Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABSN > HAP 4 > Flashcards

HAP 4 Flashcards

1
Q

When can an “innocent murmur” be auscultated?

A

up to age 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a normal jugular vein finding?

A

see-saw pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do women present with an MI?

A

indigestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do diabetics present with an MI?

A

nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What would cause rust/brown colored cough secretions?

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What would cause green-colored cough secretions?

A

bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What would cause white/yellow colored cough secretions?

A

viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BP _______ during pregnancy and CO ________.

A

BP decreases

CO increases by 30-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Increased BP during pregnancy is an abnormal sign related to ________.

A

preeclampsia - HR will increase as well and apical pulse will be higher and more lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Normal HR for babies is between ______

A

100-180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When kids have a heart rate under _____, we start compressions.

A

100bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are signs of heart failure in babies?

A

poor weight gain
resting tachycardia
clubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CHF skin:

A

gray/cyanotic, cold, moist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CHF lungs:

A

dyspnea, orthopnea, wheezes/crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CHF pupils:

A

dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CHF blood pressure:

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CHF patient demeanor

A

anxious, confused, fatigued

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CHF GI:

A

ascites, N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CHF O2 Sat:

A

falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which abnormal heart sound does CHF present with?

A

S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CHF spleen and liver:

A

enlarged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CHF urine output:

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CHF leg presentation:

A

pitting edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When do bone epiphyses close?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are broken bones in a child indicative of?

A

abuse - children’s bones are very strong and not easily broken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When is scoliosis often diagnosed?

A

early in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pregnant women can develop which spinal irregularity?

A

lordosis
AND kyphosis
AND cervical flexion
AND waddling gait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Aging adults can develop which spinal irregularity?

A

kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe how we grade muscles:

A 
0 - no muscle contraction
1 -  slight muscle contraction
2 - full PROM 
3 - full AROM against gravity
4 - full AROM against SOME resistance 
5 - full AROM against FULL resistance (NORMAL)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

From which joint do supination and pronation movement come from?

A

the elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Phalen’s test is for _______ and is done for how long?

A

carpal tunnel

1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tinel’s Sign is for _______

A

carpel tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The bulge sign is for which joint?

A

knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Lasegue’s Test for?

A

herniated disks - also called the straight leg raise test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is Ortolani’s maneuver?

A

it checks for congenital hip dislocation in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is Allis test?

A

it checks for hip dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is commonly dislocated in an infant during birth?

A

clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What irregular spinal condition is normal in children?

A

lordosis with a pot belly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What irregular spinal condition is normal in adolescents

A

kyphosis due to poor posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What test is done during adolescence to screen for scoliosis?

A

forward bend test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the Get Up and Go Test?

A

a test for aging adults where they get up from a chair, walk ten feet, walk back and sit down in ten seconds or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Is rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis inflammatory?

A

RHEUMATOID is INFLAMMATORY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Does rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis feel better with joint movement throughout the day?

A

Rheumatoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Does rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis present with Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes?

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Does rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis cause ulnar deviation?

A

Rheumatoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Does rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis present with a fever?

A

Rheumatoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Does rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis feel worse with repetitive movement?

A

Osteoarthritis feels worse with repetitive movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Symptoms from which arthritis hit the weight-bearing joints?

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Does rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis present with degenerative changes?

A

Osteoarthritis

50
Q

Where do Heberden’s nodes present?

Bouchard’s?

A

H - distal

B - proximal

51
Q

What is the hallmark sign of Gout?

A

extreme big toe pain

52
Q

What is a Tophi and when would you see one?

A

Tophi - round, pea-like deposits of URIC ACID in ear cartilage seen in GOUT

53
Q

Where are the Montgomery glands located?

A

the areola

54
Q

Where are the majority of breast masses found?

A

the tail of Spence

55
Q

Where does 25% of lymphatic fluid go?

A

to the ipsilateral side

56
Q

Lactation begins _____ days post-partum

A

1-3

57
Q

What is witch’s milk?

A

a normal finding in infants - enlarged breasts that secrete witch’s milk due to estrogen crossing the placenta

58
Q

Breast development usually begins between the ages of

A

8-10 (~2years before the onset of menses)

59
Q

When should we start teaching a breast self-exam?

A

adolescence

60
Q

What pattern is best to use to detect for breast cancer?

A

the vertical strip pattern

61
Q

When should breast cancer screening begin?

A

annually beginning at age 45 at the latest

62
Q

Who is at the highest risk of breast cancer?

A

those who have a 1st generation link (mother, sister, daughter)

63
Q

What is retraction?

A

both breasts should move when the arms lift

64
Q

Rank the 3 types of cancer for this exam in order of severity and give the age groups.

A
  1. cancer (30-80, up after 50)
  2. benign breast disease (30-55, down after menopause)
  3. fibroadenoma (15-30)
65
Q

Which of the 3 types of cancer is irregular/ star-shaped?

A

cancer

66
Q

What is the consistency of fibroadenoma?

A

firm/rubbery

67
Q

What is the consistency of benign breast disease?

A

firm/rubbery

68
Q

What is the consistency of cancer?

A

firm to stony hard

69
Q

Which cancer has poorly defined margins?

A

cancer

70
Q

Which of the three cancers usually appears in multiple places?

A

benign breast disease

71
Q

Which cancer is fixed?

A

cancer

72
Q

Which cancer is tender?

A

benign breast disease

73
Q

Which cancer presents with retraction?

A

cancer

74
Q

Which cancer grows cyclically?

A

benign breast disease

75
Q

What are the 12 signs of breast cancer?

A 
Growing vein
Red and hot 
Invisible lump
New fluid
Dimpling

Pinching
Asymmetry
Nipple retraction

Hardening
Orange skin
Puckering
Erosion

76
Q

Wet dreams are normal until what age?

A

12-13

77
Q

Puberty manifests in what order for males?

A

1st testes enlargement
2nd hair
3rd penis size

78
Q

Puberty manifests in what order for females?

A

1st breast enlargement
2nd pubic hair
3rd ovaries move into the pelvic cavity
4th period begins

79
Q

Do female hormones decrease rapidly or gradually at menopause?

A

rapidly

80
Q

To palpate for a hernia in males, we use what approach?

A

NAVEL

Nerve
Artery
Vein
Empty space
Lymph nodes
81
Q

How should we teach Testicular Self Exam?

A

TSE

Timing - once a month
Shower - warm water relaxes the scrotum
Examine - check for and report changes immediately

82
Q

What is Hypospadias?

A

opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis instead of the tip

(hypo = less = under)

83
Q

Whatis Epispadias?

A

opening of the urethra is on top of the penis instead of the tip

(Epi = uppy)

84
Q

What is Priapism?

A

prolonged erection

85
Q

What is Phimosis?

A

the foreskin of the penis can not be retracted

86
Q

What is Paraphimosis?

A

the retracted foreskin of an uncircumcised male can not be returned back to its anatomical position

MEDICAL EMERGENCY

87
Q

Which penis abnormality is a medical emergency?

A

paraphimosis

88
Q

Where are the Skene and Bartholin glands located?

A

vagina

89
Q

A PAP smear screens for which cancer?

A

cervical cancer

NOT for endometrial or ovarian

90
Q

When should you NOT obtain a PAP smear?

A

during a woman’s period/heavy discharge

91
Q

The cervical exam is ______

A

bimanual

92
Q

The cervical opening should be either _____ or _____.

A

nulliparous - little hole

parous - little slit (after childbirth)

93
Q

What are nabothian cysts?

A

benign growths that commonly appear on the cervix after childbirth

small, yellow retention cysts caused by cervical gland obstruction

94
Q

How big is a normal cervix?

A

2.5 cm or 1 inch

95
Q

Penile carcinoma presents as

A

warty growth with watery discharge
painless
on glans/inner lip of foreskin

96
Q

STIs involving C. trachomatosa and gonorrhea often lead to ______

A

epididymitis

97
Q

Testicular torsion is a surgical emergency whose hallmark sign is ________

A

sudden onset of severe pain and scrotal swelling

98
Q

Chlamydia presents as

A

minimal or no S&S

yellow/green discharge

99
Q

Left untreated, chlamydia can lead to:

A

PID

100
Q

Gonorrhea presents as

A

minimal or no S&S

may have purulent discharge

101
Q

Left untreated, gonorrhea can lead to:

A

PID

102
Q

Syphilis often begins as

A

a small silvery papule that resolves spontaneously

secondary symptoms present as fever, rash, sore throat

103
Q

Trichomoniasis presents as

A

malodorous discharge that worsens with period
the vagina has a strawberry appearance
Men have no S&S

104
Q

Herpes presents as

A

pain, fever, and clusters of small blisters
infection lasts 7-10 days
virus remains dormant indefinitely

105
Q

What is the most common STI?

A

HPV

106
Q

How does HPV present subjectively?

A

painless warty growths that may go unnoticed

107
Q

How does HPV present objectively?

A

cauliflower-like papules/patches

108
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

benign growth of uterine tissue outside the uterus

causes pain and weird periods

109
Q

What are ovarian cysts?

A

benign cysts in the ovaries that are asymptomatic

110
Q

What causes cervical cancer?

A

HPV

111
Q

What is the most common sign of cervical cancer?

A

abnormal bleeding between periods

112
Q

What is the most common gynecological cancer?

A

endometrial cancer

113
Q

Who usually gets endometrial cancer?

A

postmenopausal women, especially those taking estrogen

114
Q

What is the hallmark sign of endometrial cancer?

A

abnormal bleeding, sometimes with watery discharge

115
Q

Which gynecological cancer has the highest mortality rate?

A

ovarian cancer

116
Q

What is the most common sign of ovarian cancer?

A

a feeling of fullness

by the time we can feel it, it’s usually too late

117
Q

Describe 1st, 2nd, and 3rd-degree uterine prolapse

A

1st - prolapsed cervix remains in vagina
2nd - prolapsed cervix is introitus (at the vaginal opening)
3rd - cervix AND vagina drop outside introitus

118
Q

The HPV vaccine covers what three conditions?

A

cervical cancer, anal cancer, and genital warts

119
Q

What are the presumptive signs of pregnancy?

A

amenorrhea, breast tenderness, fatigue and increased urinary frequency

120
Q

Who assesses the probable signs of pregnancy?

A

an examiner

121
Q

What are two tests to determine positive pregnancy?

A

FHTs and cardiac activity on the ultrasound

122
Q

When can a mother feel fetal movement?

A

between 18-20 weeks

called “quickening”

ABSN (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions