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Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

How do Thiazides prevent renal Ca stones?

A
  • thiazide inhibit lumenal Na/Cl cotransporter (simporter)
  • cell utilizes Na/Ca basal antiporter instead to bring in Na
  • cell must then compensate by brining in extra Ca with lumenal transporter, thus lowering urine Ca
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2
Q

Loops _____ Ca.

A

Lose

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3
Q

Thiazides _____ Ca.

A

Save

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4
Q

What to ACEi/ARBs do to the glomerular efferent arteriole?

A
  • cause dilation

- this reduces risk of glomerular injury in DM pts by lowering pressure

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5
Q

ACEi drug ending

A

-pril

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6
Q

ARB drug ending

A

-sartan

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7
Q

Rifampin

A
  • MOA: inhibition of bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase

- side effects: GI, rash, red/orange body fluids, cytopenias

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8
Q

Isoniazid

A
  • MOA: inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
  • resistance: bacterial catalase-peroxidase required to activate
  • side effects: neurotoxicity (give with vitamin B6), hepatotoxicity, drug-induced LSE
  • side effects worse in slow acetylators
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9
Q

Pyrazinamide

A
  • MOA: unclear

- Side effects: hepatotoxicity, hyperuricemia

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10
Q

Ethambutol

A
  • MOA: inihibition of arabinosyl transferase (needed for cell wall cynthesis)
  • side effects: optic toxicity
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11
Q

Streptomycin

A
  • aminoglycoside

- inhibits protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal subunit

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12
Q

ACEi- side effects

A
  • cough (inc. bradykinin)
  • angioedema (tongue/lip swelling) (inc. bradykinin), rare, serious side effect
  • bradykinin inc. vascular permability
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13
Q

Leukotrienes targeted with asthma treatment

A

LTC4, LTD4, LTE4

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14
Q

Acid/Base Changes with Aspirin Poisoning

A
  • respiratory alkalosis (real alkalosis)

- anion gap metabolic acidosis

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15
Q

Winter’s Formula

A

pCO2 = (1.5 x HCO3) + 8 +/- 2

  • use to find expected pCO2 value
  • if pCO2 measured is lower, then it is a primary resp. alkalosis
  • if pCO2 measured is higher, then it is a concurrent resp. acidosis
  • if pCO2 is matches expected, it is compensated
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16
Q

Fibrin Specific Fibrinolytics

A
  • tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
  • reteplase
  • tenecteplase
  • act on fibrin attached to recently formed clot, no systemic activation
  • use within 6 hours of acute MI
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17
Q

Tamoxifen

A

-selective estrogen receptor modulator

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18
Q

“Over the Counter”

A

-non prescription meds

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19
Q

Most common cause of overdose that leads to death in US?

A

-opioids

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20
Q

NSIAD Associated Chronic Renal Injury

A
  • chronic interstitial nephritis

- patchy interstitial inflammation with fibrosis, necrotic tubules

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21
Q

Omeprazole/Lansoprazole

A
  • inhibits the H+/K+ ATPase proton pump

- proton pump inhibitor

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22
Q

Fenofibrate

A
  • fibrate- most effective tx for hypertriglyceridemia
  • activates PPARa
  • dec. VLDL synthesis
  • dec. triglycerides
  • inc. HDL
  • side effects: muscle toxicity, gallstones
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23
Q

Warfarin + Protein C Deficiency

A

-protein C deficiency at start of warfarin my lead to hypercoagulable state with thrombotic occlusion of microvasculature and skin necrosis

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24
Q

Atropine

A
  • muscarinic receptor blocker
  • indiacted for tx of bradycardia
  • dec. vagal influence at SA and AV nodes
  • contraindicated in glaucoma
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25
Q

Ending of Factor Xa inhibitor drug name?

A

-xaban

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26
Q

Theophylline

A
  • inhibits phosphodiesterase (which is enzyme responsible for cAMP breakdown)
  • indirect adrenergic agent used for tx of acute and chronic asthma
  • metabolized by hepatic cytochrome oxidases
  • overdose can cause cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
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27
Q

Enoxaparin

A
  • low molecular weight heparin
  • safe for use in pregnancy
  • does not cross placenta
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28
Q

Meds that cause hyperkalemia?

A

-non-selective beta blockers
-ACE-i
-ARBs
-K-sparing diuretics: spironolactone, amiloride
-cardiac glycosides: digoxin
-NSAIDs
(aldosterone normally inc. Na retention and causes K secretion)

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29
Q

Ethylene Glycol

A

Antifreeze

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30
Q

MAC Value

A
  • minimal alveolar anesthetic concentration required for 50% of people to respond to stimulus
  • low MAC = more potent drug
  • additive
  • MAC values are lower in elderly
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31
Q

Blood Gas Ratio

A
  • low blood gas ratio = rapid onset and rapid recovery

- the more soluble the anesthetic in the blood, the slower the anesthesia

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32
Q

Thiopental Plasma Decay

A

Cause of rapid decay (30 min) of thiopental is redistribution into lean body tissue, not metabolism by liver.

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33
Q

Best drug for chemo induced vomiting?

A

Serotonin 3 receptor blockers such as ondansetron or granisetron.
Block vagus mediated nausea and block central serotonin receptors.

Other drug options include NK1 receptor antagonists like aprepitant, or DA antagonists like prochlorperazine, metochlopramide, H2 antagonists like dephenhydramine, M antagonist like scopolamine, cannabinoids like dronabinol.

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34
Q

What antibiotics inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis?

A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • carbapenems
  • vancomycin
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35
Q

What antibiotics inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • chloramphenicol
  • macrolides
  • tetracyclines
  • streptogramins
  • linezolid
  • clindamycin
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36
Q

What antibiotics inhibit nucleic acid synthesis?

A
  • fluoroquinolones

- rifampin

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37
Q

What antibiotics inhibit folic acid synthesis?

A
  • sulfonamides
  • trimethoprim
  • pyrimethamine
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38
Q

First Gen Cephalosporins

A
  • Cefazolin

- cephalexin (phirst)

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39
Q

Second Gen Cephalosporins

A

-Cefaclor
-Cefotetan
-Cefuroxime
It’s a FACt that I have a FOxy, FURry man.

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40
Q

Third Gen Cephalosporins

A

-cephtriaxone
-cefotaxime
-cefdinir
-cefixime
Use the AX to FIX DINIR

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41
Q

Only beta lactam without cross reaction allergenicity to other beta lactams

A

-Azotreonam

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42
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit 30S Ribosomal Subunit

A
  • aminoglycosides

- tetracyclines

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43
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit 50S ribosomal subunit

A
  • macrolides

- singles (linezolid, dalfopristin/quinupristin, chloramphenicol, clindamycin)

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44
Q

AmiNOglycoside Name Tricks

A
  • NO
  • Need O2
  • Oephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
  • kill gram Negative Organisms
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45
Q

Drugs that cause ototoxicity?

A
  • aminoglycosides

- loop diuretics

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46
Q

Tetracycline Name Tricks

A

Tets for ticks!

  • borrelia burgdorferi
  • rickettsia
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47
Q

Antibiotics to Use During Pregnancy

A
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • macrolides
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48
Q

Macrolide Tricks to Remember

A

Mmm-mm

  • Macrolides
  • mycoplasma
  • mycobactrium avium (MAC)
  • motilin receptor activation (diarrhea)
  • methylation for resistance
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49
Q

What bugs does Metronidazole work against?

A

GET BaC on the metro G!

  • antiprotozoal: giardia, thrichomonas, entamoeba
  • antibacterial: bacteroides, clostridium, gardnerella (BV)
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50
Q

Which drugs are phototoxic?

A
  • FoToS
  • fluoroquinolone
  • tetracycline
  • sulfonamide
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51
Q

What bugs does Metronidazole work against?

A

GET BaC G!

  • antiprotozoal: giardia, thrichomonas, entamoeba
  • antibacterial: bacteroides, clostridium, gardnerella (BV)
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52
Q

How is digoxin eliminated?

A
  • digoxin is eliminated unchanged by the kidney

- age related dec in dose may be necessary in elderly pts

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53
Q

SGLT2 Inhibitors

A

-sodium glucose cotransporter inhibitor
Block SGLT2 in proximal tubule of kidney, inc. glucose excretion. New diabetes drug.
Canagliflozin
Dapagliflozin

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54
Q

Microsidic Sideroblastic Anemia

A
  • lead poisoning

- tx with dimercaprol or succimer in children

55
Q

CYP450 Inhibitors

A 
Valproate 
Isoniazid 
Cimetidine 
Ketoconazole 
Sulfonamides
Fluconazole/fluoxetine (and all SSRIs)
Alcohol..binge drinking (acute)
Chloramphenicol 
Erythromycin (all macrolides except azithromycin)
Amiodarone
Ciprofloxacin 
Omeprazole 
Grapefruit juice/Cranberry Juice
Quinidine
(Also ritonavir, NSAIDs, Metronidizole, and fibrates)

VICK’S FACE All Over GQ Cover stops the ladies in their tracks.

56
Q

CYP450 Inducers

A

Barbiturates
St. John’s Wort

Carbemazepines
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic)
Phenytoin

Griseofulvin
Phenobarbital
Sulphonylureas
(And nevirapine, oral contraeptives, ginseng, green vegetables)

Bull Shit CRAP GPS induces my rage.

57
Q

Amatoxin

A

Toxin present in mushrooms. Inhibits mRNA. a Amantin in urine confirms poisoning.

58
Q

Daptomycin

A

Antibiotic with activity against gram positive organisms. Causes transmembrane channels that result in depolarization of the membrane potential. Inactivated by pulmonary surfactant.
Side effects: inc. creatine phosphate level, and myopathy.

59
Q

Modafinil

A

Tx for narcolepsy. Nonamphetamine stimulant. Thought to enhance dopaminergic signaling.

60
Q

Drugs that cause drug-induced lupus?

A 
HIP
H-hydralazine
I-isoniazid (slow acetylators)
P-procainimide
(also minocycline and quinidine)
61
Q

Entacapone

A

COMT inhibitor that prevents peripheral degradation/methylation of levodopa in pts with Parkinson’s.

62
Q

Tolcapone

A

COMT inhibitor that works to prevent central (in the brain) degradation of levodopa in Parkinson’s pts. Associated with hepatotoxicity.

63
Q

Eculizumab

A
  • attacks C5
  • give N. meningitis vaccine first
  • tx: for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
64
Q

Rituximab

A
  • check first for Hep B and C

- attacks B cells

65
Q

Activated Protein C

A
  • antithrombic agent
  • inactivates factors Va and VIIIa
  • pts with factor V leyden deficiency will not respond to activated protein C
66
Q

Caplan Syndrome

A

-any pneumoconiosis with rheumatoid arthritis

67
Q

CYP450

A

-major enzymes involved in drug metabolism

68
Q

Ivabradine

A
  • slows heart rate with no effect on chrontractility or relaxation
  • inhibits funny Na current channels during phase 4
69
Q

What category of drug is fluoxetine?

A

SSRI

70
Q

Ramelteon

A

Melatonin agonist that is a safe sleep aid in elderly.

71
Q

Antidote for beta blocker overdose?

A

Glucagon: works on cardiac myocytes to inc. cAMP, resulting in inc. Ca release and inc. SA node firing.

72
Q

How do beta blockers inhibit the RAAS pathway?

A

They block B1 receptors and therefore block renin.

73
Q

Drug of choice to treat trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

74
Q

Nitroglycerin acts on what type of vessels? And what is it’s MOA?

A
  • dilates veins&raquo_space;> arteries
  • activates guanulate cyclase > inc. cGMP > dec. activity of myosin light chian kinase > dephosphorylation of of myosin light chain > relaxation of vascular smooth muscle
  • has the effect of dec. left end-diastolic volume and wall stress, resulting in dec. myocardial oxygen demand and relief of angina sx
75
Q

Cyclosporin/Tacrolimus

A

-inhibits calcineurin activation in T cells to prevent immune response to organ transplant

76
Q

Varenicline

A
  • partial agonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

- helps with tobacco cessation by reducing withdrawal cravings and dec. rewarding effects of nicotine

77
Q

MOA of Ethosuximide and What it Treats

A
  • blocks T-type Ca channels in thalamic neurons

- tx for absence seizures

78
Q

MOA of Carbamazapine (also what it tx and major side effect)

A
  • blocks voltage gated Na channels in neuronal membranes
  • used for simple partial, complex partial, and generalized tonic clonic seizures
  • can cause bone marrow suppression
79
Q

Flutaminde

A

-nonsteroid agents that acts as competitive testosterone receptor inhibitor during initiation of long-acting GnRH agonists for prostate cancer tx to prevent initial inc. in T

80
Q

What receptors does DA effect?

A
  • low dose: D1 (vasodilation and inc. BF)
  • higher doses: B1 (inc. cardiac contractility)
  • very high doses: A1 (vasoconstriction)
81
Q

How many half lives does it take to reach steady state?

A

-4-5

82
Q

Bosentan

A

-endothelin receptor antagonist used to dec. pulmonary hypertension

83
Q

Calcipotriene

A
  • tx for psoriasis
  • topical vitamin D analog binds to vit D receptor and inhibits keratinocyte proliferation and stimulates keratinocyte differentiation
  • activates a nuclear transcription factor
84
Q

D-Penicillamine

A

-chelation therapy for Wilson disease to bind excess copper

85
Q

Treatment for lead poisoning.

A

-CaNa2EDTA forms non-ionizing salts to inc. urinary lead excretion

86
Q

Treatment for Iron Overload

A

-chelating agent binds circulating iron and facilitates its urinary excretion

87
Q

Treatment for Cyanide Poisoning

A

-Hydroxycobalamin binds intracellular CN and forms cyanobalamin, which can be excreted in urine

88
Q

Treatment for Methemoglobinemia

A

-methylene blue acts as artificial electron transporter for reduction of methemoglobin through NADPH pathway

89
Q

Treatment for Arsenic Poisoning

A

-dimercaprol (british anti-lewisite) inc. urinary excretion of heavy metals

90
Q

Cholystyramine

A
  • bile acid binding resin that inhibits recycling of bile acid
  • decreases cholesterol and LDL
  • actually inc. triglycerides and can cause hypertriglyceridemia (inc. VLDL?)
91
Q

Major side effect of SSRIs?

A

-sexual dysfunction

92
Q

3 Drugs to Tx C. Diff

A
  • metronidazole
  • vancomycin
  • fidaxomicin
93
Q

What med should you give to prevent erythroid precursor cell apoptosis during folate deficiency?

A

-thymidine

94
Q

Cardioselective Beta Blockers

A
  • action against beta 1 receptors
  • metoprolol
  • atenolol
  • bisoprolol
  • nebivolol
95
Q

Lamotrigine

A
  • antiseizure medication
  • fxnal against simple/complex partial and tonic clonic and absence seizures
  • blocks voltage gated Na channels
  • causes Steven Johnson syndrome (toxic epidermal necrolysis)
96
Q

Antibiotic Resistance to Penicillin

A
  • B-lactamase
  • mutated PBP
  • mutated porin protein
97
Q

Antibiotic Resistance to Vancomycin

A
  • mutated peptidoglycan cell wall matrix

- impaired influx/inc efflux

98
Q

Antibiotic Resistance to Quinolones

A
  • mutated DNA gyrase

- impaired influx/inc. efflux

99
Q

Antibiotic Restance to Aminoglycosides

A
  • amnioglycoside modifying enzymes
  • mutated ribosomal subunit
  • mutated porin protein
100
Q

Antibiotic Resistance to Tetracyclines

A
  • impaired influx/inc. efflux

- inactivated enzymes

101
Q

Antibiotic Resistance to Rifamycins

A

-mutated RNA polymerase

102
Q

What medication treats Beta Blocker Overdose?

A

-glucagon

103
Q

Tachyphylaxis

A
  • rapid decline in effect of nasal decongestants such as pheylephrine, xylometazoline, and oxygetazoline
  • due to negative feedback on norepinephrine production
  • may lead to rebound rhinnorrhea
  • also associated with nitroglycerine (use drug free intervals)
104
Q

How do fibrates contribute to gall stone formation?

A
  • inhibit cholesterol 7a hyroxylase, which catalyzes the rate limiting step in synthesis of bile acids
  • dec. bile acid results in dec. cholesterol solubility and leads to cholesterol gall stones
105
Q

Chlorpheniramine

A
  • first gen antihistamine (for allergic rxn and motion sickness) (-phen-)
  • can cause sedation
  • should not be given with other sedating drugs
106
Q

Topical Capsaicin

A

-causes dysfunction of afferent pain fibers and depletion of substance P

107
Q

Abciximab

A
  • GP 2b/3a receptor antagonist
  • inhibits binding of this receptor to fibrinogen
  • GP2b3a normally promotes platelet binding to fibrinogen
108
Q

What kind of drugs are metabolized by the liver?

A

Lipophlic ones.

109
Q

Phencyclidine

A

PCP
NMDA receptor antagonist
May cause vertical and horizontal nystagmus as well as delirium

110
Q

Tricyclic Antidepressant Overdose

A
  • delerium, seizures, cardiac abnormalities, hypotension, anticholinergic toxicity
  • caused by block of cardiac fast Na channels, inhibition of Ach, histamine, and A1 rec.
  • tx widened QRS or ventricular arrhythmias with NaHCO3
111
Q

Drugs to Avoid During Pregnancy

A
  • Warfarin- depressed nasal bridge, stippling of epiphyses, nail hypoplasia, fetal bleeding
  • Lithium- hypothyroidism, ebstein anomaly (atrialization of R ventricle)
  • Phenytoin- fetal hydantoin syndrome with orofacial clefts, microcephaly, nail/digit hypoplasia, cardiac defects, dysmorphic facial feature
  • ACE/ARB- renal dysgenesis
  • Alcohol- fetal EtOH syndrome
  • Valproate- neural tube defects
  • Isotretinoin- microcephaly, thymic hypoplasia, small ears, hydrocephalus
  • Methotrexate- limb and craniofacial abnormalities, neural tube defects, abortion
112
Q

Doxorubicin

A
  • anthracycline
  • chemo agent associated w/ severe cardiotoxicity
  • generates free radicals
  • causes dose-related dilated cardiomyopathy
  • prevent with dexrazoxane (Fe chelating agent that dec. formation of O2 radicals)
113
Q

Flumazenil

A

-benzodiazepine receptor antagonist to reverse CNS depression

114
Q

Alendronate

A
  • stabalizes bone structure and induces osteoblasts to secrete inhibitors of osteoclasts
  • dec. bone resporption
  • tx: Pagets, osteoprosis
  • side effect: GI distress and esophageal ulcers
115
Q

Baclofen

A
  • muscle relaxant
  • agonist at the GABA-B receptor
  • effective monotherapy for tx of spasticity secondary to brain and spinal cord dz
  • tizanidine may also be used for this purpose
116
Q

Azathioprine

A
  • immunosuppressive drug used in organ transplant and autoimmune disease
  • purine analog
  • prodrug of mercaptopurine (6MP) that inc. active metabolites that inhibit purine synthesis and thus prevent DNA replication
  • effect is enhanced by allopurinol, which inhibits xanthine oxidase, an enzyme that favor the formation of inactive metabolites
117
Q

MOA of Benzos

A
  • bind allosterically to GABA receptor, upregulating effect pf GABA
  • GABA receptor is a Cl channel
  • inc. influx of Cl causes hyperpolarization
  • EtOH and barbs bind to other allosteric sites in GABA rec.
118
Q

Reyes Syndrome

A
  • salicylates + virus in children
  • hepatic dysfunction: vomiting and hepatomegaly, inc. ALT/AST, inc. PT/PTT
  • light micro shows microvesicular steatosis (fat vacuoles in the cytoplasm)
  • e mico shows swelling and dec. mitochondria and glycogen dec.
  • ecephalopathy: hyperammonemia in CNS leads to cerebral edema
119
Q

MOA of Bisphosphonates

A
  • stabilize hydroxyapatite structure
  • induce osteoblasts to secrete inhibitors of osteoclasts
  • dec. bone resorption
120
Q

Filgrastim

A
  • granulocyte colony stimulating factor

- inc. white blood count in pts with leukopenia

121
Q

Treatment of Oral and Vaginal Candidiasis

A
  • oral: nystatin

- vaginal: azole

122
Q

Bleomycin

A
  • may cause pulmonary fibrosis
  • causes DNA strand breakage
  • cancer drug
123
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A
  • may cause bladder cancer
  • cancer drug
  • cross links DNA
124
Q

Nitric Oxide

A
  • pulmonary vasodilator
  • could be used in neonatal HTN
  • not same as nitrous oxide (laughing gas)
  • inc. cGMP and causes reuptake of Ca, causing smooth muscle relaxation
125
Q

Sumatriptan MOA

A
  • 5HT receptor agonist

- reduces vascular inflammation ass. w/ migraines

126
Q

Macrolide MOA

A
  • 50S ribosomal inhibitor
  • bacteriostatic
  • interferes with aminoacyl translocation, preventing transfer of the tRNA bound at the A site to the P site
127
Q

MOA of Cisplatin

A
  • cross links DNA, blocking DNA replication and causing cell death
  • alkylating agent
128
Q

Pindolol

A
  • non selective beta blocker with partial agonist activity

- avoid it pts with heart failure or hx of MI

129
Q

Dextromethorphan

A
  • cough suppressant

- does not cause constipation and low potential for substance abuse

130
Q

Cocaine MOA

A
  • inhibits reuptake of serotonin, NE, and DA (enhances sympathetic activity at low doses)
  • blocks Na channels in cardiac tissue leading to sudden cardiac death
  • acts like a class 1 antiarrhythmic agent (blocking Na and K channels) (local anesthetic action at higher doses)
  • also stimulates release of endothelin-1 (potent vasoconstrictor)
131
Q

Docusate

A

-stool softener

132
Q

Bidacodyl

A
  • laxative
  • stimulats enteric nerves to cause colonic contractions
  • inc. fluid and salt secretion
133
Q

Sucrasulfate

A
  • treats active duodenal ulcers and GERD

- binds ulcer and creates physical barrier that protects from acid erosion

134
Q

Clomiphene

A
  • selective estrogen receptor modulator

- widely used drug for ovulation induction in women with difficulty conceiving

Step 1 (23 decks)

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