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ABSN > Pharm HESI > Flashcards

Pharm HESI Flashcards

1
Q

If two different inhaled meds are prescribed and one is a glucocorticoid which med should come first?

A

first the bronchodilator, then the steroid

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2
Q

Which methylxanthine increases risk of Digoxin toxicity?

A

Theophylline

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3
Q

What body system is in danger when taking a bronchodilator?

A

cardiac

palpitations and dysrhythmias

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4
Q

Bronchodilators are contraindicated in individuals with

A

PUD
Cardiac px
HYPERthyroidism
seizure

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5
Q

When should you give medications with regard to meals?

A

at least 30 minutes before meals

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6
Q

1 side effect of antihistamines?

A

sleepy

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7
Q

Who should definitely not take Benadryl?

A

those with narrow-angle glaucoma

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8
Q

Who probably won’t enjoy taking antihistamines?

A

COPD patients because it dries out their airways

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9
Q

What patient education should be provided with antihistamines?

A

Do not drink alcohol or take opioids with it because it can cause hardcore CNS depression

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10
Q

What is a big problem with monoclonal antibody administration?

A

Injection site reactions

viral and allergic complications

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11
Q

What should the patient avoid while taking Omalizumab?

A

live vaccines

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12
Q

What is the most important side effect of cromolyn sodium?

A

bronchospasm

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13
Q

Nasal decongestants should be used no longer than 48 hours because _____

A

they cause tolerance and rebound nasal congestion

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14
Q

TB patients are treated for how long?

A

6-9 months

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15
Q

How long does it take before TB patients taking meds are no longer UBER contagious?

A

2-3 weeks

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16
Q

What are the big side effects of TB meds?

A 
hepatotoxicity
nephrotoxicity 
neurotoxicity
ototoxicity 
optic neuritis
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17
Q

Which patients would use second-line TB?

A

those with liver failure

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18
Q

What harmless side effect of some TB meds should be mentioned to the patient?

A

red/orange body secretions

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19
Q

What is the primary concern for patients taking any anticoagulant?

A

bleeding

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20
Q

Early signs of digoxin toxicity present as:

A

GI problems

THEN heart rate and visual problems occur

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21
Q

What type of diuretic are -thiazides

A

potassium WASTING

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22
Q

What type of diuretic are LOOP diuretics?

A

potassium WASTING

they inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle

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23
Q

Which kind of diuretic can cause hearing loss?

A

loop diuretic (Furosemide)

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24
Q

Which 2 diuretics are potassium SPARING?

A

Spironolactone

Eplerenone

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25
Q

Big side effects of an ACE inhibitor?

A

dry cough
angioedema
fetal harm

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26
Q

How long are nitroglycerin tablets good for?

A

6 months

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27
Q

Suffix for CCBs?

A

-pine

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28
Q

What should someone taking antilipemic medication report?

A

muscle pain

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29
Q

What is a big side effect of Sulfonamides?

A

rash and fever

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30
Q

Most common side effect of cyclosporine?

A

nephrotoxicity

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31
Q

Side effect of prednisone?

A

it’s a glucocorticoid;
HYPERglycemia
HYPOkalemia

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32
Q

Why should people with glaucoma avoid atropine?

A

it increases intraocular pressure

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33
Q

Levodopa should never be taken with _____

A 
an MAOI (antidepressant) 
can cause a hypertensive crisis
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34
Q

Abrupt cessation of an anticholinergic medication can lead to what?

A

S&S of Parkinson’s

  • rigidity and tremors
  • bradykinesia
  • masked face
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35
Q

Which drugs must be administered slowly to prevent HYPOtension and dysrhythmia?

A

Phenytoin and Benzos

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36
Q

What client education should be administered about Phenytoin (an antiseizure med)?

A

It may decrease the effectiveness of birth control and have teratogenic effects

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37
Q

What drug is given to reverse the effects of benzos? and who can you NOT give it to?

A

Flumazenil

patients with increased ICP or epileptic patients treated with benzodiazepines

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38
Q

What drug is given to reverse the effect of acetaminophen OD?

A

Mucomyst

39
Q

What drug is given to reverse the effects of a cholinergic crisis?

A

atropine sulfate

40
Q

What drugs are used to treat resistant seizures?

A

Iminostilbenes

also for trigeminal neuralgia

41
Q

Who should not take Aspirin? why?

A

children with flu symptoms - risk of Reye’s syndrome

42
Q

What drug should you give in the event of an opioid OD?

A

Naloxone

43
Q

What is the #1 concern with morphine sulfate?

A

respiratory depression

44
Q

When is acetaminophen contraindicated?

A

liver failure or alcoholism

45
Q

What should never be combined with opioids?

A

benzodiazepines

46
Q

What is the #1 concern for patients taking a muscle relaxant?

A

safety

47
Q

What should be monitored when a patient is taking a muscle relaxant?

A

liver function

48
Q

What shouldn’t be taken with antigout medication? why?

A

aspirin because it increases uric acid levels

take acetaminophen instead

49
Q

What are some patient instructions for osteoporosis meds? What is the class of medications called?

A

Bisphosphonates

Take it before breakfast and don’t lay down for 30 minutes after taking

50
Q

Which class of antibiotics has an adverse effect of ototoxicity?

A

aminoglycosides

all end in -mycin

51
Q

Every antibiotic has an adverse effect of _____

A

GI irritation

52
Q

Which class of antibiotics has an adverse effect of fever, rash, and photosensitivity?

A

Fluoroquinolones

all end in -floxacin

53
Q

Which antibiotic class has an adverse effect of furry tongue?

A

Penicillins

all end in -cillin

54
Q

Which antibiotic class has an adverse effect of teeth staining?

A

Tetracyclines

all end in -cycline

55
Q

Which antibiotic class has an adverse effect of pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Cephalosporins

all begin with Cefa-

56
Q

Which two classes of antibiotics have an adverse effect of nephrotoxicity?

A

aminoglycosides and cephalosporins

57
Q

Which immunosuppressant class is also a topical anti-inflammatory?

A

glucocorticoids

58
Q

where are topical glucocorticoids most readily absorbed?

A

scalp, axilla, face, neck, eyelids, perineum

NOT the palms, soles, or back.

59
Q

What should the nurse do before administering a topical glucocorticoid?

A

wash the area

60
Q

When is UV light at its peak?

A

10am-4pm

61
Q

Which acne medication is HIGHLY teratogenic?

A

Isotretinoin

the client must follow the iPLEDGE program

62
Q

Which acne medication is HIGHLY teratogenic?

A

Isotretinoin

the client must follow the iPLEDGE program

63
Q

What are the steps, in order, you would take if an anaphylactic reaction to a medication occurs?

A
  1. assess respiratory status
  2. STOP medication
  3. contact HCP
  4. give oxygen
  5. maintain IV access with normal saline
64
Q

What can the “Nitrogen Mustard” chemotherapeutic agents cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide cause?

A 
hemorrhagic cystitis (bladder inflammation) 
encourage hydration
65
Q

What can be given to reduce uric acid levels after chemo administration?

A

allopurinol

66
Q

What is “leucovorin rescue”?

A

having leucovorin on hand when administering methotrexate in case of toxicity

67
Q

Which class of meds has a side effect of iodism? What is that?

A

antithyroid meds

metal taste in the mouth and sore gums

68
Q

What should a patient do if they’re taking propylthiouracil (PTU) and they get a sore throat and fever?

A

call the HCP, it’s a sign of agranulocytosis

69
Q

Which gland regulates calcium? Hypocalcemia causes what symptom?

A

parathyroid gland

tetany

70
Q

If someone is hypocalcemic, what can they eat to help up their calcium?

A

vitamin D

71
Q

For what condition should a patient be taking corticosteroids?

A

Addison’s disease

they replace the lack of cortisol hallmarked in this condition

72
Q

What could abrupt corticosteroid cessation result in?

A

adrenal insufficiency

73
Q

If someone decides to stop taking birth control to become pregnant, she should use an alternate, nonhormonal form for how long? Why?

A

2 months

To ensure complete excretion of hormonal agents before contraception

74
Q

Viagra should NOT be taken with _____

A

nitrates

doubling down on vasodilation = priapism

75
Q

What is the antidote for Warfarin OD?

A

Vitamin K

76
Q

What is the antidote for Heparin OD?

A

protamine sulfate

77
Q

What labs do we look at for Warfarin?

A

PT and INR

78
Q

What labs do we look at for Heparin?

A

aPTT

79
Q

What needs to be held for 48 hours after any contrast dye study?

A

Metformin

risk of nephropathy and lactic acidosis

80
Q

Which insulin can NOT be mixed with any other types of insulin?

A

Long-acting Glargine

81
Q

What are the only two types of insulin that may be administered via IV?

A

rapid and short-acting

82
Q

How long should you wait to take an antacid before taking any medicine?

A

1 hour

83
Q

What condition is contraindicated with a bile-acid sequestrant?

A

bowel obstruction

84
Q

What is the #1 concern with antiemetics?

A

drowsiness

85
Q

What is the primary concern for a patient taking a laxative?

A

dehydration

86
Q

H2 receptor agonists all end in _____ and function to ______

A

-dine

decrease secretion of stomach acid

87
Q

What is the normal ammonia level (important to check when administering lactulose)?

A

10-80

88
Q

What drug is used to control hypertension, especially during a withdrawal?

A

clonidine

89
Q

What is a big side effect of -statins

A

muscle weakness

90
Q

What beta agonist is good to increase contractility during premature labor?

A

Dobutamine

91
Q

Which anti-inflammatory is good for spinal cord compression?

A

Dexamethasone

92
Q

What is etanercept used for?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

93
Q

What is dantrium used for?

A

reduces muscle spasm by suppressing calcium release

94
Q

Which vitamin increases iron absorption in the body?

A

vitamin C

ABSN (18 decks)

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