Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Year 4 Final > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Drugs that cause corneal opacities?

A

amiodarone
indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adverse effects of gentamicin?

A

Otoxcity and nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should be given if present 8-24 hours after paracetemol OD?

A

Acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mneumonic for inducers of cytochrome P450s

A

‘Barbs funny mom refuses greasy carbs - still smokes and drinks’
Barbiturates
Phenytoin
Modafinil
Rifampicin
Griseofulvin
Carbamazepine
St Johns Wort
Smoking
Alcohol (chronic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Allopurinol and azathioprine interaction

A

metabolised to active compound 6-mercaptopurine
xanthine oxidase is responsible for the oxidation of 6-mercaptopurine to 6-thiouric acid
allopurinol can therefore lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine
a much reduced dose (e.g. 25%) must therefore be used if the combination cannot be avoided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First line for insecticide posoning?

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

First line for OD on iron tablets?

A

Desferrioxamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

First line for drinking antifreeze?

A

Fomepizole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Recommended adrenaline dose in cardiac arrest?

A

10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What hapens in terms of metabolic and respiratory acidosis/alkalosis in salicylate overdose?

A

Early stimulation of the respiratory centre leads to a respiratory alkalosis whilst later the direct acid effects of salicylates (combined with acute renal failure) may lead to an acidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What can peripheral neuropathy in isoniazid be prevented with?

A

Pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ciclosporin side effects

A

nephrotoxicity
hepatotoxicity
fluid retention
hypertension
hyperkalaemia
hypertrichosis
gingival hyperplasia
tremor
impaired glucose tolerance
hyperlipidaemia
increased susceptibility to severe infection
(Notice how everything is increased)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Best antibiotic for bacterial sore throat if pencillin allergic?

A

Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Quinolones adverse effect?

A

ower seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy
tendon damage (including rupture) - the risk is increased in patients also taking steroids
cartilage damage has been demonstrated in animal models and for this reason quinolones are generally avoided (but not necessarily contraindicated) in children
lengthens QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Side effects of veramapril?

A

Heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, flushing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are phoshodinesterases used in?

A

used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

P450 inhibitors (low enzyme activity) mneumonic

A

Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketofluconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol (acute) / amiodarone
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulphonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Theophylline definitive management?

A

Haemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of low magnesium

A

drugs
diuretics
proton pump inhibitors
total parenteral nutrition
diarrhoea
may occur with acute or chronic diarrhoea
alcohol
hypokalaemia
hypercalcaemia
e.g. secondary to hyperparathyroidism
calcium and magnesium functionally compete for transport in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
metabolic disorders
Gitleman’s and Bartter’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Adverse effects of finasteride?

A

impotence
decrease libido
ejaculation disorders
gynaecomastia and breast tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Side effects of viagra?

A

visual disturbances: blue discolouration and non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy
nasal congestion
flushing
gastrointestinal side-effects
headache
priapism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

First line for tricyclic overdose?

A

IV bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Contraindications to metformin?

A

CKD
May cause lactic acidosis if taken during period where tissue hypoxia
Iodine containing X-ray contrast mediaq

24
Q

What teratogen is lithium associated with?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

25
Adverse effects of macrolides?
prolongation of the QT interval gastrointestinal side-effects are common. Nausea is less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin cholestatic jaundice: risk may be reduced if erythromycin stearate is used P450 inhibitor (see below) azithromycin is associated with hearing loss and tinnitus
26
Mechanism of action of metformin?
acts by activation of the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) increases insulin sensitivity decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis may also reduce gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates
27
What is ethylene glycol?
Type of alcohol used as coolant or antifreeze
28
Serotonin syndrome mneumonic
STEAM SSRI Tramadol Ectasy Amphemtamines MAOI
29
Management of a beta blocker OD?
Atripine and if resistant then give glucagon
30
Causes of an oculogyric crisis?
antipsychotics metoclopramide postencephalitic Parkinson's disease
31
Lithium toxicity features?
coarse tremor (a fine tremor is seen in therapeutic levels) hyperreflexia acute confusion polyuria seizure coma
32
Features of hypocalcaemia?
paraesthesia tetany seizures arrhythmias decreased PTH secretion → hypocalcaemia ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia exacerbates digoxin toxicity
33
What kind of drugs are histamine 2 antagonists?
Antacids
34
Example of a GABA antagonist?
Flumazenil
35
Mechanism of action of standard heparin?
Activates antithrombin III. Forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, Xia and XIIa
36
Statins monitoring?
LFT
37
AceI monitoring
U and Es
38
Amiodarone monitoring
TFTs and LFTs
39
Methotrexate monitoring
FBC, LFT and U and Es
40
Azathioprine monitoring?
FBC and LFT
41
Neuropsychiatric drug monitoring?
Lithium level, TFT and U and E
42
Sodium valporate monitoring?
LFT
43
Glitazones monitoring?
LFTs
44
Type of immune reaction in N-acetylcysteine?
Anaphylactoid reaction Non-IgE mediated mast cell release
45
Adverse effects of metformin?
gastrointestinal upsets are common (nausea, anorexia, diarrhoea), intolerable in 20% reduced vitamin B12 absorption - rarely a clinical problem lactic acidosis with severe liver disease or renal failure
46
What reverses a heparin OD?
Protamine sulphate
47
Indications for verapamil
Angina, hypertension, arrhythmias Highly negatively inotropic Should not be given with beta-blockers as may cause heart block
48
Indications for dilitiazem?
Angina, hypertension Less negatively inotropic than verapamil but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers
49
Indications for nifedipine, amlodipine or felodipine (dihydropyridines)
Hypertension, angina, Raynaud's Affects the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium and therefore do not result in worsening of heart failure but may therefore cause ankle swelling Shorter acting dihydropyridines (e.g. nifedipine) cause peripheral vasodilation which may result in reflex tachycardia
50
Ciclosporin adverse effects?
nephrotoxicity hepatotoxicity fluid retention hypertension hyperkalaemia hypertrichosis gingival hyperplasia tremor impaired glucose tolerance hyperlipidaemia increased susceptibility to severe infection
51
When is diclofenac contraindicated?
ischaemic heart disease peripheral arterial disease cerebrovascular disease congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV)
52
Ethylene glycol toxicitiy management?
Fomepizole
53
Mneumonic for TB side effects
RIPE ONGO Rifampicin-Orange secretions INH- Neuropathy Pyrazinamide- Fout Etahmbutol-Optic neuritis
54
Contraindications for flecainide?
post myocardial infarction structural heart disease: e.g. heart failure sinus node dysfunction; second-degree or greater AV block atrial flutter
55
How often should digoxin be monitored?
Not routinely except in suspected toxicity
56
Treating roseascea where flyshing is predominant symptom?
Topical brimonidine

Year 4 Final (39 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions