Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

What is Rovsigs sign?

A

RIF pain on palpation of LIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Second line for C.diff

A

Oral findaxomicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

First line for primary biliary cholangitis

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is PBC

A

Chronic autoimmune liver disease associated with other autoimmune conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the defect in Wilson’s disease

A

ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are Kayseri Fleischer rings?

A

Green brown rings in the periphery of the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of hepatocellular carcinoma in uk

A

Hep C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adverse effects of metoclopramide?

A

Extrapyramidal effects
Diarrhoea
Hyperprolactinaemia
Tardive dyskinesia
Parkinsonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Another name for vit c

A

ascorbic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

First line for constipation in IBS?

A

Isphagula husk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

diagnostic investigation of choice for pancreatic cancer

A

High-resolution CT scanning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

increased ALT and AST suggest what

A

hepatocyte damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Assessing the AST:ALT ratio can help what

A

identify possible alcoholic hepatitis. Ratio values higher than 2 suggest alcohol as a cause. In this patient, the AST:ALT ratio is less than 1, and this suggests non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How to treat acute hypophosphatemia?

A

IV infusion of phosphate polyfusor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is used to induce remission in crohns?

A

Glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the liver feel like in RHF if hepatomegaly?

A

firm, smooth, tender liver edge. May be pulsatile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Metabolic alkalosis may be caused by

A

loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is due mainly to problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Inital management of severe alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is a raised urea seen in an acute upper GI bleed?

A

a raised urea may be seen due to the ‘protein meal’ of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment of alcoholic ketoacidosis?

A

infusion of saline & thiamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

Hepatic vein thrombosis. It is usually seen in the context of underlying haematological disease or another procoagulant condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What management if NAFLD found on US?

A

Enhanced liver fibrosis to check for fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Globus hystericus

A

There may be a history of anxiety
Symptoms are often intermittent and relieved by swallowing
Usually painless - the presence of pain should warrant further investigation for organic causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

First line for wilsons?

A

penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The AST/ALT ratio in alcoholic hepatitis is what?

A

2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why do peole with coeliac require regular immunisations

A

functional hyposplenism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?q

A

autosomal dominant condition characterised by numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. It is also associated with pigmented freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome?

A

usually occurs when metastases are present in the liver and release serotonin into the systemic circulation
may also occur with lung carcinoid as mediators are not ‘cleared’ by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What abx is associated with high risk of C diff?

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Features in pernicipus anaemia?

A

anaemia features
lethargy
pallor
dyspnoea

neurological features
peripheral neuropathy: ‘pins and needles’, numbness. Typically symmetrical and affects the legs more than the arms
subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord: progressive weakness, ataxia and paresthesias that may progress to spasticity and paraplegia

neuropsychiatric features: memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, irritabiltiy

other features
mild jaundice: combined with pallor results in a ‘lemon tinge’
glossitis → sore tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Investigation findings in Wilson’s disease?

A

slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings
reduced serum caeruloplasmin
reduced total serum copper (counter-intuitive, but 95% of plasma copper is carried by ceruloplasmin): free (non-ceruloplasmin-bound) serum copper is increased
increased 24hr urinary copper excretion
the diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why should PPIs not be prescribed until after GI bleed?

A

They mask the site of bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Alcohol units calculation?

A

volume (ml) * ABV / 1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who commonly presents with biliary colic?

A

female, forties, fat and fair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Presentation of biliary colic?

A

RUQ pain, intermittent, usually begins abruptly and subsides gradually. Attacks often occur after eating. Nausea is common.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Triad in ascending cholangitis?

A

fever (rigors are common)
RUQ pain
jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Presentation of acute cholecytitis?

A

Pain similar to biliary colic but more severe and persistent. The pain may radiate to the back or right shoulder.

The patient may be pyrexial and Murphy’s sign positive (arrest of inspiration on palpation of the RUQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is melanosis coli and what is it associated with?

A

disorder of pigmentation of the bowel wall. Histology demonstrates pigment-laden macrophages

It is associated with laxative abuse, especially anthraquinone compounds such as senna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Baretts oesophagus treatment?

A

high-dose proton pump inhibitor
whilst this is commonly used in patients with Barrett’s the evidence base that this reduces the change of progression to dysplasia or induces regression of the lesion is limited

endoscopic surveillance with biopsies
for patients with metaplasia (but not dysplasia) endoscopy is recommended every 3-5 years

if dysplasia of any grade is identified endoscopic intervention is offered. Options include:
radiofrequency ablation: preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia
endoscopic mucosal resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Prophylaxis of variceal haemorrhage medication?

A

propranolol
reduced rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is seen in a severe C diff infection?

A

↑ WCC ( > 15 x 109/L)
or an acutely ↑ creatinine (> 50% above baseline)
or a temperature > 38.5°C
or evidence of severe colitis(abdominal or radiological signs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Management of proctitis?

A

topical (rectal) aminosalicylate: for distal colitis rectal mesalazine has been shown to be superior to rectal steroids and oral aminosalicylates
if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add an oral aminosalicylate
if remission still not achieved add topical or oral corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

TRUElove and Witt’s

A

T - Temp > 37.8
R - Rate > 90
U - (Uh)naemia Hb < 105
E - ESR >30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Courvoisier’s law?

A

in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice, a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

most common form of inherited colon cancer?

A

HNPCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What really helps me with IDA vs ACD is the following:

A

-Ferritin is storing iron. So if we have chronic disease we are storing all the iron out of the blood so bacteria cant use it so ferritin is high.
-Transferring is transferring Iron around the body. If we are deficient iron we send out loads of transferring to go out into the body searching for iron. So transferring is high.
-Ferritin and Transferrin are always opposite (in terms of high or low)
-Transferrin and Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) are always the same (in terms of high or low)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

first-line medication for primary biliary cholangitis

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is used to monitor treatment in haemochromatosis

A

Ferritin and transferrin saturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Management of NAFLD?

A

the mainstay of treatment is lifestyle changes (particularly weight loss) and monitoring
there is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitising drugs (e.g. metformin, pioglitazone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Management of extensive UC?

A

topical (rectal) aminosalicylate and a high-dose oral aminosalicylate:
if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, stop topical treatments and offer a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and an oral corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Management of lfie threatening C diff

A

oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole
specialist advice - surgery may be considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Symptoms of coeliac?

A

Chronic or intermittent diarrhoea
Failure to thrive or faltering growth (in children)
Persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms including nausea and vomiting
Prolonged fatigue (‘tired all the time’)
Recurrent abdominal pain, cramping or distension
Sudden or unexpected weight loss
Unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia, or other unspecified anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Associations with H pylori?

A

peptic ulcer disease
95% of duodenal ulcers
75% of gastric ulcers
gastric cancer
B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue (eradication of H pylori results causes regression in 80% of patients)
atrophic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Drugs associated with drug induced cholestasis?

A

combined oral contraceptive pill
antibiotics: flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, erythromycin*
anabolic steroids, testosterones
phenothiazines: chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
sulphonylureas
fibrates
rare reported causes: nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Features of carcinoid tumours?

A

flushing (often the earliest symptom)
diarrhoea
bronchospasm
hypotension
right heart valvular stenosis (left heart can be affected in bronchial carcinoid)
other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may also be secreted resulting in, for example, Cushing’s syndrome
pellagra can rarely develop as dietary tryptophan is diverted to serotonin by the tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Most common site affected by Crohn’s?

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is acute liver failure?

A

rapid onset of hepatocellular dysfunction leading to a variety of systemic complications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Causes of acute liver failure

A

paracetamol overdose
alcohol
viral hepatitis (usually A or B)
acute fatty liver of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How is function of the liver assessed?

A

assessed by looking at the prothrombin time and albumin level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is loperamide?

A

μ-opioid receptor agonist which does not have systemic effects as it is not absorbed through the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

First line investigation for acute mesenteruc ischaemia?

A

Raised lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a seton?

A

piece of surgical thread that is run through the fistula to allow continuous drainage while the fistula is healing. This ensures that the fistula doesn’t heal containing pus within, which would result in further abscess formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Management of perianal abscess?

A
  • requires incision and drainage combined with antibiotic therapy
  • a draining seton may also be placed if a tract is identified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Most common organism on SBP?

A

E. coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

AXR findings in UC?

A

In acute exacerbations, plain film abdominal radiographs (AXR) or CT imaging can be used to assess for toxic megacolon (Fig. 3C) and/or the presence of a bowel perforation. AXR features of acute ulcerative colitis flares also include mural thickening and thumbprinting, indicating a severe inflammatory process in the bowel wall; in chronic cases of UC, a lead-pipe colon is often described (best seen on barium studies).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Features of MEN-1

A
  • parathyroid (95%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia
  • pituitary (70%)
  • pancreas (50%, e.g. Insulinoma, gastrinoma)
  • also: adrenal and thyroid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is zollinger Ellison Syndrome?

A

condition characterised by excessive levels of gastrin, usually from a gastrin secreting tumour usually of the duodenum or pancreas. Around 30% occur as part of MEN type I syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is primary biliary cholangitis?

A

chronic liver disorder typically seen in middle-aged females (female:male ratio of 9:1). The aetiology is not fully understood although it is thought to be an autoimmune condition. Interlobular bile ducts become damaged by a chronic inflammatory process causing progressive cholestasis which may eventually progress to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

First line for primary biliary cholangitis?

A

ursodeoxycholic acid
* slows disease progression and improves symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Why do high urea levels indicate an upper GI bleed over Lower?

A

when upper GI bleeding occurs, the blood is digested into proteins. These proteins are transported to the liver via the portal vein and metabolized to urea in the urea cycle. This is likely a presentation of a perforated peptic ulcer. Upper GI bleedings can result in melaena as the blood gets digested through the lower GI tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Features of oesophageal cancer?

A

Dysphagia may be associated with weight loss, anorexia or vomiting during eating
Past history may include Barrett’s oesophagus, GORD, excessive smoking or alcohol use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Features of achalasia?

A

Dysphagia ofboth liquids and solids from the start
Heartburn
Regurgitation of food - may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Children with tracheo-oesophageal fistulas will commonly developwhat?

A

oesophageal strictures following repair. These may require regular dilations throughout childhood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Management to mild to moderate UC proctitis flare?

A
  • topical (rectal) aminosalicylate: for distal colitis rectal mesalazine has been shown to be superior to rectal steroids and oral aminosalicylates
  • if remission is not achieved within4 weeks,add an oral aminosalicylate
  • if remission still not achieved add topical ororal corticosteroid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Management to mild to moderate UC proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis flare?

A
  • topical (rectal) aminosalicylate
  • if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks,add a high-dose oral aminosalicylateOR switch to a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and a topical corticosteroid
  • if remission still not achieved stop topical treatments and offer an oral aminosalicylate andan oral corticosteroid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is melanosis coli?

A

disorder of pigmentation of the bowel wall. Histology demonstrates pigment-laden macrophages
It is associated with laxative abuse, especially anthraquinone compounds such as senna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Features of duodenal ulcer?

A

These are usually posteriorly sited and may erode thegastroduodenal artery. However, ulcers at any site in the duodenum may present with haematemesis, melena and epigastric discomfort.
The pain of a duodenal ulcer is slightly different to that of gastric ulcers and often occurs several hours after eating. Periampullary tumours may bleed but these are rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Classic history of pain several hours after eating is more characteristic of what?

A

Duodenal ulcer compared to gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Blood vessel responsible in duodenal ulcer?

A

Gastroduodenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is hapatorenal syndrome?

A

Occurs when the kidneys stop working well in people with serious liver problems. Less urine is produced by the body, so waste products that contain nitrogen build up in the bloodstream (azotemia). The disorder occurs in up to 1 in 10 people who are in the hospital with liver failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Management of hepatorenal syndrome?

A
  • vasopressin analogues, for example terlipressin, have a growing evidence base supporting their use. They work by causing vasoconstriction of the splanchnic circulation
  • volume expansion with 20% albumin
  • transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does anti-HBc imply?

A

previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months. IgG anti-HBc persists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What does anti-HbS imply?

A

implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation). It is negative in chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Management of recurrent episodes of C diff?

A
  • recurrent infection occurs in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode
  • within 12 weeks of symptom resolution: oral fidaxomicin
  • after 12 weeks of symptom resolution: oral vancomycin OR fidaxomicin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Management of UC Following a severe relapse or >=2 exacerbations in the past year

A
  • oral azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The causes of ascites can be grouped intowhat?

A

those with a serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) <11 g/L or a gradient >11g/L as per the table below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Management of ascites?

A
  • reducing dietary sodium
  • fluid restriction is sometimes recommended if the sodium is < 125 mmol/L
  • aldosterone antagonists: e.g. spironolactone
    • drainage if tense ascites (therapeutic abdominal paracentesis)
    • a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered in some patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Inducing remissions in crohns?

A

glucocorticoids (oral, topical or intravenous) are generally used to induce remission. Budesonide is an alternative in a subgroup of patients
enteral feeding with an elemental diet may be used in addition to or instead of other measures to induce remission, particularly if there is concern regarding the side-effects of steroids (for example in young children)
5-ASA drugs (e.g. mesalazine) are used second-line to glucocorticoids but are not as effective
azathioprine or mercaptopurine* may be used as an add-on medication to induce remission but is not used as monotherapy. Methotrexate is an alternative to azathioprine
infliximab is useful in refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s. Patients typically continue on azathioprine or methotrexate
metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Treatment for achalasia?

A

pneumatic (balloon) dilationis increasingly the preferred first-line option
* less invasive and quicker recovery time than surgery
* patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur
surgical intervention with aHeller cardiomyotomyshould be considered ifrecurrent or persistentsymptoms
intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is sometimes used in patients who are a high surgical risk
drug therapy (e.g. nitrates, calcium channel blockers) has a role but is limited by side-effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Drugs for maintaining remission in crohns?

A
  • stopping smoking is a priority (remember: smoking makes Crohn’s worse, but may help ulcerative colitis)
  • azathioprine or mercaptopurineis used first-line to maintain remission
    +TPMT activityshould be assessed before starting
  • methotrexate is used second-line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Positive anti-HBc IgG, negative anti-HBc IgM and negative anti-HBc in the presence of HBsAgindicates what?

A

Chronic HBV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Histology findings in crohns?

A
  • inflammation in all layers from mucosa to serosa
  • goblet cells
  • granulomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is acalculous cholecystitis?

A

Patients with intercurrent illness (e.g. diabetes, organ failure)
Patient of systemically unwell
Gallbladder inflammation in absence of stones
High fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Features of acute cholecytisis?

A

Right upper quadrant pain
Fever
Murphys sign on examination
Occasionally mildly deranged LFT’s (especially if Mirizzi syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Features of cholangitits?

A

Patient severely septic and unwell
Jaundice
Right upper quadrant pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Gold standard for oesophageal cancer?

A

Endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessivedisorder characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues. Metabolic abnormalities include increased copper absorption from the small intestine and decreased hepatic copper excretion. Wilson’s disease is caused by a defect in theATP7Bgene located onchromosome 13.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Features of Wilsons?

A
  • liver: hepatitis, cirrhosis
  • neurological:
    • basal ganglia degeneration: in the brain, most copper is deposited in the basal ganglia, particularly in the putamen and globus pallidus
    • speech, behavioural andpsychiatric problemsare often the first manifestations
    • also:asterixis,chorea,dementia, parkinsonism
  • Kayser-Fleischer rings
    • green-brown rings in the periphery of the iris
    • due to copper accumulation in Descemet membrane
    • present in around 50% of patients with isolated hepatic Wilson’s disease and 90% who have neurological involvement
  • renal tubular acidosis(esp. Fanconi syndrome)
  • haemolysis
  • blue nails
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is pharyngeal pouch?

A

posteromedial diverticulum through Killian’s dehiscence. Killian’s dehiscence is a triangular area in the wall of the pharynxbetween the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles. It is more common in older patients and is 5 times more common in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Features of pharyngeal pouch?

A
  • dysphagia
  • regurgitation
  • aspiration
  • neck swelling which gurgles on palpation
  • halitosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

A nice way of remembering the Child-Pugh score

A

A - albumin
B - bilirubin
C - clotting
D - distention (ascites)
E - encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis should be given to patients with ascites if:

A
  • patients who havehad an episode of SBP
  • patients with fluid protein <15 g/l and either Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome
  • NICE recommend: ‘Offer prophylacticoral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacinfor people with cirrhosis and ascites with an ascitic protein of 15 g/litre or less until the ascites has resolved’
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Side effects mesalazine?

A

GI upset, headache, agranulocytosis,pancreatitis*, interstitial nephritis

104
Q

Management of life threatening C diff infection?

A
  • oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole
  • specialist advice - surgery may be considered
105
Q

How to work out units of alcohol?

A

ABV% times Volune (litres)

106
Q

One unit of alcohol is equal toin ethanol?

A

10ml of pure ethanol

107
Q

How long before procedure should PPi be stopped?

A

2 weeks

108
Q

HBsAg positive, anti-HBs negative, IgM anti-HBc positive suggests what?

A

Acute infection

109
Q

Histology findings of UC?

A

No inflammation beyond submucosa(unless fulminant disease) - inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria
* neutrophils migrate through the walls of glands to formcrypt abscesses
* depletion of goblet cellsand mucin from gland epithelium
* * granulomas are infrequent

110
Q

Features of gastric cancer?

A

abdominal pain
* typically vague, epigastric pain
* may present as dyspepsia
weight loss and anorexia
nausea and vomiting
dysphagia: particularly if the cancer arises in the proximal stomach
overt upper gastrointestinal bleeding is seen only in a minority of patients
if lymphatic spread:
* left supraclavicular lymph node (Virchow’s node)
* periumbilical nodule (Sister Mary Joseph’s node)

111
Q

The following drugs tend to cause cholestasis (+/- hepatitis):

A

combined oral contraceptive pill
antibiotics:flucloxacillin,co-amoxiclav, erythromycin*
anabolic steroids, testosterones
phenothiazines: chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
sulphonylureas
fibrates
rare reported causes: nifedipine

112
Q

ifdysplasia of any grade in Barretts oesophagus is identified endoscopic interventionis offered. Options include:

A
  • radiofrequency ablation: preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia
  • endoscopic mucosal resection
113
Q

Large-volume paracentesis for the treatment of ascites requireswhat?

A

Albumin ‘cover’. Evidence suggests this reduces paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality

114
Q

What is pout jegher’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominantcondition characterised by numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. It is also associated with pigmented freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles.Although the polyps themselves don’t have malignant potential, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.

115
Q

Complications of coeliac disease?

A
  • anaemia:iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency(folate deficiency is more common than vitamin B12 deficiency in coeliac disease)
  • hyposplenism
  • osteoporosis,osteomalacia
  • lactose intolerance
  • enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of small intestine
  • subfertility, unfavourable pregnancy outcomes
  • rare: oesophageal cancer, other malignancies
116
Q

What is Gilbert’s?

A

autosomal recessive* condition of defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.

117
Q

What is TPMT?

A

enzyme involved in the metabolism of azathioprine and mercaptopurine. Some people have a deficiency of TPMT due to genetic mutations and those are at a greater risk of experiencing side effects from conventional doses of azathioprine or mercatoprurine therapy

118
Q

First line to maintain remission in Crohns?

A

Azathroprine or mercaptopurine

119
Q

n pancreatic cancer, 3 different abdominal masses may be present:

A

hepatomegaly (metastases)
gallbladder (Courvoisier’s law)
epigastric mass (primary)

120
Q

Investigations for pancreatic cancer?

A

ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90%
high-resolution CT scanning is the investigation of choice if the diagnosis is suspected
imaging may demonstrate the ‘double duct’ sign - the presence of simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts

121
Q

Treatment of recurrent C diff?

A

Oral fidaxomicin

122
Q

Management of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

lactulose first-line, with the addition of rifaximin for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy
lactulose is thought to work by promoting the excretion of ammonia and increasing the metabolism of ammonia by gut bacteria
antibiotics such as rifaximin are thought to modulate the gut flora resulting in decreased ammonia production

123
Q

H pylori eradication manageemnt?

A

PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin, or
PPI + metronidazole + clarithromycin

124
Q

The following drugs tend to cause cholestasis (+/- hepatitis):

A

combined oral contraceptive pill
antibiotics: flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, erythromycin*
anabolic steroids, testosterones
phenothiazines: chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
sulphonylureas
fibrates
rare reported causes: nifedipine

125
Q

Why should metoclopramide be avoided in bowel obstruction?

A

Should be avoided as it is a pro-kinetic anti-emetic so could cause a perforation in bowel obstruction.

126
Q

Diagnosis of C diff?

A

is made by detecting C. difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool
C. difficile antigen positivity only shows exposure to the bacteria, rather than current infection

127
Q

Adverse effects of PPIs?

A

hyponatraemia, hypomagnasaemia
osteoporosis → increased risk of fractures
microscopic colitis
increased risk of C. difficile infections

128
Q

What is small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome?

A

disorder characterised by excessive amounts of bacteria in the small bowel resulting in gastrointestinal symptoms.

129
Q

Features of small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome?

A
  • chronic diarrhoea
  • bloating, flatulence
  • abdominal pain
130
Q

Diagnosis of small bowel bacteria overgrowth syndrome?

A
  • hydrogen breath test
  • small bowel aspiration and culture: this is used less often as invasive and results are often difficult to reproduce
  • clinicians may sometimes give a course of antibiotics as a diagnostic trial
131
Q

What does anti HbS imply?

A

Implies immunity

132
Q

Budd chiari syndrome triad?

A

sudden onset abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly

133
Q

AST/ALT ratio in alcohol hepatitis?

A

2:1

134
Q

Third line for c diff?

A

oral vancomycin +/- IV metronidazole should be tried

135
Q

First line investigation in severe colitis?

A

colonoscopy should be avoided due to the risk of perforation - a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred

136
Q

Dysplasia on biopsy in Barrett’s oesophageal management?

A

Endoscopic mucosal resection

137
Q

Features of pharyngeal pouch?

A
  • dysphagia
  • regurgitation
  • aspiration
  • neck swelling which gurgles on palpation
  • halitosis
138
Q

What should be used to manage an uncontrolled varicella haemorrhage if OGD not ready?

A

Insert a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

139
Q

What is an aorto enteric fistula?

A

In patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery aorto-enteric fistulation remains a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage

140
Q

How to remember to replace B12 before folate?

A

B is before f in the alphabet

141
Q

Patients with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis should be given what?

A

aldosterone antagonist

142
Q

Definitive management of oesophageal varices?

A

TIPS

143
Q

Histology findings in crohns?

A

Inflammation in all layers from mucosa to serosa
* increased goblet cells
* granuloma

144
Q

Side effects of sulphalazine?

A

Rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, lung fibrosis

145
Q

Mr Lynch is a CEO

A

Colorectal cancer
Endometrial cancer
Ovarian cancer

146
Q

Memory aid for TB drug side effects?

A

RifamPEEcin
IsoNERVEzid
PyraLIVERmid
EYEthambol

147
Q

Mneumonic for Plummer vinson?

A

Dysphagia, Iron deficiency anemia, Esophageal webs

148
Q

Acute treatment of varicella haemorrhage?

A

ABC
Correct clotting
Vasoactive agents- terlipressen
Prophylactic IV abx- offer prophylactic for people with cirrhosis who have a GI bleed
Endoscopic varicella band ligation
Sengstaken-Blakemore tube if uncontrolled haemorrhage
TIPPS if all else fails

149
Q

Prophylaxis of variceal haemorrhage

A

Propanolol
Endoscopic varicela band ligation: ◦ performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration
Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be used if the above measures are unsuccessful in preventing further episodes

150
Q

Metabolic ketoacidosis with normal or low glucose. Think what?

A

Alcoholic ketoacidosis

151
Q

Typical iron study profile in patient with haemochromatosis

A
  • transferrin saturation > 55% in men or > 50% in women
  • raised ferritin (e.g. > 500 ug/l) and iron
  • low TIBC
152
Q

How many stools for mild UC?

A

Fewer than four stools daily, with or without blood

153
Q

How many stools for moderate UC?

A

Four to six stools a day, with minimal systemic disturbance

154
Q

How many stools for severe UC?

A

More than six stools a day, containing blood

155
Q

Child pugh classification

A
156
Q

What are the ANCA antibodies associated wtih?

A

small vessel vasculitides with c-ANCA primarily associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

On the other hand, p-ANCA can be found in broad range of conditions including primary sclerosing cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis and ulcerative colitis.

157
Q

Important vaccine information for coeliac disease?

A

Patients with coeliac disease often have a degree of functional hyposplenism
For this reason, all patients with coeliac disease are offered the pneumococcal vaccine
Coeliac UK recommends that everyone with coeliac disease is vaccinated against pneumococcal infection and has a booster every 5 years
Currrent guidelines suggest giving the influenza vaccine on an individual basis.

158
Q

Blatchord score

A
159
Q

A repeat endoscopy given two previous treatments of an ulcer is unlikely to be effective and it would be more appropriate to proceed to

A

surgical exploration and repair of the ulcer at laparotomy

160
Q

Features of a carcinoid tumour?

A

Bradykinin and serotonin = flushing, diarrhoea, wheezing; Can produce pituitary hormones so flushing + anything else still consider this as the top choice

161
Q

Management of carcinoid tumours?

A

somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide
diarrhoea: cyproheptadine may help

162
Q

Investigations for carcinoid tumours?

A

urinary 5-HIAA
plasma chromogranin A y

163
Q

What is achlasia?

A

Failure of oesophageal peristalsis and of relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus i.e. LOS contracted, oesophagus above dilated.

164
Q

Gold standard fr diagnosis of coeliac?

A

Endoscopic intestinal biopsy

165
Q

You cannot interpret TTG level in coeliac disease without looking at what

A

IgA levels

166
Q

serology investigations in coeliac

A

tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) are first-choice according to NICE
endomyseal antibody (IgA)
needed to look for selective IgA deficiency, which would give a false negative coeliac result
anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended by NICE
anti-casein antibodies are also found in some patients§§§

167
Q

Management of svere alcpoholic hepatits?

A

Prednisollone

168
Q

What is pellagra?

A

Vitamin B3 defiencny (niacin)

169
Q

Features of vitamin B3 deficiency (Pellagra)?

A

Dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia/delusions, leading to death

170
Q

What is ischaemic hepatitis?

A

diffuse hepatic injury resulting from acute hypoperfusion (sometimes known as ‘shock liver’). It is not an inflammatory process. It is diagnosed in the presence of an inciting event (e.g. a cardiac arrest) and marked increases in aminotransferase levels (exceeding 1000 international unit/L or 50 times the upper limit of normal). Often, it will occur in conjunction with acute kidney injury (tubular necrosis) or other end-organ dysfunction.

171
Q

Type 1 hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Rapidly progressive
Doubling of serum creatinine to > 221 µmol/L or a halving of the creatinine clearance to less than 20 ml/min over a period of less than 2 weeks
Very poor prognosis

172
Q

Featiures of type 2 hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Slowly progressive
Prognosis poor, but patients may live for longer

173
Q

First line for primary biliary cholangitits?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

174
Q

Key investigation for patients taking aminosalicylates and become unwell (mesalazine. and sulphasalzine)

A

FBC due to risk of agranulocytosis

175
Q

What is a sister mary joseph’s node?

A

palpable nodule in the umbilicus due to metastasis of malignant cancer within the pelvis or abdomen

176
Q

Gallstone ileus plain film X ray

A

Small bowel obstruction and air in the biliary tree

177
Q

Featuees of a pharyngeal pouch?

A

dysphagia
regurgitation
aspiration
neck swelling which gurgles on palpation
halitosis

178
Q

What is a pharyngeal pouch?

A

posteromedial diverticulum through Killian’s dehiscence. Killian’s dehiscence is a triangular area in the wall of the pharynx between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles

179
Q

Investigations for pharyngeal pouch?

A

barium swallow combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy

180
Q

H pylori eradication regimens?

A

PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin, or
PPI + metronidazole + clarithromycin

181
Q

Features of chronoc mesenteric ischaemia?

A

severe, colicky post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and an abdominal bruit

182
Q

What is ischaemic colitis?

A

acute but transient compromise in the blood flow to the large bowel

183
Q

Where is ischaemic colitis most likely to occur?

A

Watershed areas. Splenic flexure. As on borders of terriotory supplied by superior and inferior mesenteric arteries

184
Q

Triad in mesenteric ischaemia?

A

high lactate and soft but tender abdomen, CVD

185
Q

wHAT BOWEL part most commonly affected in mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Small bowel

186
Q

What part of bowel most commonly affected in ischaemic colitis?

A

Large bowel

187
Q

Manageemnt of patients with dyspepsia who don’t have criteria for endoscopy?

A
  1. Review medications for possible causes of dyspepsia
  2. Lifestyle advice
  3. Trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month OR a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori
    if symptoms persist after either of the above approaches then the alternative approach should be tried
188
Q

Management of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

treat any underlying precipitating cause
NICE recommend lactulose first-line, with the addition of rifaximin for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy
lactulose is thought to work by promoting the excretion of ammonia and increasing the metabolism of ammonia by gut bacteria
antibiotics such as rifaximin are thought to modulate the gut flora resulting in decreased ammonia production
other options include embolisation of portosystemic shunts and liver transplantation in selected patients

189
Q

What should be given before endoscopy in patients with suspected variceal haemorrhage?

A

terlipressin and antibiotics

190
Q

Invvestigations for primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) are the standard diagnostic investigations, showing multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance
p-ANCA may be positive
there is a limited role for liver biopsy, which may show fibrous, obliterative cholangitis often described as ‘onion skin’

191
Q

Grading of hepatic encephlopathy?

A

Grade I: Irritability
Grade II: Confusion, inappropriate behaviour
Grade III: Incoherent, restless
Grade IV: Coma

192
Q

What LFTs suggest an obstructive cause for the jaundice?

A

bigger raise in ALP and GGT than ALT

193
Q

Management of a pharyngeal pouch?

A

Surgery

194
Q

What does anti HBc imply?

A

implies previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months. IgG anti-HBc persists

195
Q

What is HbeAg?

A

breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells as is, therefore, a marker of infectivity. Marker of HBV replication and infectivity

196
Q

What is anti-HBs?

A

implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation). It is negative in chronic disease

197
Q

What is transient elastography useful for?

A

useful for diagnosing and monitoring the severity of liver cirrhosis

198
Q

What is type I autoimmune hepatitis?

A

Anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA)

Affects both adults and children

199
Q

Autoimmune type II hepatitis?

A

Anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1)

Affects children only

200
Q

Charactristic features of autoimmune hapatitis?

A

Antinuclear antibodies, anti-smooth muscle antibodies and raised IgG levels

201
Q

What is ALP?

A

produced by the cells lining the bile ducts. Hence the levels in the blood will rise in obstructive disease.

202
Q

wHAT ARE AST and ALT?

A

both produced by hepatocytes. In hepatocellular disease, hepatocytes release these enzymes into the blood stream, hence explaining the raised ALT in this question.

203
Q

Best way to assess liver funtion?

A

Prothrombin time and albumin level

204
Q

most sensitive and specific lab finding for diagnosis of liver cirrhosis in those with chronic liver disease

A

Thrombocytopenia (platelet count <150,000 mm^3)

205
Q

How much would you expect AST top be reaised in chronic hepatitis?

A

10 times

206
Q

How would urea change in advanced liver disease?

A

Decreased as liver makes urea

207
Q

eatures of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?

A

hamartomatous polyps in the gastronintestinal tract (mainly small bowel)
small bowel obstruction is a common presenting complaint, often due to intussusception
gastrointestinal bleeding
pigmented lesions on lips, oral mucosa, face, palms and soles

208
Q

Why is MRCP better than ERCP?

A

Less invasive

209
Q

Management of bile acid malabsorptuon?

A

bile acid sequestrants e.g. cholestyramine

210
Q

symptomatic perianal fistulae management?

A

Oral metronidazole

211
Q

Pernicious anaemia predisposes to what cancer?

A

Gastric carcinoma

212
Q

Acute hypoperfusion (e.g. low BP secondary to blood loss) may result in what liver conditio?

A

Ischaemic hepatitis

213
Q

What is the apple core sign?

A

constriction of the lumen of the colon by a stenosing annular colorectal carcinoma

214
Q

Complications of coeliac disease?

A

anaemia: iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency (folate deficiency is more common than vitamin B12 deficiency in coeliac disease)
hyposplenism
osteoporosis, osteomalacia
lactose intolerance
enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of small intestine
subfertility, unfavourable pregnancy outcomes
rare: oesophageal cancer, other malignancies

215
Q

Cause of vitamin B6 deficinecy?

A

Isoniazid therapy

216
Q

Consequences of vitamin B6 deficiency

A

peripheral neuropathy
sideroblastic anemia

217
Q

What is a dieulafoy lesion?

A

Often no prodromal features prior to haematemesis and melena, but this arteriovenous malformation may produce quite a considerable haemorrhage and may be difficult to detect endoscopically

abnormally large artery (a vessel that takes blood from the heart to other areas of the body) in the lining of the gastrointestinal system

218
Q

What is oesophageal varices?

A

Usually a large volume of fresh blood. Swallowed blood may cause melena. Often associated with haemodynamic compromise. May stop spontaneously but re-bleeds are common until appropriately managed
Enlarged veins in the eosophagus

219
Q

What is used to monitor tresatment in haemachromatosis?

A

Ferritin and tranferrin saturation

220
Q

Management of bile acid malabsorption?

A

bile acid sequestrants e.g. cholestyramine

221
Q

Investigations for bile acid malabsorpion?

A

the test of choice is SeHCAT
nuclear medicine test using a gamma-emitting selenium molecule in selenium homocholic acid taurine or tauroselcholic acid (SeHCAT)
scans are done 7 days apart to assess the retention/loss of radiolabelled 75SeHCAT

222
Q

The AST/ALT ratio in alcoholic hepatitis is what?

A

2:1

223
Q

Risk factors for SCC?

A

smoking
alcohol
achalasia
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
diets rich in nitrosamine

224
Q

Conditions associated with NAFLD?

A

obesity
type 2 diabetes mellitus
hyperlipidaemia
jejunoileal bypass
sudden weight loss/starvation

225
Q

Features of Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

abdominal pain: sudden onset, severe
ascites → abdominal distension
tender hepatomegaly

226
Q

Investigations for budd-chiari syndrome?

A

ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is very sensitive and should be the initial radiological investigation

227
Q

Features of Budd Chiari Syndrome?

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome is a condition in which the hepatic veins (veins that drain the liver) are blocked or narrowed by a clot (mass of blood cells). This blockage causes blood to back up into the liver, and as a result, the liver grows larger

228
Q

What is a carcinoid syndrome?

A

occurs when a rare cancerous tumor called a carcinoid tumor secretes certain chemicals into your bloodstream, causing a variety of signs and symptoms. A carcinoid tumor, which is a type of neuroendocrine tumor, occurs most often in the gastrointestinal tract or the lungs.

229
Q

Management of carcinoid tumours?

A

somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide
diarrhoea: cyproheptadine may help

230
Q

What antibiotics should not be used before an H pylori test?

A

should not be performed within 4 weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within 2 weeks of an antisecretory drug (e.g. a proton pump inhibitor)

231
Q

Investigations for achalasia?

A

oesophageal manometry
excessive LOS tone which doesn’t relax on swallowing
considered the most important diagnostic test

barium swallow
shows grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level
‘bird’s beak’ appearance

chest x-ray
wide mediastinum
fluid leve

232
Q

Diagnosis of C diff?

A

is made by detecting C. difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool
C. difficile antigen positivity only shows exposure to the bacteria, rather than current infection

233
Q

What should be stopped in C dff?

A

medications which are anti-motility and anti-peristaltic should be held. Anti-peristaltic drugs such as opioids can predispose to toxic megacolon by slowing the clearance of the Clostridium difficile toxin. If possible, antibiotics should also be held to allow normal intestine flora to be re-established, though the antibiotics used to treat the Clostridium difficile should be continued.

234
Q

Derugs that cause cholestasis

A

combined oral contraceptive pill
antibiotics: flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, erythromycin*
anabolic steroids, testosterones
phenothiazines: chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
sulphonylureas
fibrates
rare reported causes: nifedipine

235
Q

What antibiotics are strongly linked to C diff?

A

Cephalosporins, not just clindamycin

236
Q

Maintaining remission in crohns?

A

as above, stopping smoking is a priority (remember: smoking makes Crohn’s worse, but may help ulcerative colitis)
azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line to maintain remission
+TPMT activity should be assessed before starting
methotrexate is used second-line

237
Q

HNPCC genes associated with it?

A

MSH2 (60% of cases)
MLH1 (30%)

238
Q

What examinatioj needs to be dome to rule ou tt conditions other than appendicities in RIF pain?

A

Examination of the scrotum

239
Q

What does a TIPS procedure do?

A

Connects the hepatic vein and the portal vein, although can connect the portal vein to the IVC.

240
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome triad?

A

dysphagia (secondary to oesophageal webs)
glossitis
iron-deficiency anaemia

241
Q

What is plummer vinson syndrome?

A

A disorder marked by anemia caused by iron deficiency, and a web-like growth of membranes in the throat that makes swallowing difficult. Having Plummer-Vinson syndrome may increase the risk of developing esophageal cancer.

242
Q

a high SAAG gradient (> 11g/L) indicates what?

A

Portal hyopertensin

243
Q

What is charcot’s triad?

A

o RUQ pain
o Fever
o Jaundice
Seen in acute cholangitis

244
Q

Why do cramps happen?

A

Contractions due to a blockage

245
Q

Biliary colic vs acute cholangitis

A

Biliary colic is not infection so no fever
No raised inflammatory markers

246
Q

Common types of stones?

A

Cholestrol and pigment stones

247
Q

Why are gallstones more common in fat, fertile, fourty yo females?

A

Oestrogen

248
Q

What is cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Cancer of the bile duct walls

249
Q

What is courvoisier law?

A

In a jaundiced patient and can feel the gallbladder underlying cause is not gallstones

250
Q

How to interpret LFTs?

A

Bilirubin raised means it jaundiced
ALT/AST: More hepatic
Alkaline phos: More bile duct

251
Q

How do we compare ALT and ALP?

A

A greater than 10-fold increase in ALT and a less than 3-fold increase in ALP suggests a predominantly hepatocellular injury.

A less than 10-fold increase in ALT and a more than 3-fold increase in ALP suggests cholestasis.

It is possible to have a mixed picture involving both hepatocellular injury and cholestasis.

252
Q

A raised GGT can be suggestive of WHAT?

A

biliary epithelial damage and bile flow obstruction. It can also be raised in response to alcohol and drugs such as phenytoin. A markedly raised ALP with a raised GGT is highly suggestive of cholestasis.

253
Q

A raised ALP in the absence of a raised GGT should raise your suspicion of

A

non-hepatobiliary pathology. Alkaline phosphatase is also present in bone and therefore anything that leads to increased bone breakdown can elevate ALP.

254
Q

What is albumin?

A

synthesised in the liver and helps to bind water, cations, fatty acids and bilirubin. It also plays a key role in maintaining the oncotic pressure of blood.

255
Q

Albumin levels can fall due to:

A

Liver disease resulting in a decreased production of albumin (e.g. cirrhosis).
Inflammation triggering an acute phase response which temporarily decreases the liver’s production of albumin.
Excessive loss of albumin due to protein-losing enteropathies or nephrotic syndrome.

256
Q

What is PT?

A

measure of the blood’s coagulation tendency, specifically assessing the extrinsic pathway. In the absence of other secondary causes such as anticoagulant drug use and vitamin K deficiency, an increased PT can indicate liver disease and dysfunction. The liver is responsible for the synthesis of clotting factors, therefore hepatic pathology can impair this process resulting in increased prothrombin time.

257
Q

wHY IS pt, aptt and INR better than albumin?

A

More acute picture of injury