow at 1st as bacteria acclimate to environment, cellular metablic activity noy increased during this phase

A

lag phase

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38
Q

growth phase of bacteria. phase that microorganisms are most prone to breakdown by antimicrobial agents

A

logarithmic “eponential” phase

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39
Q

3 enzymes bacteria posses to break down oxygen products

A

catalase- breaks down hydrogen peroxide
peroxidase- same
superoxide dismutase- breaks down superoxide radical

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40
Q

have all the enzymes, uses kreb’s cycle and glycolysis, examples: neisseria,

A

obligate aerobes

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41
Q

aerobic, can grow in absence of oxygen by using fermentation, ex: staphylococcus, listeria, actinomyces

A

facultative anaerobes

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42
Q

“aerotolerant anaerobes”, use fermentation, tolerate low amts of O2, ex: streptococcus, spirochetes, campylobacter (pregnancy gingivitis)

A

microaerophilic bacteria

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43
Q

hate oxygen, ex: prevotella, porphymonas gingivalis

A

obligate anaerobes

44
Q

most often associated with hormonal “pregnancy” gingivitis, facial cellulitis, and NUP/NUG

A

prevotella

45
Q

produce collagenase, important pathogen for perio diseases

A

porphymonas gingivalis

46
Q

what are most fungi?

A

obligate aerobes

47
Q

most common fungus encountered in the dental setting, part of normal flora in digestive/respiratory/urogenital tracts

A

candidia albicans

48
Q

energy-less, must have host cell, composed of protein core (capsid) surrounding genetic material, may have outer lipid bilayer (envelope) or may be naked, small (.02-.03 microns)

A

viruses

49
Q

refers to the different kinds of organisms a virus can infect

A

host range

50
Q

referes to specific kinds of cells a virus can infect and is determined mainly by whether a virus can attach to a cell

A

specificity

51
Q

a complete virus particle (including its envelope if it has one)

A

virion

52
Q

4 possible outcomes once a host cell has been infected by a virus

A

death, transformation, latent infection, chronic slow infections

53
Q

what is the classification of viruses based on?

A

type and structure of viral nucleic acids (RNA or DNA- never both)

54
Q

role of _____ is to move the info contained in the DNA to the cell’s cytoplasm where protein synthesis and viral replication takes place

A

mRNA

55
Q

primary function of mRNA

A

translation

56
Q

transcription is what to what?

A

DNA to RNA

57
Q

RNA genome can be similar to mRNA is known as what?

A

positive strand RNA

58
Q

RNA genome is a template for production is known as what?

A

negative strand RNA

59
Q

examples of RNA viruses?

A

HIV, Hep A, rhino virus, influenza virus, mumps, measles, rabies

60
Q

virus that has both positive and negative strands, cannot be translated into proteins until it is transcribed into mRNA

A

DNA viruses

61
Q

examples of DNA viruses

A

HPV, HSV I and II, VZV, CMV, EBV, small pox

62
Q

spreads via nasopharyngeal secretions, can cross placental barrier, has Koplik’s spots

A

measles

63
Q

small, red-based lesions with blue center in mouth, seen in measles

A

Koplik’s spots

64
Q

causative organism for herpangina

A

coxsackie virus

65
Q

causes chickenpox and shingles upon reactivation of the dormant virus

A

VZV

66
Q

DNA hepatitis virus

A

hep B

67
Q

RNA hepatitis virus

A

hep a, c, d, e

68
Q

hep b vaccine is an example of what type of immunity?

A

artificial acquired active immunity

69
Q

gamma globulin is an example of what type of immunity?

A

passive

70
Q

protection of body is provided by what 2 systems?

A

cell mediated immunity and antibody mediated “humoral” immunity

71
Q

what type of immunity? t-cell, defense against infection (esp mycobacterium tb, viral and fungal), allergic response, graft and tumor rejection, regulation of antibody response

A

cell mediated immunity

72
Q

what type of immunity? b cells, defense against infection (opsonizes bacteria, neutralizes toxins, and viruses), allergic response, autoimmunity

A

antibody mediated “humoral” immunity

73
Q

what type of immunity? non specific, not acquired from previous antigen exposure, doesn’t improve after exposure, have no memory, includes skin/mucous membranes, natural killer cells, phagocytosis, inflammation, complement proteins

A

natural immunity

74
Q

group of proteins that circulate in the blood and serve to assist other defense mechanisms

A

complement systems

75
Q

2 complement pathways

A

classical- antibody dependent

alternative- spontaneous

76
Q

what type of immunity? occurs after exposure, improves with repeated exposures, mediated by antibodies and t cells, long term memory, passive or active

A

acquired immunity

77
Q

cells of immune systems made where

A

bone marrow

78
Q

cells of immune systmes

A

leukocytes- granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes, dendritic cells

79
Q

types of t cells

A

t-cytoxic cells, helper cells “CD4 cell”

80
Q

only T cels that can directly attack and kill diseased cells, including cancer cells

A

cytoxic t cells

81
Q

produce cytokines that stimulate macrophages, NK cells, dendritic cells, and other t cells

A

t helper cells

82
Q

what type of cell? differentiate into plasma cells and produce antibodies, antigen presenting cells, can form memory cells, involved in humoral immune response

A

b cells

83
Q

what do plasma cells come from?

A

antibodies

84
Q

functions of this cell- phagocytosis, antigen transportation/processing/presentation, cytokine production

A

macrophages

85
Q

kill virus and tumor infected cells, active w/ out prior exposure to antigen, non specific, a lymphocyte, kill with out antibody

A

Natural killer (NK) cells

86
Q

most numerous WBC, capable of phagocytosis, migrate in response to chemotactic factors (diapedesis), 1st line of defense

A

Polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)

87
Q

key regulator of the immune system, antigen presenting cell capable of activating T and B cells

A

dendritic cells

88
Q

immunoglobulins that react specifically with antigen, 5 classes- IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE

A

antibodies

89
Q

immunoglobulin class, predominant in secondary response, opsonizes, capable of activating the classical (antibody) complement pathway

A

IgG

90
Q

immunoglobulin class, produced in primary response, most efficient in agglutination “clumping”, 10 binding sites, largest antibody, capable of activating the classical “antibody” complement pathway

A

IgM

91
Q

immunoglobulin class, main immunoglobulin in secretions, has J chain and secretory component, prevents attachment of antigen to mucous membranes

A

IgA

92
Q

immunoglobulin class, no known function in body, present in small amounts in serum

A

IgD

93
Q

immunoglobulin class, mediates anaphylactic hypersensitivity by binding to mast cells and basophils, targets certain parasites

A

IgE

94
Q

hypersensitivity reaction- IgE antibody is induced by antigen “allergen”, binds to mast cells and basophils, release of mediators such as histamine, requires previous exposure to allergen

A

Type I- anaphylactic (immediate)

95
Q

what cells release histamine?

A

mast cells

96
Q

pallor is or is not a sign of histamine release?

A

is not

97
Q

hypersensitivity reaction- antigens on a cell surface combine with antibody leads to complement mediated lysis, ex: Rh and transfusion reactions, primary antibody- IgG

A

Type II- cytotoxic

98
Q

hypersensitivity reaction- release of lysosomal enzymes cause tissue destruction, complement is activated, PMNs called in, IgG primary antibody

A

Type III- Immune Complex

99
Q

hypersensitivity reaction- helped T cells are sensitized by antigens, *cell versus antibody mediated, induces inflammation and activation of macrophages which release mediators, ex: Tb skin test

A

Type Iv- delayed

100
Q

autoimmune diseases more common in male or female?

A

female

101
Q

autoimmune disorder, associated with Raynaud’s phenomenon and generalized widening of the periodontal ligament space

A

scleroderma

102
Q

what makes up protein?

A

amino acids

103
Q

smallest unit of protein

A

amino acids

104
Q

buffer in saliva

A

sodium bicarbonate

105
Q

primary cell in the PDL

A

fibroblasts

106
Q

movement of cells to the site of inflammation

A

chemotaxis

Dental Hygiene Board Review (12 decks)

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