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Nursing School Pt 2 > Patho Exam 3 > Flashcards

Patho Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

A 20-year-old male was recently diagnosed with lactose intolerance. He eats an ice cream cone and develops diarrhea. His diarrhea can be classified as _____ diarrhea.

A

Osmotic
* A nonabsorbable substance in the intestine leads to osmotic diarrhea.*

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2
Q

Pain is felt near the midline in the epigastrium, and caused by a stimulus acting on an abdominal organ. The pain felt is classified as:

A

Visceral

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3
Q

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is

A

Esophageal varices

Esophageal varices is the most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding.

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4
Q

Bleeding from the rectum is referred to as

A

Hematochezia

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5
Q

A 50-year-old male is experiencing reflux of chyme from the stomach. He is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. This condition is caused by:

A

Loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter
Gastroesophageal reflux is due to loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter.

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6
Q

Heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing are classic for which disorder

A

Hiatal Hernia

Regurgitation, dysphagia, and substernal discomfort after eating are common in individuals with hiatal hernia

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7
Q

A type of intestinal obstruction includes one part of the intestine telescopes into another. It may be accompanied by colicky pain followed by vomiting, sweating, nausea, and irritability. Identify the type of intestinal obstruction

A

Intussusception
Telescoping of one part of the intestine into another; this usually causes strangulation of the blood supply and is more common in infants 10 to 15 months of age than in adults.

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8
Q

Peptic ulcer disease is most likely caused by

A

breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions

Peptic ulcer disease is caused by breaks in the mucosa and the presence of corrosive substances.

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9
Q

Chronic intermittent pain in the epigastric area 2 to 3 hours after eating is diagnosed as a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following behaviors may have contributed to the development of the ulcer?

A

Cigarette smoking
Acid production is stimulated by cigarette smoking.

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10
Q

A worrisome potential that might develop from a stress ulcer is

A

bleeding

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11
Q

After gastric resection for weight loss, which of the following complications could be caused by the surgery?

A

Anemia

due to iron malabsorption, which may result from decreased acid secretion

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12
Q

A gastrointestinal disorder would be likely to lead to frequently recurring abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

manifested by fever, elevated pulse rate, frequent diarrhea (10 to 20 stools/day), urgency, obviously bloody stools, and continuous lesions present in the colon.

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13
Q

Incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process noted on a 3D ultrasound of a 9 week old fetus is associated with which term/diagnosis?

A

Cleft Lip

beginning the fourth week of embryonic development, a period of rapid development.

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14
Q

Cystic fibrosis is associated with which of the following digestive alterations?

A

Malabsorption

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15
Q

Absence of intrahepatic bile ducts in a 7-month old infant would be referred to as _____ atresia

A

Biliary

Jaundice is the primary clinical manifestation of biliary atresia, along with hepatomegaly and acholic (clay- colored) stools.

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16
Q

Occurrence of gastroesophageal reflux is highest in which pediatric population?

A

Premature Infants

the frequency of reflux is highest in premature infants and decreases during the first 6 to 12 months of life

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17
Q

Meconium ileus is associated with which of the following disorders?

A

Cystic Fibrosis

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18
Q

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease

A

Malabsorption
Malabsorption is common in Crohn disease and is rare in ulcerative colitis. Both disorders can lead to abdominal pain. Both disorders have a clinical course of remissions and exacerbations. Both disorders lead to diarrhea.

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19
Q

In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by

A

Acetaldehyde accumulation
caused by the toxic effects of alcohol metabolism on the liver. Alcohol is transformed to acetaldehyde, and excessive amounts significantly alter hepatocyte function and activate hepatic stellate cells, a primary cell involved in liver fibrosis.

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20
Q

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:

A

Obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone

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21
Q

Which of the following would potentially lead to increase in intracranial pressure?

A
  • hemorrhage
  • brain tumor
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22
Q

An increase in intracranial pressure causes displacement of other contents/structures in the cranial vault. The most readily displaced content is the cerebrospinal fluid, which shifts out of the cranial vault

True or False

A

True

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23
Q

Stage 1 intracranial hypertension

A

The intracranial pressure may be normal or slightly elevated. The pressure difference is usually detected by intracranial pressure monitoring because symptoms are minimal.

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24
Q

Stage 2 intracranial hypertension

A

The increase in the intracranial pressure may exceed the brain’s compensatory capacity to adjust. Clinical manifestations, although subtle, may include confusion, restlessness, drowsiness and slight pupil changes.

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25
Q

Stage 3 intracranial hypertension

A

Intracranial pressure begins to approach arterial pressure. The brain begins to experience hypoxia and hypercapnia. Clinical Manfifestations may include decreasing level of arousal, hyperventilation, bradycardia, small pupils and widened pulse pressure.

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26
Q

Stage 4 intracranial hypertension

A

Brain tissue shifts (herniates) from the area in the skull with the greatest pressure to areas with lesser pressure. As the brain tissue shifts, the blood supply is compromised leading to further ischemia and hypoxia.

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27
Q

Cheyne Stokes breathing pattern (alternating pattern of tachypnea and apnea) typically will be seen in the patient who is in stage 2 or stage 3 of intracranial hypertension

A

False, happens in stage 4

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28
Q

When intracranial pressure is increasing, brain tissue will shift (herniate) to areas of lower pressures. This herniation process will rapidly reduce the intracranial pressure and thus alleviate all associated symptoms.

A

false makes the pressure worse

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29
Q

A patient is admitted to the healthcare facility following a motor vehicle accident that resulted in head trauma. The patient has an accumulation of fluid in the extracellular spaces of the brain tissue due to inflammation. This patient most likely has a diagnosis of:

A

Cerebral Edema

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30
Q

Which of the following are true statements regarding hydrocephalus?

A
  • Communicating hydrocephalus is most likely due to defective resorption of CSF and occurs most commonly in adults.

Hydrocephalus may be caused by such factors as overproduction of CSF, defective absorption of CSF or an obstruction within the ventricular system.

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus occurs because of an obstruction within the ventricular system. This type of hydrocephalus is seen more commonly in children.

Characterized by excessive CSF fluid in the cerbral ventricles.

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31
Q

A baseball player is hit in the head with the baseball during a game. Upon inspection, the nurse notes a hematoma at the site of the impact. This person has a…

A

Closed blunt head injury

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32
Q

Open head trauma

A

Break in the dura that results in exposure of the cranial contents to the environment.

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33
Q

Diffuse brain injury (Diffuse axonal injury)

A

Injury to wide-spread areas of the brain.

34
Q

Extradural hematoma

A

Bleeding between the dura mater and the skull.

35
Q

Subdural hematoma

A

Bleeding between the dura mater and the brain

36
Q

Contusion

A

Blood leaking from injured blood vessels. Similar to a bruise.

37
Q

The bat strikes the front of the head. The injury at the site of impact is called…

A

Coup head injury

38
Q

A patient comes to the acute care clinic following blunt head trauma. The person denies losing consciousness following the trauma. The accompanying family members state that he was initially confused following the trauma for a few minutes but seems better now. The patient is complaining of a headache and feeling “nervous”. This patient will most likely be diagnosed with….

A

mild concussion

39
Q

Hemorrhage

A

Bleeding into neural tissue as a result of blood vessel damage.

40
Q

Cord Contusion

A

Bruising of neural tissue causing swelling which may lead to temporary loss of cord-mediated function.

41
Q

Transection

A

Severing of the spinal cord which leads to permanent loss of function. May be a complete severing or an incomplete severing of the cord

42
Q

Cord Compression

A

.

Pressure on the cord which can cause ischemia to tissues.

43
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding “spinal shock”

A
  • Spinal shock generally will last 7 - 20 days, although may last for as long as 3 months.
  • Reflex function is completely lost below the spinal cord trauma lesion. This includes skeletal muscle function, bladder and bowel function as well as sexual function.
44
Q

The patient had a spinal cord injury 30 days prior and has been experiencing Spinal Shock. Upon the nurses assesment of the patient, the nurse notes severe hypertension (systolic @ 300mm Hg), bradycardia, as well as sweating and flushing of the face. The patient complains of a headache and nausea. The nurse assumes that the patient is experiencing Autonomic Hyperreflexia. The nurse knows that…

A

This is most likely caused by a distended bladder or rectum. The nurse prioritizes interventions to relieve the bladder and/or bowel.

45
Q

Manifestations (effects) of cranial tumors will vary based on the particular site of the tumor in the brain. Effects may include seizures, visual disturbances and unstable gait,

A

True

46
Q

regarding Brain Tumors?

A

Gliomas comprise 50 - 60% of all adult brain tumors.

Primary brain tumors are called “Gliomas”.

Tumors within the cranium can be classified as either “primary” or “metastatic”. Metastatic tumors most commonly originated from cancerous tumors in the lung, breast, skin, kidney or colorectal areas.

47
Q

A primary brain tumor that is located “extracerebral”, but “intracranial”, is…

A

Meningioma

48
Q

Spinal cord tumor that originated within the neural tissues

A

Intramedullary Tumor

49
Q

Spinal cord tumor that originated from tissues outside the spinal cord.

A

Extramedullary Tumor

50
Q

Benign tumor of the nerve sheath

A

Neurofibroma

51
Q

The most common type of Central Nervous System tumor is found on the spinal cord.

A

False, they are rare

52
Q

Metastatic brain tumors carry a poor prognosis. Survival is about 1 year.

A

True

53
Q
A
  • weight loss
  • weakness
  • anemai
  • nausea
  • vomiting
54
Q
A

fibrosis in small intestine

55
Q

Appendicitis

A

inflammation of the vermiform appendix

56
Q

Cirrhosis

A

widespread destruction of hepatic cells in the liver

57
Q

Crohn’s Disease

A

inflammation of any part of the GI tract

58
Q

Diverticular disase

A

bulging out pouches in the GI wall push mucosal lining through surrounding muscle

59
Q

GERD

A

backlow of gastric or duodenal contens into the esophagus and past the lower esphageal sphincter

60
Q

Hiatal Hernia

A

defect in the diaphragm that permits a portion of the stomach to pass through the diphragmatic openiiing into the chest cavity

61
Q

Pancreatic Insufficiency

A

inflammation of the pancreas

62
Q

Peptic Ulcer

A

circumsribed lesion in the mucosal membrane of the upper GI tract

63
Q

Ulcerative Colitis

A

inflammation of the mucos in the colon that causes ulcerations

64
Q

Alzheimers disasea

A

degenerative disorder of the cerbral cortex

65
Q

Epilepsy

A

brain condition characterized by recurrent seixures

66
Q

Guillain Barre Syndrome

A

segmented demyelination of the peripheral nerves (schwann cells)

acute

67
Q

MS

A

progressive demyelination of the white matter of the brain and spinal cord (CNS) oligodendroglia leading to widespread neurologic dysfunction

68
Q

Meningitis

A

inflammation of the brain and spinal cord meninges

69
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

sporadic progressive weaknesa and abnormal fatigue of the skeletal muscles

70
Q

parkinsons disease

A

produces prgoressive muscle rigidity, loss of muscle movment and involuntary tremors

71
Q

How is body heat conserved

A
  • through vasoconstriction
  • peripheral blood vessels shunt to the core of the body
  • body heat is not lost through radiation, conduction, convections
72
Q

What happens to temperature during vasodilation

A

body heat is lost through radiation conduction, evaporation

muscle tone decreased

73
Q

What is a pyrogen

A

any agent that causes a fever

74
Q

what are heat cramps associated with

A

sodium loss

75
Q

manifestations of heat stroke

A

cerebral edema, degeneration of the cns, renal tubular necrosis, death

76
Q
A
77
Q

cele means

A

protrusion

78
Q

sclerosis means

A

hardening

79
Q

what is the underlying cause of seizures with epilepsy?

A

idiopathic

80
Q

-listhesis- is a compound word meaning

A

related to scoliosis- when the vertebrae slips backward

Nursing School Pt 2 (13 decks)

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