Pharm HESI Flashcards

1
Q

If two different inhaled meds are prescribed and one is a glucocorticoid which med should come first?

A

first the bronchodilator, then the steroid

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2
Q

Which methylxanthine increases risk of Digoxin toxicity?

A

Theophylline

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3
Q

What body system is in danger when taking a bronchodilator?

A

cardiac

palpitations and dysrhythmias

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4
Q

Bronchodilators are contraindicated in individuals with

A

PUD
Cardiac px
HYPERthyroidism
seizure

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5
Q

When should you give medications with regard to meals?

A

at least 30 minutes before meals

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6
Q

1 side effect of antihistamines?

A

sleepy

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7
Q

Who should definitely not take Benadryl?

A

those with narrow-angle glaucoma

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8
Q

Who probably won’t enjoy taking antihistamines?

A

COPD patients because it dries out their airways

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9
Q

What patient education should be provided with antihistamines?

A

Do not drink alcohol or take opioids with it because it can cause hardcore CNS depression

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10
Q

What is a big problem with monoclonal antibody administration?

A

Injection site reactions

viral and allergic complications

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11
Q

What should the patient avoid while taking Omalizumab?

A

live vaccines

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12
Q

What is the most important side effect of cromolyn sodium?

A

bronchospasm

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13
Q

Nasal decongestants should be used no longer than 48 hours because _____

A

they cause tolerance and rebound nasal congestion

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14
Q

TB patients are treated for how long?

A

6-9 months

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15
Q

How long does it take before TB patients taking meds are no longer UBER contagious?

A

2-3 weeks

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16
Q

What are the big side effects of TB meds?

A
hepatotoxicity
nephrotoxicity 
neurotoxicity
ototoxicity 
optic neuritis
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17
Q

Which patients would use second-line TB?

A

those with liver failure

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18
Q

What harmless side effect of some TB meds should be mentioned to the patient?

A

red/orange body secretions

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19
Q

What is the primary concern for patients taking any anticoagulant?

A

bleeding

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20
Q

Early signs of digoxin toxicity present as:

A

GI problems

THEN heart rate and visual problems occur

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21
Q

What type of diuretic are -thiazides

A

potassium WASTING

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22
Q

What type of diuretic are LOOP diuretics?

A

potassium WASTING

they inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle

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23
Q

Which kind of diuretic can cause hearing loss?

A

loop diuretic (Furosemide)

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24
Q

Which 2 diuretics are potassium SPARING?

A

Spironolactone

Eplerenone

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25
Big side effects of an ACE inhibitor?
dry cough angioedema fetal harm
26
How long are nitroglycerin tablets good for?
6 months
27
Suffix for CCBs?
-pine
28
What should someone taking antilipemic medication report?
muscle pain
29
What is a big side effect of Sulfonamides?
rash and fever
30
Most common side effect of cyclosporine?
nephrotoxicity
31
Side effect of prednisone?
it's a glucocorticoid; HYPERglycemia HYPOkalemia
32
Why should people with glaucoma avoid atropine?
it increases intraocular pressure
33
Levodopa should never be taken with _____
``` an MAOI (antidepressant) can cause a hypertensive crisis ```
34
Abrupt cessation of an anticholinergic medication can lead to what?
S&S of Parkinson's - rigidity and tremors - bradykinesia - masked face
35
Which drugs must be administered slowly to prevent HYPOtension and dysrhythmia?
Phenytoin and Benzos
36
What client education should be administered about Phenytoin (an antiseizure med)?
It may decrease the effectiveness of birth control and have teratogenic effects
37
What drug is given to reverse the effects of benzos? and who can you NOT give it to?
Flumazenil | patients with increased ICP or epileptic patients treated with benzodiazepines
38
What drug is given to reverse the effect of acetaminophen OD?
Mucomyst
39
What drug is given to reverse the effects of a cholinergic crisis?
atropine sulfate
40
What drugs are used to treat resistant seizures?
Iminostilbenes | also for trigeminal neuralgia
41
Who should not take Aspirin? why?
children with flu symptoms - risk of Reye's syndrome
42
What drug should you give in the event of an opioid OD?
Naloxone
43
What is the #1 concern with morphine sulfate?
respiratory depression
44
When is acetaminophen contraindicated?
liver failure or alcoholism
45
What should never be combined with opioids?
benzodiazepines
46
What is the #1 concern for patients taking a muscle relaxant?
safety
47
What should be monitored when a patient is taking a muscle relaxant?
liver function
48
What shouldn't be taken with antigout medication? why?
aspirin because it increases uric acid levels | take acetaminophen instead
49
What are some patient instructions for osteoporosis meds? What is the class of medications called?
Bisphosphonates | Take it before breakfast and don't lay down for 30 minutes after taking
50
Which class of antibiotics has an adverse effect of ototoxicity?
aminoglycosides | all end in -mycin
51
Every antibiotic has an adverse effect of _____
GI irritation
52
Which class of antibiotics has an adverse effect of fever, rash, and photosensitivity?
Fluoroquinolones | all end in -floxacin
53
Which antibiotic class has an adverse effect of furry tongue?
Penicillins | all end in -cillin
54
Which antibiotic class has an adverse effect of teeth staining?
Tetracyclines | all end in -cycline
55
Which antibiotic class has an adverse effect of pseudomembranous colitis?
Cephalosporins | all begin with Cefa-
56
Which two classes of antibiotics have an adverse effect of nephrotoxicity?
aminoglycosides and cephalosporins
57
Which immunosuppressant class is also a topical anti-inflammatory?
glucocorticoids
58
where are topical glucocorticoids most readily absorbed?
scalp, axilla, face, neck, eyelids, perineum | NOT the palms, soles, or back.
59
What should the nurse do before administering a topical glucocorticoid?
wash the area
60
When is UV light at its peak?
10am-4pm
61
Which acne medication is HIGHLY teratogenic?
Isotretinoin | the client must follow the iPLEDGE program
62
Which acne medication is HIGHLY teratogenic?
Isotretinoin | the client must follow the iPLEDGE program
63
What are the steps, in order, you would take if an anaphylactic reaction to a medication occurs?
1. assess respiratory status 2. STOP medication 3. contact HCP 4. give oxygen 5. maintain IV access with normal saline
64
What can the "Nitrogen Mustard" chemotherapeutic agents cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide cause?
``` hemorrhagic cystitis (bladder inflammation) encourage hydration ```
65
What can be given to reduce uric acid levels after chemo administration?
allopurinol
66
What is "leucovorin rescue"?
having leucovorin on hand when administering methotrexate in case of toxicity
67
Which class of meds has a side effect of iodism? What is that?
antithyroid meds | metal taste in the mouth and sore gums
68
What should a patient do if they're taking propylthiouracil (PTU) and they get a sore throat and fever?
call the HCP, it's a sign of agranulocytosis
69
Which gland regulates calcium? Hypocalcemia causes what symptom?
parathyroid gland | tetany
70
If someone is hypocalcemic, what can they eat to help up their calcium?
vitamin D
71
For what condition should a patient be taking corticosteroids?
Addison's disease | they replace the lack of cortisol hallmarked in this condition
72
What could abrupt corticosteroid cessation result in?
adrenal insufficiency
73
If someone decides to stop taking birth control to become pregnant, she should use an alternate, nonhormonal form for how long? Why?
2 months | To ensure complete excretion of hormonal agents before contraception
74
Viagra should NOT be taken with _____
nitrates | doubling down on vasodilation = priapism
75
What is the antidote for Warfarin OD?
Vitamin K
76
What is the antidote for Heparin OD?
protamine sulfate
77
What labs do we look at for Warfarin?
PT and INR
78
What labs do we look at for Heparin?
aPTT
79
What needs to be held for 48 hours after any contrast dye study?
Metformin | risk of nephropathy and lactic acidosis
80
Which insulin can NOT be mixed with any other types of insulin?
Long-acting Glargine
81
What are the only two types of insulin that may be administered via IV?
rapid and short-acting
82
How long should you wait to take an antacid before taking any medicine?
1 hour
83
What condition is contraindicated with a bile-acid sequestrant?
bowel obstruction
84
What is the #1 concern with antiemetics?
drowsiness
85
What is the primary concern for a patient taking a laxative?
dehydration
86
H2 receptor agonists all end in _____ and function to ______
-dine | decrease secretion of stomach acid
87
What is the normal ammonia level (important to check when administering lactulose)?
10-80
88
What drug is used to control hypertension, especially during a withdrawal?
clonidine
89
What is a big side effect of -statins
muscle weakness
90
What beta agonist is good to increase contractility during premature labor?
Dobutamine
91
Which anti-inflammatory is good for spinal cord compression?
Dexamethasone
92
What is etanercept used for?
rheumatoid arthritis
93
What is dantrium used for?
reduces muscle spasm by suppressing calcium release
94
Which vitamin increases iron absorption in the body?
vitamin C