PELVIS, HIP: 56, 57, 58, 59

Question 1

How many fracture configuration can be seen in pelvic fractures?

Answer 1

160 total, with 19 repeatedly observed (in 52% of all cases)

Question 2

anatomy of the lumbosacral trunk

Answer 2

it becomes the sciatic nerve after being joined by the 2° sacral nerve, and passing over the greater ischiatic notch and exit the greater ischiatic foramen

Question 3

percentage of recovery of animal with peripheral nerve injury

Answer 3

15% had permanent loss of linb function

Question 4

Pelvic canal ratio

Answer 4

hamilton 2009. A-B= cranial border sacrum
C-D= medial cortex acetabulum. 0.97 +- 0.025 in normal cats.

reduction of <10% mild, 10-30% moderate, >30% severe

Question 5

typical pattern for ilium fractures

Answer 5

from cranioventral to caudodorsal, immediately caudal to the sacroiliac joint

Question 6

position of the lumbosacral trunk in respect to the ilium body

Answer 6

medial and dorsal

Question 7

in lateral plating of the ilium, where does screws tipically pull out?

Answer 7

cranial fracture segment

Question 8

acetabular fractures classification

Answer 8

simple, transverse, oblique or comminuted

location: cranial, dorsal, caudal, central

Question 9

prevalence of unilateral and bilateral SI luxation fracture

Answer 9

77% unilateral, 23% bilateral

Question 10

do cats have a sacral notch?

Answer 10

only 34% of cats and 98% of dogs

Question 11

screw loosening in SI luxation with screw >60% width sacrum

Answer 11

7%

Question 12

classification of sacral fractures

Answer 12

1) alar
2) foraminal
3) transverse
4) avulsion
5) comminuted

Question 13

most common pelvic fractures?

Answer 13

pelvic fractures

Question 14

name the primary stabilizers of the hip joint

Answer 14

1) ligament of the head of the femur
2) joint capsule
3) dorsal acetabular rim

Question 15

incidence of femural luxation on all luxation

Answer 15

90%

Question 16

what percentage of femural luxation are craniodorsal?

Answer 16

75%

Question 17

incidence of relaxation after closed reduction of COX-FEM luxation

Answer 17

more than 50%

Question 18

name 5 techniques for augmentation of closed reduction

Answer 18

1) Ehmer sling: 10 to 14 days, relaxation 15-71%
2) Hobbles
3) Ischioilial pinning: 2-4 weeks
4) External skeletal fixators
5) transarticular pinning

Question 19

median success rate after open reduction

Answer 19

+- 85%

Question 20

Name 12 procedures for open reduction

Answer 20

1) capsulorraphy
2) prostethic capsule repair
3) transposition of the greater trochanter
4) transarticular pinning
5) toggle rod: 6% relaxation
6) fascia lat loop stabilization
7) transposition of the sacrotuberous ligament
8) extra-articular iliofemoral suture
9) surgical stabilization of ventral luxation
10) femoral head and neck excision
11) TPO/DPO
12) THR

Question 21

caudal acetabular fractures should always be managed conservatively. T or F

Answer 21

F. caudal acetabulum has weightbearing load. without intervention faster progression to osteoarthritis

Question 22

what is the main responsible to maintain hip joint stability during the first months of life?

Answer 22

ligament head of the femur

Question 23

breifly describe the 2 biomechanic principles associated with funcional subluxation of the hip

Answer 23

1) forces crossing the joint increase
2) area over wich the forces are transmitted decreases

Question 24

lower cutoff value for Distraction Index

Answer 24

0.3

Question 25

Name all the proposed factors that can lead to hip joint laxity

Answer 25

1) joint fluid
2) pelvic muscle mass
3) hormonal factors
4) weight and growth
5) nutrition
6) environmental
7) other

Question 26

pectineal myectomy or tenotomy reduces incidence of hip displasia. T or F

Answer 26

F

Question 26

progression of osteoarthritis lead to thightening of the capsule. T or F

Answer 26

False. greater osteoarthritis = greates laxity.

Question 27

all dogs with hip displasia have a wide based stance. T or F

Answer 27

F: initially wide stance to help with hip reduction. As it progresses, develop narrow-base to degrease discomfort caused by reduction and then subluxation.

Question 28

Negative Ortolani test is highly indicative of a sound hip. T or F

Answer 28

F: 50 % ortolani negative had hip joint laxity measured by DI

Question 29

what sign can be confused with a morgan’s line (caudolateral curvilinear osteophyte) ?

Answer 29

puppy line. same position, but shorter, more diffuse, more subtle. Younger than 18 MO, self limiting.

Question 30

distraction index always correlate with both ortolani sign. T or F

Answer 30

F: the presence of osteoarthritis weaken the correlation.

50% dogs with DI >0.3 had normal ortolani.

Question 31

ultrasonography of the hip has an high rate of false…….

Answer 31

positive. results in overtreatement in children.

Question 32

name 3 main cons of ultrasound for early diagnosisi of hip displasia

Answer 32

1) subjectivity/imprecision in repeated measurements
2) absence of reference ranges
3) variables at 16-49 days do not correlate with diagnosis of Hip displasya at 12 to 24 months.

Question 33

theorical characteristics of the ideal hip screening tool

Answer 33

1) accurately identify unwanted phenotype (es. hip extended, norberg do NOT correlate with OA progression)
2) interobserver reliability
3) continuous ratio scale; not intervals
4) early diagnosis
5) valuable tool for estimate breeding value (must have an hereditary component)
6) selection pressure: genetic change towards better hips.

Question 34

Mass selection (evaluate just the individual phenotype) is adequate for highly or lower geritable traits?

Answer 34

highly! (>0.5). as it decrease (<0.35), increasingly important to consider relative’s phenotype