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nbde part ii > Pharm General Stuff > Flashcards

Pharm General Stuff Flashcards

1
Q

________ is a sedative hypnotic drug used to alleviate anxiety that does NOT cause depression of the central nervous system.

A

BUS-PIR-ONE

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2
Q

_______ is a 2nd generation FLOUROQUINOLONE antibiotic with a BROAD spectrum…Effective against GRAM - and specifially P. Aeruginosa

A

CiproFloxacin

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3
Q

Which OPIOD analgesic can be DEADLY when combined with an MAOI??

A

MepEridine (MMMMaoi=MMMMMeperidine)

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4
Q

Histamine binds to ____ receptors in the lungs to cause bronchoconstriction and ___ receptors in the stomach to cause gastric acid secretion.

A

H1 in lungs, H2 in stomach

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5
Q

Which nerve fibers does Histamine bind to in order to cause an itching sensation?

A

histamine selective C-fibers

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6
Q

ATROPINE is a competitive inhibitor of _________ receptors causing pupil _______, and having what effect on Heart Rate?

A

muscarinic (metabotropic ACH receptor) (blocks ACH receptors)….dilation, increase HR

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7
Q

What are the 5 drugs Rx’d for TB?

A

PRIEST 1. Py-RAZ-in-Amide 2.Rifampin 3.Ison-ia-Zid 4.Eth-AM-BUT-ol 5.STrept-O-Mycin

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8
Q

WTF? Fanconi syndrome is RENAL tubular acidosis caused by taking WHICH expired antibiotic?

A

Tetracyclines. super. fucking. random.

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9
Q

What is the regimen for Clindamyacin prophylaxis?

A

600mg, 1hr before Tx

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10
Q

What is the regimen for Amoxicillin for prophylaxis?

A

2g, 1 hr before tx

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11
Q

Which barbituate is lipophilic and crosses the BBB easily making its neuro effects rapid??

A

THI-O-PENTAL

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12
Q

If a pt has a bacterial infection that is known to be resistant to penicillin (penicillinase producing bacteria or MRSA), then what ABX is typically rxd?

A

OXAcillin (methacillin has been replaced)..BUT watch out! there is now ORSA starting…(oxacillin resistant s. aureus)

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13
Q

Which drug is indicated for a GRAND MAL seizure?

A

dilantin

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14
Q

Which anti anxiety med is NOTORIOUS for causing Xerostomia because of its anti muscarinic effects?

A

HY-DROXY-ZINE

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15
Q

What is the standard drug Rx’d for tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?

A

CAR-BAM-AZEPINE (anti-convulsant)

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16
Q

What drug is associated with REYE’S SYNDROME?

A

Acetylsalicyclic Acid

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17
Q

How is Penicillin VK eliminated from the body? Whats the elimination half life time?

A

Metabolized by the LIVER and excreted in the urine..30MIN.Real quick. Real fuckin’ quick

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18
Q

What is the recommended dose for PEDIATRIC prophylaxis of Oral Amoxicillin? So what would it be for a 40kg kid?

A

50mg/kg…so 2g of Amoxicilin 30-60min before procedure

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19
Q

A KID pt of yours is ALLERGIC to penicillin, what is the recommended dose of Clindamycin?

A

20mg/kg

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20
Q

What compound of erythromycin is enterically coated and has prolonged action?

A

ERYC…get it? EnteRicallY Coated?!

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21
Q

AH yeah…Local Anesthetics can be classified into amides and esters. What are 5 examples of AMIDES? What are 3 examples of ESTERS?

A

Amides: 1. Lidocaine 2. Mepivicaine 3. Bupivacaine 4. Prilocaine 5. Articaine Esters: 1. Procaine 2. Cocaine 3. Benzocaine

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22
Q

The preservative Methyl-para-ben demonstrates cross-sensitivity with which agent?

A

Para-aminobenzoic Acid Esters (PABA ester) (THINK: PARA and PARA)

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23
Q

What HTN med is CONTRAINDICATED for pts with congestive heart failure??

A

Metoprolol because it reduces cardiac contractility

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24
Q

What group of drugs increases INTRAOCULAR PRESSURE and is therefore contraindicated in glaucoma patients?

A

Belladonna Alkaloids (natural muscle relaxer, pain reliever)

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25
Q

What can you use to counteract ATROPINE poisoning?

A

PHY-SOS-TIG-MINE (both atropine and TCA poisoning)

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26
Q

What is the ONLY antihistamine NOT contraindicated with CIMETIDINE for heartburn?

A

Fexofenadine (Allegra)

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27
Q

Increasing the intermediate chain of a Local Anesthetic increases WHAT effect of the drug?

A

POTENCY

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28
Q

What antibiotic has the serious toxic effect of APLASTIC ANEMIA?

A

CHLOR-AM-PHEN-ICOL (inhibits protein synthesis on 50s-like a macrolide, but slightly different mechanism)

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29
Q

What antibiotic is implicated in oral CONTRACEPTIVE failure?

A

RI-FAM-PIN (yes you will start a FAMily if you take riFAMpin and oral contraceptives

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30
Q

Which drug can have deleterious effects on the phrenic nerve?

A

Streptomycin

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31
Q

Spontaneous gingival hemorrhage/acute stomatitis is associated with WITHDRAWL of which anticonvulsant drug?

A

Valproic Acid (mal = bad close to val)

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32
Q

What is the main metabolite of ingested isopropyl alcohol?

A

Acetone

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33
Q

The most important anticoagulant effect of HEPARIN is to interfere with the conversion of WHAT to WHAT???

A

Fibrinogen to fibrin (Heparin = hep = liver = fibrinogen is made in the LIVER) (blocks THROMBIN and threrefore stops fibrinogen to fibrin)

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34
Q

What do you treat an OD of Tricyclic Antidepressants?

A

PHY-SOS-TIG-MINE (for both TCA and atropine OD)

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35
Q

DEATH can occur when ERYTHROMYCIN is combined with WHICH ANTIHISTAMINE drug??

A

TER-FEN-ADINE

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36
Q

What ion is responsible for determining binding affinity of the OPIOD RECEPTORS?

A

SODIUM

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37
Q

This drug can result in tachycardia, coronary artery dilation, peripheral arteriolar dilation, AND a decrease in arterial blood pressure…it does not increase motility of the small bowel lol

A

amyl nitrate

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38
Q

What is the MOST DISTINCT characteristic of MORPHINE POISONING?

A

Pin Point Pupils

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39
Q

In addition to epilepsy, phenytoin can be indicated for

A

ARRHYTHMIA

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40
Q

What is the most commonly used drug for Congestive Heart Failure?

A

Digitalis

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41
Q

The mech of action of DIAZEPAM resembles _______

A

ME-PRO-BAM-ATE

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42
Q

What BAC % produces lethal effects in 50% of the population?

A

0.50%

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43
Q

Prolonged Amyl Nitrate can lead to which blood condition?

A

Methemoglobinemia

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44
Q

Cardiac Glycosides reduce concentration of WHICH ION in an active heart muscle cell?

A

POTASSIUM

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45
Q

What anti-HTN med directly acts on Arterial smooth muscle to cause vasodilation?

A

Hydral-AZine

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46
Q

A Schedule II narcotic + an antipsychotic =

A

Neuroleptic analgesia

47
Q

Treatment with a MIXTURE of sulfonamides (sulfa drugs-inhibiting folic acid syn) can lessen the chances of what side effect?

A

Crystalluria

48
Q

The alpha-adrenergic blockade of __________ can give a pt orthostatic hypotension

A

Chlor-PROM-azine (antipsychotic)

49
Q

What is the name of the NSAID you had injected in your butt at the hospital? (generic name too please)

A

TOR-A-DOL (keto-lorac) (NOT TRAM-A-DOL)

50
Q

Duration of activity of DIAZEPAM depends mainly on…..

A

ELIMINATION OF ACTIVE METABOLITES

51
Q

HOLY S. What condition is penicillin given in 10mil units IV 1x/day for 10-14 days followed by long-term oral medication??

A

ACTINOMYCOSIS of the Jaw

52
Q

What drug best REVERSES the effects of BENZOs??

A

FLU-MAZ-ENIL (selective benzodiazepine agonist)

53
Q

What drug is not usually used in IV conscious sedation c/o its long duration of clinically significant sedative effects?

A

LORAZEPAM (sorry Billy Costigan)

54
Q

Why isnt MEDAZOLAM advantagous over DIAZEPAM?

A

MORE potential for respiratory depression

55
Q

What % of LIQUID is in an oxygen ‘E’ cylinder when it is HALF full?

A

less than 1%

56
Q

When O2 and N2O start at 2000 and 750 PSI respecitvely, what is the PSI when they are HALF full?..LOL ANOTHER QUESTION: When your nitrous oxide and oxygen tanks have been half-emptied, what is the pressure in psi of each cylinder? (The starting gas pressures are 02 [2,000]; N20 [800].)?

A

2000 and 750 PSI respectively (they do not change)….SECOND QUESTION: 1000 O2, 800 N2O

57
Q

What occurs if 100% O2 is not used following N2O administration?

A

Diffusion Hypoxia

58
Q

Repeated N2O abuse results in _______ ________

A

PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY

59
Q

Which local anesthetic is most effective as a topical agent?

A

LIDOCAINE

60
Q

COME ON AUSTIN. You’ve gotten this wrong multiple times… What is NOT a characteristic of opiod OD when looking at the EYES?

A

DILATED PUPILS are NOT a characteristic of Opiod OD (dilated pupils = shincter muscles CONTRACTING-when you are on drugs your muscles RELAX yo….pinpoint pupils ARE (rest and digest)

61
Q

What are the 3 main actions of oral diabetes meds?

A
  1. stimulate insulin release 2. block glucagon release 3.increase tissue glucose uptake (they do NOT act as insulin analogues)
62
Q

Wtf is a PHENO-THIA-ZINE?

A

Anti-psychotic used for migranes, antiemitic, sedation

63
Q

__________ is a sympathomimetic that is similar to EPINEPHRINE in its action of cardiac excitatory but is different from epinephrine in its property of vasodilation. It is a POTENT bronchodilator when used in sulfate and hydrochloride forms.

A

ISO-PRO-TERE-NOL

64
Q

_________ inhibits H1 histamine receptors and is least likely to cause SEDATION of the patient

A

FEX-O-FEN-ADINE

65
Q

Whats the generic name for Benadryl?

A

DI-PHEN-HYDRA-MINE

66
Q

What are the most common hypnotic drug (most closely resembling natural sleep) on the market today?

A

Benzodiazepines

67
Q

The duration of action for a single IV bolus dose of diazepam relies on

A

hepatic biotransformation

68
Q

Phenytoin is indicated for treatment of epilepsy and …

A

cardiac arrhythmia

69
Q

Which of the following pharmaceuticals is most closely associated with dermal photosensitivity?

A

Tetracyclines (Deme-Clo-cycline)

70
Q

Reversal of Lidocaine OD?

A

Diazepam

71
Q

What is the component of ester group of local anesthetics that causes allergic reaction?

A

PABA (para amino benzoic acid) - its a strong antigen that can sensitize lymphocytes

72
Q

What is the best penicillin to give for NOSOCOMIAL pseudomonas infections? ALSO, what is a SECOND antibiotic very useful for pseudonomas?

A

TI-CAR-CILLIN (Ty get in the CAR or I’ll pseu you)…

CAR-BEN-ICILLIN has Gram (-) coverage which includes Pseudomonas aeruginosa but limited Gram (+) coverage.

73
Q

LOL. What is the conversion, in mL for 1 tablespoon? How many teaspoons in a tablespoon?

A

15mL….3 teaspoons in a tablespoon (so 5mL in a teaspoon…so 2.5mL of salt for your warm salt water rinses)

74
Q

One of the main side effects of antipsychotics is involuntary muscle movement, this is due to their affect on which of the following structures?

A

BASAL GANGLIA (parkinson’s yo)

75
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide administration causes the body to lose _________, so _________ often occurs without supplementation.

A

potassium…hypokalemia

76
Q

Digitalis is a drug that is considered a __________…It DOES WHAT to cardiac muscle???? What ion is involved with this class of drug?

A

cardiac glycoside…increases contractile force of cardiac muscle..POTASSIUM

77
Q

This question pisses me the fuck off: ________ is a 3rd generation cephalosporin that has been associated with prolonged bleeding time, and several cases of coagulopathy it is no longer marketed in the United States.So why the fuck am I studying it?!?! lol

A

MOX-A-LACTAM

78
Q

PLEASE name 4 antibiotics that attack the 50s ribosomal subunit… (not exhaustive or specific lol)

A

Azithromycin, Clarithromycin, Erythromycin, Lincomycin

79
Q

COOL! Did you know….CLINDAmycin is a semi-synthetic derivative of ________

A

Lincomycin (so its technically not a macrolide, but acts very similar)

80
Q

Which anti-fungal is found in Mycelex troches?

A

Clotrimazole

81
Q

_________ is prescribed as an anti-Parkinson’s drug?

A

A-MAN-TA-DINE (Dr. Streich is A MAN, wait - THE MAN) ( increases dopamine release and blocks dopamine reuptake), Interesting note: Amantadine has been used as an antiviral agent against Influenza A until 2009.

82
Q

Chlorhexidine Gluconate elicits an antimicrobial effect that lasts for HOW LONG?

A

12 hours

83
Q

Methacholine is related to acetylcholine as a…

A

CONGENER….a substance that is closely related in composition, function, or origin.

84
Q

The FIRST LINE treatment indicated to reverse tricyclic anti-depressant overdose is…

A

ACTIVATED CHARCOAL (you can use Physostigmine, but this shit is “first line” i guess

85
Q

__________ is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug that causes depolarization along the motor endplate.

A

Succinylcholine

86
Q

Succinylcholine acts like _______ because it binds to the its receptor and causes muscular twitches or contractions during the phase I.

A

acetylcholine

87
Q

Which of the penicillin class drugs cannot be administered orally?

A

METHicillin. you gotta MAINLINE meth dawg!

88
Q

_________ is a very potent intermediate-acting benzodiazepine anxiolytic agent with a very long duration that makes it LESS useful in the dental setting.

A

Lorazepam

89
Q

________ can relieve PTOSIS in myesthenia gravis patients

A

ATROPINE

90
Q

Pain sensation can be modified through all of the following pathways EXCEPT _______ of the autonomic pathways

A

depression

91
Q

Renin release from the kidney is stimulated by the ________ receptors in the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys.

A

beta-1 adrenergic

92
Q

Beta adrenergic blockers (beta blockers) block the release of _____

A

renin

93
Q

THESE 2 HTN drug classes do NOT inhibit renin release.

A

ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers

94
Q

ACE inhibitors INCREASE the plasma ______ levels.

A

renin

95
Q

_________ can cause peptic ulcers and can therefore worsen the condition of a person who already suffers from them.

A

Corticosteriods

96
Q

Clindamycin is prescribed to treat WHAT TYPE bacterial infections and some protozoal diseases, such as malaria and is also a common topical treatment for acne.

A

anerobic

97
Q

Lol. Which of the following physiologic changes does NOT occur due to amyl nitrite administration? Decreased ________ pressure

A

Intraocular

98
Q

The duration of action of diazepam is due to the long half life of its main active metabolite known as desmethyldiazepam, which may last from HOW LONG?

A

3-7 days

99
Q

________ inhibits alpha glucosidase. Alpha glucosidase is an intestinal enzyme found in the small intestine, that breaks down starch (polysaccharides) into glucose (monosaccharides). This reduces the glucose absorbed by the GI tract.

A

A-CARB-OSE

100
Q

The therapeutic function of nalidixic acid is best characterized as an…

A

antiseptic for the urinary tract

101
Q

Which powerful antibiotic is associated with OTOTOXICITY?

A

GENT-a-MYCIN

102
Q

Directly acting cholinomimetics perform well as receptor agonists. They bind and activate the ___ and ___ muscarinic receptors.

A

M2 and M3

103
Q

________ is considered to be the first line drug to be used to treat bradycardia….it is considered what CLASS of drug?

A

Atropine…antimuscarinic

104
Q

Dextroamphetamine belongs to which of the following drug classes?

A

INDIRECT Sympathomimetic

105
Q

The quaternary ammonium group in the structure of a cholinergic agent allows for it to act as a DIRECT ________ AGONIST

A

NICOTINIC… they can cause PARALYSIS and are used in GENERAL ANESTHESIA

106
Q

Eccrine sweat glands are primarily innervated by SYMPATHETIC - ________

A

cholinergic

107
Q

Which of the following pharmaceuticals was the etiologic agent in the remission in acute leukemia in children?

A

AMINO_p_TERIN

108
Q

Which of the following drugs is a beta-adrenergic agent that produces the GREATEST BRONCHODILATION effect?

A

iso-PRO-teren-ol (is a PRO at bronchodilation)

109
Q

Which antihistamine that can also be injected as local anesthetic solution if a patient reports being allergic to ester and amide anesthetics?

A

Di-phen-hydramine…interesting!

110
Q

WTF: Cycloplegia, or paralysis of the ciliary muscle of the eye can be caused by what drug?

A

HOM-ATROPINE bromide

111
Q

What two drugs can counteract an EPI reaction during a local anesthetic injection into the blood stream?

A

Propranolol (beta-blocker) and Prazosin (alpha-blocker)

112
Q

Which tetracycline class antibiotic is excreted the SLOWEST?

A

DOXYcycline (remember, it DOCKS?! you shit head!)

113
Q

__________ is a synthetic drug that is poorly absorbed when taken orally and is useful for managing MYASTHENIA GRAVIS. Physostigmine, unlike this is a naturally occurring lipid soluble drug that is absorbed very well when taken orally.

A

NEO-STIG-MINE

nbde part ii (14 decks)

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