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Pharm > PHARM LOTS! > Flashcards

PHARM LOTS! Flashcards

1
Q

Common side effect of hypnotic agents

A

Sedation

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2
Q

Occurs when sedative hypnotics are used chronically or at high doses

A

Tolerance

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3
Q

The most common type of drug interaction of sedative hypnotics with other depressant medications

A

Additive CNS depression

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4
Q

Major effect of benzodiazepines on sleep at high doses

A

REM is decreased

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5
Q

Neurologic SE of benzodiazepines

A

Anterograde amnesia

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6
Q

Reason benzos are used cautiously in pregnancy

A

Ability to cross the placenta

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7
Q

Main route of metabolism for benzodiazepines

A

Hepatic

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8
Q

Benzodiazepine that undergo extrahepatic conjugation (which are useful in older or hepatically impaired)

A

Lorazepam, oxazepam, and temazepam

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9
Q

MOA for benzodiazepines

A

increase the FREQUENCY of GABA-mediated chloride ion channel opening

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10
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine overdose (antagonist that reverses the CNS effects)

A

Flumazenil

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11
Q

Benzodiazepine with useful relaxant effects in skeletal muscle spasticity of central origin

A

Diazepam

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12
Q

Benzodiazepine that has efficacy against absence seizures and in anxiety states, such as agoraphobia

A

Clonazepam

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13
Q

Benzodiazepines that are the most effective in the treatment of panic disorder

A

Alprazolam and Clonazepam

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14
Q

Benzodiazepine that is used for anesthesia

A

Midazolam

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15
Q

DOC for status epilepticus

A

Diazepam

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16
Q

Longer acting benzodiazepines used in the management of withdrawal states of alcohol and other drugs

A

Chlordiazepoxide and Diazepam

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17
Q

Agents having active metabolites, long half lives, and a high incidence of adverse effects

A

Diazepam, Flurazepam, chlordiazepoxide, and clorazepate

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18
Q

Barbiturates may precipitate this hematologic condition

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

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19
Q

Barbiturates decrease the effectiveness of many other drugs via this pharmacokinetics property

A

Liver enzyme INDUCTION

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20
Q

Barbiturates MOA

A

Increase the DURATION of GABA-mediated chloride ion channels

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21
Q

Barbiturate used for the induction of anesthesia

A

Thiopental

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22
Q

Important drug interaction with chloral hydrate

A

May displace coumadin from plasma proteins

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23
Q

Site of action for zaleplon and zolpidem

A

Benzodiazepine receptor BZ1 (although are not considered benzodiazepines)

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24
Q

Good hypnotic activity with less CNS SE than most benzodiazepines

A

Zolpidem, zaleplon

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25
Q

Agent that is a partial agonist for the 5-HT1A receptor

A

Buspirone

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26
Q

Drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder, NOT effective in acute anxiety

A

Buspirone

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27
Q

Agent that is metabolized to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase and microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system (MEOS)

A

Ethanol

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28
Q

Agent with zero-order kinetics

A

Ethanol, theophylline, tolbutamide, warfarin, aspirin, phenytoin

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29
Q

Rate limiting step of alcohol metabolism

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

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30
Q

System that increases in activity with chronic exposure and may contribute to tolerance

A

Microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (MEOS)

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31
Q

Enzyme that metabolizes acetaldehyde to acetate

A

Aldehyde dehydrogenase

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32
Q

Agents that inhibit aldehyde dehydrogenase

A

Disulfiram, metronidazole, certain sulfonylureas and cephalosporins

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33
Q

Agent used in the treatment of alcoholism, if alcohol is consumed concurrently, acetaldehyde builds up and results in nausea, headache, flushing, and hypotension

A

Disulfiram

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34
Q

The most common neurologic abnormality in chronic alcoholics

A

Peripheral neuropathy (also excessive alcohol use is associated with HTN, anemia, and MI)

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35
Q

Agent that is teratogen and causes a fetal syndrome

A

Alcohol

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36
Q

Agent that competes for alcohol dehydrogenase in the case of methanol overdose

A

Ethanol

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37
Q

Drug that inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase and is used in ethylene glycol exposure

A

Fomepizole

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38
Q

Most frequent route of metabolism

A

Hepatic enzymes

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39
Q

Mechanisms of action for Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine

A

Sodium blockade

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40
Q

MOA for benzodiazepines and barbiturates

A

GABA-related targets

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41
Q

MOA for Ethosuximide

A

Calcium channels

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42
Q

MOA for Valproic acid at high doses

A

Affect calcium, potassium, and sodium channels

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43
Q

Drugs of choice for generalized tonic-clonic and partial seizures

A

Valproic acid, Phenytoin and Carbamazepine

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44
Q

DOC for febrile seizures

A

Phenobarbital

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45
Q

Drugs of choice for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide and valproic acid

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46
Q

Drug of choice for myoclonic seizures

A

Valproic acid

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47
Q

Drugs of choice for status epilepticus

A

IV diazepam (or lorazapam) followed by phenytoin

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48
Q

Drugs that can be used for infantile spasms

A

Corticosteroids

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49
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for bipolar affective disorder (BAD)

A

Valproic acid, carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin

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50
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for Trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

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51
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used also for pain of neuropathic orgin

A

Gabapentin

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52
Q

Anti-seizure agent that exhibits non-linear metabolism, highly protein bound, causes fetal hydantoin syndrome, and stimulates hepatic metabolism

A

Phenytoin

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53
Q

SE of phenytoin

A

Gingival hyperplasia, nystagmus, diplopia and ataxia

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54
Q

Anti-seizure agent that induces formation of liver drug-metabolism enzymes, is teratogen and can cause craniofacial anomalies and spina bifida

A

Carbamazepine

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55
Q

Agent that inhibits hepatic metabolism, is hepatotoxic and teratogen that can cause neural tube defects and gastrointestinal distress

A

Valproic acid

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56
Q

Laboratory value required to be monitored for patients on valproic acid

A

Serum ammonia and LFT’s

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57
Q

SE for Lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

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58
Q

SE for Felbamate

A

Aplastic anemia and acute hepatic failure

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59
Q

Anti-seizure medication also used in the prevention of migraines

A

Valproic acid

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60
Q

Carbamazepine may cause

A

Agranulocytosis

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61
Q

Anti-seizure drugs used as alternative drugs for mood stabilization

A

Carbamazepine, gabapentin, lamotrigine, and valproic acid

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62
Q

MOA of general anesthetics

A

Unclear, thought to increase the threshold for firing of CNS neurons

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63
Q

Inhaled anesthetic with a low blood/gas partition coefficient

A

Nitrous oxide

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64
Q

Inversely related to potency of anesthetics

A

Minimum alveolar anesthetic concentration (MAC)

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65
Q

Inhaled anesthetics metabolized by liver enzymes which has a major role in the toxicity of these agents

A

Halothane and methoxyflurane

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66
Q

Most inhaled anesthetics SE

A

Decrease arterial blood pressure

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67
Q

Inhaled anesthetics are myocardial depressants

A

Enflurane and halothane

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68
Q

Inhaled anesthetic causes peripheral vasodilation

A

Isoflurane

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69
Q

Inhaled anesthetic that may sensitize the myocardium to arrhythmogenic effects of catecholamines and has produced hepatitis

A

Halothane

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70
Q

Inhaled anesthetics, less likely to lower blood pressure than other agents, and has the smallest effect on respiration

A

Nitrous oxide

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71
Q

Fluoride released by metabolism of this inhaled anesthetic may cause renal insufficiency

A

Methoxyflurane

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72
Q

Prolonged exposure to this inhaled anesthetic may lead to megaloblastic anemia

A

Nitrous oxide

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73
Q

Pungent inhaled anesthetic which leads to high incidence of coughing and vasospasm

A

Desflurane

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74
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia that may be caused by use of halogenated anesthetics

A

Dantrolene

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75
Q

IV barbiturate used as a pre-op anesthetic

A

Thiopental

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76
Q

Benzodiazepine used adjunctively in anesthesia

A

Midazolam

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77
Q

Benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, it accelerates recovery from benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

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78
Q

This produces “dissociative anesthesia”, is a cardiovascular stimulant which may increases intracranial pressure, and hallucinations occur during recovery

A

Ketamine

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79
Q

Opioid associated with awareness during surgery and post-operative recall, but still used for high-risk cardiovascular surgeries

A

Fentanyl

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80
Q

State of analgesia and amnesia produced when fentanyl is used with droperidol and nitrous oxide

A

Neuroleptanesthesia

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81
Q

Produces both rapid anesthesia and recovery, has antiemetic activity and commonly used for outpatient surgery, may cause marked hypotension

A

Propofol

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82
Q

MOA of local anesthetics (LA’s)

A

Block voltage-dependent sodium channels

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83
Q

This may enhance activity of local anesthetics

A

Hyperkalemia

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84
Q

This may antagonize activity of local anesthetics

A

Hypercalcemia

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85
Q

Almost all local anesthetics have this property and sometimes require the administration of vasoconstrictors (ex. Epinephrine) to prolong activity

A

Vasodilation

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86
Q

Local anesthetic with vasoconstrictive property, favored for head, neck, and pharyngeal surgery

A

Cocaine

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87
Q

Longer acting local anesthetics which are less dependent on vasoconstrictors

A

Tetracaine and bupivacaine

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88
Q

These LA’s have surface activity

A

Cocaine and benzocaine

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89
Q

Most important toxic effects of most local anesthetics

A

CNS toxicity

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90
Q

Commonly abused LA which has cardiovascular toxicity including severe hypertension with cerebral hemorrhage, cardiac arrhythmias, and myocardial infarction

A

Cocaine

91
Q

LA causing methemoglobinemia

A

Prilocaine

92
Q

Structurally related to acetylcholine, used to produce muscle paralysis in order to facilitate surgery or artifical ventilation. Full doses lead to respiratory paralysis and require ventilation

A

Neuromuscular blocking drugs

93
Q

These drugs strongly potentiate and prolong effect of neuromuscular blockade (NMB)

A

Inhaled anesthetics, especially isoflurane, aminoglycosides, and antiarrhythmic

94
Q

These prevent the action of ACh at the skeletal muscle endplate to produce a “surmountable blockade,” effect is reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors (ex. neostigmine or pyridostigmine)

A

Nondepolarizing type antagonists

95
Q

Agent with long duration of action and is most likely to cause histamine release

A

Tubocurarine

96
Q

Non-depolarizing antagonist has short duration

A

Mivacurium

97
Q

Agent can block muscarinic receptors

A

Pancuronium

98
Q

Agent undergoing Hofmann elimination (breaking down spontaneously)

A

Atracurium

99
Q

One depolarizing blocker that causes continuous depolarization and results in muscle relaxation and paralysis, causes muscle pain postoperatively and myoglobinuria may occur

A

Succinylcholine

100
Q

During Phase I these agents worsen the paralysis by succinylcholine, but during phase II they reverse the blockade produced by succinylcholine

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

101
Q

Agents acting in the CNS or in the skeletal muscle, used to reduce abnormally elevated tone caused by neurologic or muscle end plate disease

A

Spasmolytic drugs

102
Q

Facilitates GABA presynaptic inhibition

A

Diazepam

103
Q

GABA agonist in the spinal cord

A

Baclofen

104
Q

Similar to clonidine and may cause hypotension

A

Tizanidine

105
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia by acting on the sarcoplasmic reticulum or skeletal muscle

A

Dantrolene

106
Q

Agent used for acute muscle spasm

A

Cyclobenzaprine

107
Q

Antipsychotics, reserpine at high doses, and MPTP (by-product of illicit meperidine analog) and is irreversible

A

Drug induced Parkinsonism

108
Q

Agent used in drug therapy of Parkinson’s instead of Dopamine which has low bioavailability and does not cross the BBB

A

L-dopa

109
Q

This is combined with L-dopa, inhibits DOPA decarboxylase (active only peripherally) which allows lower effective doses of L-dopa and allows for fewer SE’s (GI distress, postural hypotension, and dyskinesias)

A

Carbidopa

110
Q

Clinical response that may fluctuate in tx of Parkinson’s dx

A

“On-off-phenomenon”

111
Q

Anti-Parkinson’s drug which increases intraocular pressure and is contraindicated in closed angle glaucoma

A

Levodopa

112
Q

Ergot alkaloid that is a partial agonist at D2 receptors in the brain, used for patients who are refractory or cannot tolerate levodopa, causes erythromelalgia

A

Bromocriptine

113
Q

Non ergot agents used as first-line therapy in the initial management of Parkinson’s

A

Pramipexole and ropinirole

114
Q

Enhances dopaminergic neurotransmission SE’s include CNS excitation, acute toxic psychosis and livedo reticularis

A

Amantadine

115
Q

Inhibitor of MAO type B which metabolizes dopamine, used adjunct to levodopa or as sole agent in newly diagnosed pt’s

A

Selegiline

116
Q

Inhibitors of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT), used as adjuncts in Parkinson’s dx and cause acute hepatic failure (monitor LFT’s)

A

Entacapone and Tolcapone

117
Q

Agent decreases the excitatory actions of cholinergic neurons. May improve tremor and rigidity but have LITTLE effect on bradykinesia. Atropine-like side effects

A

Benztropine

118
Q

Agent effective in physiologic and essential tremor

A

Propranolol

119
Q

Agents used in Huntington’s Disease

A

Tetrabenazine (amine depleting drug), Haloperidol (antipsychotic)

120
Q

Agents used in Tourette’s dx

A

Haloperidol or pimozide

121
Q

Chelating agent used in Wilson’s disease

A

Penicillamine

122
Q

Extrapyramidal dysfunction is more common with these agents, which block this subtype of dopamine receptor

A

Older antipsychotic agents, D2 receptors

123
Q

Side effects occuring in antipsychotics that block dopamine

A

EPS, hyperprolactinemia, amennorrhea, galactorrhea, neuroleptic malignant syndrome

124
Q

Antipsychotics that reduce positive symptoms only

A

Older antipsychotics

125
Q

Newer atypical antipsychotics that also improve some of the negative symptoms and help acute agitation

A

Olanzapine and aripiprazole

126
Q

Atypical antipsychotic causing high prolactin levels

A

Risperidone

127
Q

Newer atypical antipsychotic used for bipolar disorder, known to cause weight gain, and adversely affect diabetes

A

Olanzapine

128
Q

Agent more frequently associated with extrapyramidal side effects that can be treated with benzodiazepine, diphenhydramine or muscarinic blocker

A

Haloperidol

129
Q

Drug used in neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dantrolene

130
Q

Agents may exacerbate tardive dyskinesias (may be irreversible and there is no treatment)

A

Muscarinic blockers

131
Q

Antipsychotics having the strongest autonomic effects

A

Chlorpromazine or Thioridazine

132
Q

Antipsychotic having the weakest autonomic effects

A

Haloperidol

133
Q

Only phenothiazine not exerting antiemetic effects, can cause visual impairment due to retinal deposits, and high doses have been associated with ventricular arrhythmias

A

Thioridazine

134
Q

Agent with greater affinity to 5HT2A receptor; reserved for refractory schizophrenia, and can cause weight gain and agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine

135
Q

Anti-psychotics shown not to cause tardive dyskinesia

A

Clozapine and quetiapine

136
Q

Anti-psychotics available in depot preparation

A

Fluphenazine and haloperidol

137
Q

Reduced seizure threshold

A

Low-potency typical antipsychotics and clozapine

138
Q

Orthostatic hypotension and QT prolongation

A

Low potency and risperidone

139
Q

Increased risk of developing cataracts

A

Quetiapine

140
Q

Major route of elimination for Lithium

A

Kidneys

141
Q

Patients being treated with lithium, who are dehydrated, or taking diuretics concurrently, could develop

A

Lithium toxicity, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

142
Q

Drug increases the renal clearance hence decreases levels of lithium

A

Theophylline

143
Q

Lithium is associated with this congenital defect

A

Cardiac anomalies; contraindic: pregnancy&lactation

144
Q

DOC for bipolar affective disorder

A

Lithium

145
Q

SE of lithium

A

Tremor, sedation, ataxia, aphasia, thyroid enlargement, and reversible diabetes insipidus

146
Q

Example of three antidepressants that are indicated for obsessive compulsive disorder

A

Clomipramine, fluoxetine and fluvoxamine

147
Q

Neurotransmitters affected by the action of antidepressants

A

Norepinephrine and serotonin

148
Q

Usual time needed for full effect of antidepressant therapy

A

2 to 3 weeks

149
Q

Population group especially sensitive to side effects of antidepressants

A

Elderly patients

150
Q

All antidepressants have roughly the same efficacy in treating depression, agents are chosen based on these criterion

A

Side-effect profile and prior pt response

151
Q

Well-tolerated and are first-line antidepressants

A

SSRI’s, bupropion, and venlafaxine

152
Q

Most useful in patients with significant anxiety, phobic features, hypochondriasis, and resistant depression

A

Monamine oxidase inhibitors

153
Q

Condition will result from in combination of MAOI with tyramine containing foods (ex. wine, cheese, and pickled meats)

A

Hypertensive crisis

154
Q

MAOI should not be administered with SSRI’s or potent TCA’s due to development of this condition

A

Serotonin syndrome

155
Q

Sedation is a common side effect of these drugs, they lower seizure threshold, uses include BAD, acute panic attacks, phobias, enuresis, and chronic pain and their overdose can be deadly

A

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA)

156
Q

Three C’s associated with TCA toxicity

A

Coma, Convulsions, Cardiac problems (arrhythmias and wide QRS)

157
Q

Agents having higher sedation and antimuscarinic effects than other TCA’s

A

Tertiary amines

158
Q

TCA used in chronic pain, a hypnotic, and has marked antimuscarinic effects

A

Amitriptyline

159
Q

TCA used in chronic pain, enuresis, and OCD

A

Imipramine

160
Q

TCA with greatest sedation of this group, and marked antimuscarinic effects, used for sleep

A

Doxepin

161
Q

TCA used in obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), most significant of TCA’s for risk of seizure, weight gain, and neuropsychiatric signs and symptoms

A

Clomipramine

162
Q

Secondary amines that have less sedation and more excitation effect

A

Nortriptyline, Desipramine

163
Q

Antidepressant associated with neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Amoxapine

164
Q

Antidepressant associated with seizures and cardiotoxicity

A

Maprotiline

165
Q

Antidepressant having stimulant effects similar to SSRI’s and can increase blood pressure

A

Venlafaxine

166
Q

Antidepressant inhibiting norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine reuptake

A

Venlafaxine

167
Q

Antidepressant also used for sleep that causes priapism

A

Trazodone

168
Q

Antidepressant which is inhibitor of CYP450 enzymes and may be associated with hepatic failure

A

Nefazodone

169
Q

Unicyclic antidepressant least likely to affect sexual performance, used for management of nicotine withdrawal, SE’s include dizziness, dry mouth, aggravation of psychosis, and seizures

A

Bupropion

170
Q

Antidepressant with MOA as alpha 2 antagonist, has effects on both 5-HT and NE, blocks histamine receptors, and is sedating

A

Mirtazapine

171
Q

SE of mirtazapine

A

Liver toxicity, increased serum cholesterol

172
Q

Except for these agents all SSRI have significant inhibition of CytP450 enzymes

A

Citalopram and its metabolite escitalopram

173
Q

SSRI with long T1/2 and can be administered once weekly for maintenance, not acute tx

A

Fluoxetine

174
Q

SSRI indicated for premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

Fluoxetine (Sarafem)

175
Q

Some of SSRIs’ therapeutic effects beside depression

A

Panic attacks, social phobias, bulimia nervosa, and PMDD (premenstrual dysphoric disorder), OCD

176
Q

SSRI’s less likely to cause a withdrawal syndrome

A

Fluoxetine

177
Q

Inhibit synaptic activity of primary afferents and spinal cord pain transmission neurons

A

Ascending pathways

178
Q

Activation of these receptors close Ca2+ ion channels to inhibit neurotransmitter release and pain transmission

A

Presynaptic mu, delta, and kappa receptors

179
Q

Activation of these receptors open K+ ion channels to cause membrane hyperpolarization

A

Postsynaptic Mu receptors

180
Q

Tolerance to all effects of opioid agonists can develop except

A

Miosis, convulsions and constipation

181
Q

All opioids except this agent (which has a muscarinic blocking action) cause pupillary constriction

A

Meperidine

182
Q

SE of these drugs include dependence, withdrawal syndrome, sedation, euphoria, respiratory depression nausea and vomiting, constipation, biliary spasm, increased ureteral and bladder tone, and reduction in uterine tone

A

Opioid Analgesics

183
Q

Strong opioid agonists

A

Morphine, methadone, meperidine, and fentanyl

184
Q

Opioids used in anesthesia

A

Morphine and fentanyl

185
Q

Opioid used in the management of withdrawal states

A

Methadone

186
Q

Opioid available trans-dermally

A

Fentanyl

187
Q

Opioid that can be given PO, by epidural, and IV, which helps to relieve the dyspnea of pulmonary edema

A

Morphine

188
Q

Use of this opioid with MAOI can lead to hyperpyrexic coma, and with SSRI’s can lead to serotonin syndrome

A

Meperidine

189
Q

Moderate opioid agonists

A

Codeine, hydrocodone, and oxycodone

190
Q

Weak opioid agonist, poor analgesic, its overdose can cause severe toxicity including respiratory depression, circulatory collapse, pulmonary edema, and seizures

A

Propoxyphene

191
Q

Partial opioid agonist, considered a strong analgesic, has a long duration of action and is resistant to naloxone reversal

A

Buprenorphine

192
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given IV and had short DOA

A

Naloxone

193
Q

Opioid antagonist that is given orally in alcohol dependency programs

A

Naltrexone

194
Q

These agents are used as antitussive

A

Dextromethorphan, Codeine

195
Q

These agents are used as antidiarrheal

A

Diphenoxylate, Loperamide

196
Q

Inhalant anesthetics

A

NO, chloroform, and diethyl ether

197
Q

Toxic to the liver, kidney, lungs, bone marrow, peripheral nerves, and cause brain damage in animals, sudden death has occurred following inhalation

A

Fluorocarbons and Industrial solvents

198
Q

Cause dizziness, tachycardia, hypotension, and flushing

A

Organic nitrites

199
Q

Causes acne, premature closure of epiphyses, masculinization in females, hepatic dysfunction, MI, and increases in libido and aggression

A

Steroids

200
Q

Readily detected markers that may assist in diagnosis of the cause of a drug overdose include

A

Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, body temperature, sweating, bowel signs, and pupillary responses

201
Q

Most commonly abused in health care professionals

A

Heroin, morphine, oxycodone, meperidine and fentanyl

202
Q

This route is associated with rapid tolerance and psychologic dependence

A

IV administration

203
Q

Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, yawning, sweating, weakness, gooseflesh, nausea, and vomiting, tremor, muscle jerks, and hyperpnea are signs of this syndrome

A

Abstinence syndrome

204
Q

Treatment for opioid addiction

A

Methadone, followed by slow dose reduction

205
Q

This agent may cause more severe, rapid and intense symptoms (abstinence syndrome) to a recovering addict

A

Naloxone

206
Q

Sedative-Hypnotics action

A

Reduce inhibition, suppress anxiety, and produce relaxation

207
Q

Additive effects when Sedative-Hypnotics used in combination with these agents

A

CNS depressants

208
Q

Common mechanism by which overdose result in death

A

Depression of medullary and cardiovascular centers

209
Q

“Date rape drug”

A

Flunitrazepam (rohypnol)

210
Q

The most important sign of withdrawal syndrome

A

Excessive CNS stimulation (seizures)

211
Q

Treatment of withdrawal syndrome involves

A

Long-acting sedative-hypnotic or a gradual reduction of dose, clonidine or propranolol

212
Q

These agents are CNS depressants

A

Ethanol, Barbiturates, and Benzodiazepines

213
Q

Withdrawal from this drug causes lethargy, irritability, and headache

A

Caffeine

214
Q

W/D from this drug causes anxiety and mental discomfort

A

Nicotine

215
Q

Treatments available for nicotine addiction

A

Patches, gum, nasal spray, psychotherapy, and bupropion

216
Q

Chronic high dose abuse of nicotine leads to

A

Psychotic state, overdose causes agitation, restlessness, tachycardia, hyperthermia, hyperreflexia, and seizures

217
Q

Tolerance is marked and abstinence syndrome occurs

A

Amphetamines

218
Q

Amphetamine agents

A

Dextroamphetamines and methamphetamine

219
Q

These agents are congeners of Amphetamine

A

DOM, STP, MDA, and MDMA “ecstasy”

220
Q

Overdoses of this agent with powerful vasoconstrictive action may result in fatalities from arrhythmias, seizures, respiratory depression, or severe HTN (MI and stroke)

A

Cocaine “super-speed”

221
Q

Most dangerous of the currently popular hallucinogenic drugs, OD leads to nystagmus, marked hypertension, and seizures, presence of both horizontal and vertical nystagmus is pathognomonic

A

PCP

222
Q

Removal of PCP may be aided

A

Urinary acidification and activated charcoal or continual nasogastric suction

223
Q

THC is active ingredient, SE’s include impairment of judgment, and reflexes, decreases in blood pressure and psychomotor performance occur

A

Marijuana

Pharm (12 decks)

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