Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing School Pt 2 > Pharm Exam 2 > Flashcards

Pharm Exam 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

Rhabdomolysis is a serious side effect of statin drugs what doesit cause

A

muscle aches that can lead to muscle disintegration & become fatal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drug category is digoxin?

A

Anti-dysrhthmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does HDL do

A

removes cholesterol and delivers it to the liver for escretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is there an abundance of sodium in the filtrate

A

the loop of henley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the main difference between anticoagulants and antithrombolytics?

A
  • Coags prevent the formation
  • lytics disintegrates the clot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Orthostatic Hypotension is a problem mainly caused by dilation of the

A

veins, NOT arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is normal PTT balue (Partial Thromboplastin Time)

A

40 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name food that are high in Vitamin K

A
  • Mayonnaise, Canola Oil, Soybean Oil, Green Leafy vegetables, prunes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name 4 Agents that can be used for Peripheral Vascular Disease

A
  • Alpha 1 Antagonist (Minipress)
  • Antiplatelets
  • Antihypertensive (CCBs, ACE)
  • Direct Acting Peripheral Vasodilateros (Vasodilan)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why should statins be taken at night?

A

cholesterol syntheses increases at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 5 advantages of Pradaxa?

A
  1. rapid onset
  2. fixed dosage
  3. lower risk of bleeding
  4. few drug interactions
  5. no blood monitoring necessary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Visual Illusions or halos around objects is a side effect of what drug?

A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This agent does not affect absoprtion of fat soluble vitamins

A

Selective Cholesterol Absorption Inhibitors

Exetimide (Zetia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the most prevalent sonstiuents in the filtration from the kidneys

A

Sodium & Chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are 4 main purposes of using Carbonic Anhydrase?

A
  1. Open Angle Glaucoma
  2. Epilepsy
  3. Alitude Sickness
  4. Metabolic Alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do selective channel blockers end in?

A

dipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do peripheral vasodilators do?

A
  • dilate vessels that have been narrowed by vasospasms
  • treat atherosclerosis
  • helps afterload.
  • acts on vascular smooth muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the antidote for heparin

A

protamin sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 3 Anti-platelet drugs

A
  1. Aspirin
  2. Clopidogrel
  3. Tirofiban
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 3 Bile Acid Sequestrants

A
  1. Colesevelam (less GI side effects)
  2. Cholestyramine
  3. Fenofibrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are beta blockers most often combined with?

A

ACE or diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This drug type is most effective at lowering triglyceride levels, but weak in LDL

A

Fibrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does grapefruit juice do to the metabolism related to CCB

A

greater than expected effects of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do bile acid sequestrants work?

A

decrease absorption of fat soluble vitamins (ADK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What do non selective calcium channel blockers affect

A

Heart and blood vessels

should be used with caution pt w/ bradycardia, and HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the five Categories of Antihypertensive Drugs

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. Sympatholytics
  3. Direct Arterial Vasodilators
  4. RAAS
    1. ACE, ARBs
  5. Calcium Channel Blockers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the goal lab value (PTT) for a patient taking heparin?

A

1-1/2 to 2 times normal value

>2x risk for hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What should potassium sparing drugs be combined with?

A

Loop or thiaside diuretics, help maintain potassium balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name 3 examples of potassium sparing drugs?

A
  1. Sprionolactone (Aldactone)
  2. Triamterene (Dyrenium)
  3. Amiloride (Midamor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Thiazide relationship with calcium

A

reabsorbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Beta blockers relationship with calcium

A

reduce entry into the cell

23
Q

Name 4 Adrenergic Agents

A
  1. Alpha 1 Blocker (doxazosin)
  2. Alpha 2 Agonist (clonidine)
  3. Nonselective Beta Blocker
  4. Selective Beta Blocker (metropolol, atenolol)
25
Q

What are contraindications with beta blockers?

A

sympatholytic drugs, can cause rebound hypertension

26
Q

How do diuretics work?

A

interfere with reabsorption

27
Q

What are the 2 main reasons for using diuretics

A

edema, hypertension

28
Q

What drugs will increase risk of bleeding w/ anticoagulants?

A

antiplatelets

30
Q

What drugs are used to treat stable angina?

A

Propranolol, Atenolol (Tenormin)

31
Q

How do diuretics decrease the preload?

A

by decreasing the volume, and decrease venous return to the heart

33
Q

What do Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors end in?

A

-mide

34
Q

This is an immune disorder that causes a rebound affect of heparin?

A

Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia

35
Q

This drug is an oral anticoagulant that is a Direct Factor Xa inhibitor?

A

Rivaroxaban

no antidote, dialysis will not remove b/c it is largely protein bound

37
Q

What is angioedema

A

non-inflammatory swelling fo the skin, mucus membranes or organs (this is a side effect in ARBs and ACE)

38
Q

Why are osmotic diuretics safe for diabetic patients and those with head injuries?

A

Decreases intracranial pressure, & intraocular pressure. Pulls water towards the vasculature, does not cause loss of major electrolytes

39
Q

Name 2 examples of Nonselective Calcium Channel Blockers

A
  1. Verapamil (Calan)
  2. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
40
Q

What value should be monitored while taking Warfarin

A

INR, normal is between 1.3 - 2

41
Q

This causes steatorrhea

A

Bile Acid Sequestrants

42
Q

inhibits free fatty acids from adipose tissue

A

Niacin (s.e. flushing)

44
Q

What do ACE inhibitor end in?

A

-pril

45
Q

This is an enzyme in cholesterol?

A

HMG Coa Reductase (Statin)

46
Q

Name 3 Fibric Acid Derivative Drugs

A

Gemifibrozil,

Fenofibrate

fenofibric Acid

47
Q

What drug type ends in -sartan

A

ARBS

49
Q

How long is the half life for digoxin

A

36-48 hours

51
Q

Why should mannitol be used with caused for heart failure patients

A

because pulmonary congestion can delveop

53
Q

Name the antidote for Warfarin

A

Vitamin K

54
Q

What is the drug of choice for hypertensive emergencies

A

nitroprusside (nitropress)- has a 2 min half life, IV only

direct acting vasodilator

55
Q

What do selective calcium channel blockers affect?

A

blood vessels

56
Q

CCB relationship with calcium

A

reduce influx

57
Q

Why are CCB’s the drug of choice for “variant” angina?

A

because they relax the arterial smooth muscles. This is where the pain comes from.

59
Q

What drug should digoxin not be taken with?

A

Diuretics

*note: dig holds on to calcium for heart contracion

60
Q

What is the main difference between ARBs and ACE

A
  • ARBs blocks angiotensin II from Receptors in the tissues
    • will not cause hyperkalemia or dry cough
  • ACE prevents the formation of Angiotensin II
60
Q

What do most anti-coagulants end in?

A

-arin

61
Q

If fluid retention occurs in direct acting vasodilators, what can correct it?

A

Diuretics

62
Q

This is useful in the prevention of thrombosis in the arteries?

A

anti-platelets

63
Q

This drug is a direct thrombin inhibitor and has less side effects than Warfarin

A

Dabigatran Pradaxa

no antidote except dialysis

64
Q

Name 3 examples of Direct Acting Vasodilators?

A
  1. Hydralazine
  2. Minoxidil
  3. Nitroprusside
65
Q

What is the target range Xa factor for a patient receiveing Heparin?

A

0.3 - 0.7

measures heparin concentration in the blood

66
Q

Loop diuretics relationship with calcium

A

wast this

68
Q

This is used adjunct with statin drugs

A

bile acid sequestrants

69
Q

What does the inhibition of the carbonic anhydrase cause?

A

sodium, potassium, bicarb excretion

70
Q

Characteristics of Zocor

A
  • Lipid Lowering Agent
  • HMG COA reductase inhibitor (statin)
  • increases HDL
  • decreases LDL, triglycerides
71
Q

What are calcium channels?

A

Gates that regulate entry of caclium ions into the cell

calcium causes the heart to contract

72
Q

What are drugs that are contraindicated with potassium sparing diuretics?

A

ACE inhibitors, Potassium supplements, salt substitues.

73
Q

Side effects of alpha 1 blockers

A

interacts with NSAIDS, hypotension

74
Q

If reflex tachycardia occurs with direct acting vasodilators what can prevent it?

A

Beta Blockers

75
Q

What are the 4 main drug categories to treat Heart Failure?

A
  1. Diuretics
  2. ACE inhibitors/ ARBs
  3. Beta Blockers
  4. Cardiac Glycosides
76
Q

If calcium entering the cell causes the heart to contract, what could that result in?

A

increase in the need for oxygen and workload

Nursing School Pt 2 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions