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ABSN > Patho Final > Flashcards

Patho Final Flashcards

1
Q

Synarthrosis

A

joint that doesn’t move (skull sutures)

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2
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A

slightly moveable joint (pubic symphysis)

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3
Q

Diarthrosis

A

freely moveable joint (knee, elbow, etc.)

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4
Q

Hypertrophy vs. Hyperplasia

A

Trophy - increased mm fiber SIZE

Plasia - increased NUMBER of mm fibers

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5
Q

Does a subluxation count as a dislocation?

A

Yes

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6
Q

What is the hallmark sign of joint dislocation?

A

“popping” noise followed by pain and swelling

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7
Q

Complete fracture:

A

all the way through

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8
Q

Incomplete fracture:

A

“greenstick” fracture

bone bends but doesn’t break, just like green wood

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9
Q

Open fracture:

A

breaks the skin

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10
Q

Comminuted fracture:

A

breaks into a “community”; many pieces

requires surgery

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11
Q

Impacted fracture:

A

FOOSH fracture

looks disgusting

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12
Q

Osteoporosis is when bones become:

A

less dense and more porous

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13
Q

Do more men or women have osteoporosis?

A

women

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14
Q

What are the 3 primary sources of bacteria that cause osteomyelitis?

A

total joint replacements
bites
trauma

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15
Q

What are the 2 main bacteria in osteomyelitis?

A

Staph aureus

Group B streptococci

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16
Q

What is involucrum?

A

new bone formation around the necrotic bone

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17
Q

Verrucae (warts) are:

A

benign neoplasms (NOT cancer)

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18
Q

Herpes zoster

A

shingles

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19
Q

Varicella

A

chickenpox

begins with itching, then macules, then vesicles, then pop, then scab up

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20
Q

Acne is a disorder of which glands?

A

sebaceous

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21
Q

Type I allergies are mediated by:

A

IgE

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22
Q

What is Steven’s Johnson Syndrome?

A

skin detaches from the body surface

internal OR external

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23
Q

Psoriasis is caused by:

A

activated T cells due to sun exposure

lead to papules and inflammatory response

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24
Q

What is the most common type of skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma

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25
Q

S&S of malignant melanoma

A 
A symmetry
B order irregularity 
C olor variation 
D iameter >6mm
E volving over time
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26
Q

Which type of skin cancer has the worst prognosis?

A

malignant melanoma

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27
Q

What is actinic damage?

A

sun damage

leads to keratoses and lentigines (liver spots)

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28
Q

Are liver spots cancer-related?

A

Not at all

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29
Q

What are two ways to classify burns?

A

Rule of nines

Lund and Browder

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30
Q

What is it called when the bladder herniates into the vagina?

A

Cystocele

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31
Q

What is it called when the rectum herniates into the vagina?

A

Rectocele

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32
Q

S&S of PID

A

pain and purulent discharge
Increased WBC
Increased C-reactive protein

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33
Q

What is the medical term for undescended testes?

A

cryptorchidism

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34
Q

Assessment for HYPERkalemia

A

v-fib
paresthesia
muscle weakness

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35
Q

Assessment for HYPERnatremia

A

thirst
altered mental status
HYPOtension
rapid/thready pulse

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36
Q

Assessment for HYPOnatremia

A

muscle cramps
altered mental status
N/V
headache

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37
Q

Assessment for HYPOcalcemia

A 
Tetany
\+ Trousseau's
\+ Chvostek's
HYPOtension
impaired clotting 
prolonged ST segment
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38
Q

What is cystic fibrosis?

A

an autosomal recessive mutation that causes chronic respiratory infections

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39
Q

Assessment for Tay Sachs?

A

cherry red spot on the retina

leads to blindness, mental retardation and death by age 2-5

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40
Q

Pathology of MS

A

autoimmune disease that demyelinates the CNS nerves

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41
Q

Pathology of Parkinson’s

A

decreased production of dopamine leads. to degeneration of the basil ganglia and too much acetylcholine

42
Q

Assessment for Autonomic hyperreflexia

A 
HUGE BP 
bradycardia 
pounding headache
blurred vision
sweating
43
Q

Assessment for bacterial meningitis

A

photophobia
severe headache
+ Kernig’s
+ Brudzinski

44
Q

Assessment for DKA

A

HYPOtensive
metabolic acidosis
ketones in urine
kussmaul breathing

45
Q

Assessment for SIADH

A

decreased urine production
urine HYPERnatremia
serum HYPOnatremia
altered mental status

46
Q

Assessment for Graves

A

fibrin deposits behind eyes cause exophthalmus
vision problems
warm skin
weight loss

47
Q

Assessment for Cushing’s

A 
HYPERnatremia
HYPERglycemia
HYPERtension 
HYPOkalemia
moon face
buffalo hump
48
Q

Graves disease is caused by;

A

Excess T3 and T4

Less TSH

49
Q

SIADH is caused by

A

excess ADH secretion

kidney’s HOLD ONTO water

50
Q

Addison’s is caused by

A

Lack of cortisol and aldosterone

51
Q

Cushing’s is caused by

A

over secretion of cortisol

52
Q

DI is caused by

A

not enough ADH

kidney’s GET RID of water

53
Q

Etiology of pneumothorax

A

air in the pleural space causes a collapsed lung

54
Q

Assessment of pneumothorax

A

mediastinum moves toward unaffected lung

55
Q

Etiology of emphysema

A

permanent enlargement of alveoli

“pink puffers”

56
Q

Assessment of emphysema

A

barrel chest
increased respiration effort
decreased breath sounds

57
Q

Etiology of bronchitis

A

acute inflammation following a viral infection

“blue bloaters”

58
Q

Assessment of bronchitis

A

ALL THE SECRETIONS

can not increase respiration

59
Q

Etiology of asthma

A

autoimmune process in response to an allergen

60
Q

Assessment of asthma

A

early; agitation

late; wheezing/SOB

61
Q

Etiology of TB

A

airborne droplets containing mycobacterium tuberculoses are inhaled

62
Q

Assessment of TB

A

night sweats

fever

63
Q

What labs should be run to assess an MI?

A

Troponin levels
at least 8 hours after onset of symptoms
at least 2 readings

64
Q

MI leads to

A

ischemia and scar tissue

65
Q

Risk factors for a DVT:

A

Virchow’s triad: “HE’S giving me a DVT”

Hyper-coagulability
Endothelial injury
Stasis of venous blood flow

66
Q

Etiology of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)

A

an ulcer caused by H. pylori

or

excessive use of NSAIDs/Warfarin

67
Q

Difference in assessment for a duodenal vs gastric ulcer;

A

DU - pain AFTER eating
25-75 years
melena

GU - pain WITH eating
55-65 years
hematemesis

68
Q

What is the difference between cholelithiasis and cholecystitis?

A

cholelithiasis - presence of gallstones

cholecystitis - gallstone moves to hepatic duct and becomes inflamed

69
Q

Hallmark sign of cholecystitis

A

RUQ pain and biliary colic

70
Q

Large volume diarrhea is usually caused by ______.

Small volume diarrhea is. usually caused by _____.

A

Large - bacterial/viral infection

Small - UC and Chrone’s

71
Q

Transmission of Hepatitis

A

A &E - oral/fecal
B&D - BoDy fluids.
C - blood (NOT sex)

72
Q

Assessment of a hiatal hernia

A

GERD symptoms

caused by the stomach protruding through the diaphragm

73
Q

Assessment of ulcerative colitis

A

10-20 stools/day

does NOT involve small bowl so NO steatorrhea

74
Q

What are the 3 signs that both types of shock share?

A

Increased HR
Increased RR
Decreased BP

75
Q

Hypovolemic shock presents with

A

decreased urine output

cool, clammy skin

76
Q

Cardiogenic shock presents with

A

decreased cardiac output
cyanosis
altered mental status

77
Q

Which anemia is microcytic?

A

iron deficiency

78
Q

Which anemia is macrocytic?

A

B12, folic acid (B6), sickle cell

79
Q

Pathology of Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia

A

50% decrease in platelet count after heparin administration

80
Q

Pathology of scleroderma

A

connective tissue becomes sclerotic/hardened

81
Q

Assessment for Lupus

A

butterfly rash on face
fever
joint pain

brought on after a day on the boat

82
Q

HIV is transmitted through

A

semen, breast milk and blood to blood contact

83
Q

HIV attacks what cells?

A

CD4 proteins

84
Q

Prostate metastasis is most commonly to:

A

bones or lymph nodes

85
Q

Most common cancer in women?

A

breast

86
Q

Most common cancer DEATH in women?

A

lung

87
Q

Most common cancer in men?

A

prostate

88
Q

Most common cancer DEATH in men?

A

lung

89
Q

Breast cancer risk factors

A 
early period (before 12)
late menopause (after 50)
nullipara 
high fat diet
alcohol/tobacco 
obesity 
late first pregnancy (after 35)
90
Q

RAAS cascade is triggered by:

A

low BP/ low fluid volume

91
Q

Describe RAAS

A
  1. low BP/fluid volume triggers kidneys to release renin
  2. renin travels to liver
  3. renin converts angiotensin to angiotensin I
  4. angiotensin I travels to the lungs to be converted by ACE to angiotensin II
  5. angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that will increase BP
92
Q

normal urine output for adults

A

about 60mL/hr

93
Q

What does nephrotic syndrome present with?

A

massive proteinuria
lipiduria
decreased vitamin D (because vitamin D binds with protein)

basically an autoimmune attack on the kidneys force them to get rid of protein and fats fast

94
Q

Will lower tract UTI’s present with fever?

A

no

95
Q

Which causes more proteinuria, glomerulonephritis or nephrotic syndrome?

A

nephrotic syndrome

96
Q

What is pyelonephritis?

A

infected kidneys

97
Q

What do renal calculi present with?

A

dull, wavelike pain radiating to the flank
blood in the urine
decreased urine output

98
Q

Risk factors for renal calculi

A

being a man between 20-40 living in the sunbelt
excessive vitamin D and calcium intake
not enough vitamin A and exercise

99
Q

What is the treatment for renal calculi ?

A

lirhoreipsy
shock waves that shatter stones into fragments
must give pain meds

100
Q

What is the most common cause of kidney failure?

A

not enough volume going into the kidneys

101
Q

What causes intra-renal failure?

A

acute tubular necrosis caused by ischemia, shock or antibiotics

102
Q

Renal failure labs

A 
Elevated urea nitrogen
Elevated creatinine 
Elevated BUN
HYPERtension
HYPERphosphatemia
HYPERkalemia 
Decreased urine
Decreased RBC 
Decreased erythropoietin 
HYPOnatremia
HYPOcalcemia
Anemia 
Azotemia 
Metabolic acidosis

ABSN (18 decks)

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