Immune Flashcards

1
Q

Morphology of Acute Transplant Rejection

A
  • humoral (B cell): C4d deposition, neutrophilic infiltrate (PMNs), endotheliitis
  • cellular (T cell): lymphocytic (MONOnuclear) interstitial infiltrate and endotheliits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Humoral Response

A
  • bacteria
  • neutrophils (PMNs)
  • B cells with antibodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cellular Response

A
  • viruses
  • lymphocytes (mononuclear)
  • T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever

A
  • molecular mimicry
  • due to anti group A strep antibodies that cross react with cardiac and nervous antigens
  • pancarditis, arthritis, sydenham chorea
  • mitral regurg/stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Guillain Barre

A
  • ascending paralysis
  • can be caused by campylobacter jejuni
  • demyelinating syndrome of peripheral nerves
  • characterized by endoneural inflammatory infiltration (lymphocytes and macrophages)
  • antibodies from febrile illness cross react with myelin of spinal roots and peripheral nerves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A
  • muscle weakness (ptosis, diplopia)
  • weakness worsens with activity or at the end of each day
  • majority of pts also found to have thymoma or thymic hyperplasia
  • antibodies attack the Ach receptor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome

A

-antibody to Ca channel in presynaptic nerve terminal
-weakness improves with exercise
Associated with malignancy in half of cases (esp. Small cell lung cancer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

A
  • most common motor neuron disease
  • combine UMN (spasticity, hyperreflexia) and LMN (weakness, fasciculations) lesions are characteristic
  • damage to motor neurons of an. horn and demyelination of corticospinal tract present
  • atrophy of lateral corticospinal tracts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

IL1

A
  • produced by macrophages and epithelial cells
  • pro inflammatory
  • commonly secreted by malignant plasma cells in multiple myeloma
  • osteoclast activating factor that causes lytic bone lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IL5

A

-secreted by Th2 cells
-promotes humoral response with class switching to IgA.
Calls in eosinophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IL12

A

-secreted by macrophages
-induces differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 helper cells and activation of NK cells
Pts with a def. will have mycobacterial infections and can be tx with IFNgamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TNFa

A
  • produced by macrophages, NK cells, and T cells
  • proinflammatory
  • inc. expression of adhesion molecules
  • important in septic shock response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IL10

A
  • anti-inflammatory cytokine
  • dec. Th1 cytokines and MHC2 expression
  • protective effect in Crohns Disease
  • Increases TH2 T cells
  • Secreted by TH2 cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sarcoidosis

A
  • young black women
  • malaise, cough, erythema nodosum
  • bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  • transbronchial biopsy of non-caseating granulomas necessary for dx
  • inflammatory dz of unknown etiology
  • elevated ACE
  • CD4 cells predominate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CREST Syndrome

A
  • calcinosis
  • raynauds
  • esophageal dysmotility
  • sclerodactyly (tightening of skin on fingers)
  • telangiectasias (dilated capillaries)
  • variant of systemic sclerosis
  • can lead to pulmonary HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IL2

A

Anti tumor properties through activation of natural killer cells and T cells
Secreted by helper T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CD14

A

Surface marker of monocyte/macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IL4

A
Secreted by TH2 cells.
Enable class switching to IgE.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Interleukins secreted by TH2 cells?

A

IL4, IL5, IL10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cytokines and interleukins secreted by TH1 cells?

A

Interferon gamma (also secreted by NK cells)
Stimulates macrophages to kill phagocytosed pathogens.
IL2, IFNgamma, IL12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cytokines secreted by all T cells?

A

IL2 (stimulates T cells)
IL3 (stimulates bone marrow)
Stimulate and support immune system growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cytokines secreted by macrophages?

A
IL1 (fever)
IL6 (stimulates acute phase protein production)
IL8
IL12
TNFa (mediates septic shock)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HOT Tbone stEAK

A
IL1 (fever)
IL2 (stimulates T cells)
IL3 (stimulates bone marrow)
IL4 (stimulates IgE)
IL5 (stimulates IgA)
IL6 (aKute phase protein production)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Clean up on aisle 8

A

Neutrophils are recruited by IL8 to clear infections. Produced by macrophages. Causes cont. inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pt’s neutrophils fail to turn blue on nitro blue tetrazolium testing?

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease
X linked mutation affecting NADPH oxidase, which normally generates ROS to kill bugs.
Pt at inc. risk of catalase positive organisms due to dec. effect of neutrophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Citrullinated Peptide Antibodies… Dx?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

27
Q

TGF beta

A

-controls cell proliferation, inhibits macrophages

Healing and resolution molecule with IL 10. AtTENunates immune response.

28
Q

Regulatory T Cell Phenotype

A
  • CD4+
  • CD25+
  • foxp3+
29
Q

4 things that attract neutrophils?

A

leukotriene B4, C5a, IL8, bacterial products

30
Q

3 Things that activate mast cells?

A

Tissue trauma
C3a and Ca
Cross linking of cell surface IgE by antigen

31
Q

Substances that mediate pain?

A

PG E2

Bradykinin

32
Q

Cytochrome C

A

Mitochondrial enzyme that leads to cell death through apoptosis.

33
Q

Polymyocitis

A

Symmetrical proximal muscle weakness (difficulty combing hair). Elevated muscle enzymes (CK) and autoantibodies against histidyl tRNA synthetase (anti Jo). Over expression of MHC class 1 on the sarcolemma leads to CD8 T cell invasion. Leads to patchy muscle fiber necrosis. Lacks characteristic skin findings of dermatomysitis.

34
Q

IL10

A

Healing and resolution molecule secreted with TGFbeta. AtTENuate immune response.

35
Q

Acute Graft Rejection

A

Usually cell mediated pathway. Expect to see dense interstitial lymphocyte infiltrate.

36
Q

Where do T cells live in the lymph node?

A

Paracortex

37
Q

Schaumann Bodies, Noncaseating Granulomas, and Asteroid Bodies?

A

Sarcoid

38
Q

What causes green color of sputum?

A

-myeloperoxidase released by neutrophils during infection

39
Q

2 Tests for CGD

A
  1. nitroblue tetrazolium test: no blue = CGD

2. dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry: dec. green fluorescence = CGD

40
Q

What disease is HLA DR2?

A

MS

41
Q

Calcineurin

A
  • protein phosphatase in T cells that is essential to IL2 activation
  • dephosphorylates nuclear factor of activated T cells (NFAT) that leads to inc. immune response
  • inhibited by cyclosporine and tacrolimus in pts with organ transplant
42
Q

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

A
  • disorder of langerhans cells
  • lytic bone lesions, skin rash, otitis media,
  • S100
  • birbeck granules
43
Q

IFNgamma

A
  • produced by T cells and recruits leukocytes and activates phagocytosis
  • type 2 interferon
  • promotes Th1 differentiation
  • inc. expression of MHC class 2
  • important for mycobacterial infections, and def. will cause infection with these bugs
44
Q

What cytokines mediate septic shock response?

A

TNF-a, IL1, IL6

45
Q

Interferon alpha and beta

A
  • type 1 interferons
  • synthesized by most human cells in response to viral infection
  • autocrine/paracrine signaling halts protein synthesis in presence of dsRNA (viral RNA)
  • inc. MCH class 1 expression
46
Q

Anti-dsDNA

A

-specific for SLE

47
Q

Anti-histone Antibodies

A
  • drug induced lupus

- procainamide, hydralazine, isoniazid, D-penicillamine

48
Q

Anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies

A

-sjogren syndrome

49
Q

Anti-phsopholipid Antibodies

A

-SLE and antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

50
Q

Anti-DNA topoisomerase

A

-highly specific for systemic sclerosis-diffuse type

51
Q

Anti-centromere Antibodies

A
CREST syndrome-systemic sclerosis limited type
C-calcinosis
R-raynauds
E-esophageal dysmotility
S-sclerodactyly
T-telangectasias
52
Q

Leukemoid Reaction

A
  • benign leukocytosis in response to underlying condition like severe infection/hemorrhage, malignancy, or acute hemolysis
  • leukocyte alk phos can be normal or elevated
  • smear shows inc. bands, mature neutrophil precursors, and granules (dohle bodies) in neutrophils (not hypersegmented nuclei)
53
Q

Systemic Mastocytosis

A
  • abnormal proliferation of mast cells and inc. histamine release
  • histamine causes inc. gastric acid as well as hypotension, flushing, and pruritis (with rash)
54
Q

Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

A
  • due to absence of CD18 antigens necessary for formation of integrins
  • recurrent skin infections without purulence
  • delayed separation of umbilical cord
  • persistent leukocytosis
  • ICAM deficiency
55
Q

What immune cells are involved in the candida skin test?

A

-CD4+ T lymphocytes and macrophages

56
Q

Graft Vs. Host Disease

A
  • fever
  • cytolytic destruction of mucous membranes such as GI and skin (maculopapular rash)
  • follows organ transplant
  • T lymphocytes from graft reject host cells
57
Q

Cytokines involved in rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • IL1
  • IL6
  • TNFa
58
Q

Myeloperoxidase Deficiency

A
  • dec. myeloperoxidase
  • pt cannot form HOCl- (bleach/ hypochlorus acid.hydroxyl halide radicals)
  • inc. risk candida infections
59
Q

Bence Jones Proteins

A
  • monoclonal globulin protein found in the urine

- suggestive of multiple myeloma

60
Q

What happens to endothelial tight junctions during inflammation?

A

-the tight junction permeability increases to allow for white cell migration to site of injury

61
Q

IgE Independent Degranulation

A
  • some medications (opioids, radiocontrast agents, vancomycin) induce granulation via protein kinase A and PI3 kinase
  • IgE mediated degranulation is associated with environmental exposures and beta lactam and sulfonamide antibiotics
62
Q

Caspases

A
  • common to both intrinsic and extrinsic apoptosis pathways
  • proteolytic enzymes that cleave cellular proteins
  • stand for cysteine aspartic acid proteases
63
Q

Maternal Antibodies

A
  • type A or B mothers make IgM antibodies that can’t cross placenta if blood type is not compatible
  • type O mothers make IgG that can cross placenta
64
Q

Chediak Higashi

A
  • defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator gene
  • AR
  • recurrent pyogenic infections
  • partial albinsim
  • progressive neurodegeneration
  • pancytopenia
  • mild coagulation defects