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Pediatrics > Peds Test 2 > Flashcards

Peds Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

When does a child’s brain reach 2/3 of its final size?

A

Age 2-3

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2
Q

Weight change in the first year of life

A

Birth weight triples

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3
Q

At what age should the weight be at or above the birth weight?

A

2 weeks

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4
Q

What should the weight be at 2 weeks?

A

At or above birth weight

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5
Q

At what age does a child regard faces?

A

2 weeks

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6
Q

Age of rolling from stomach to back

A

4 months

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7
Q

Age when laughter begins

A

4 months

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8
Q

Age when head is lifted 90’ without lag

A

4 months

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9
Q

Age what child babbles or makes “raspberry” sound

A

4 months

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10
Q

Age when child sits with support

A

4 months

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11
Q

When should you introduce solids for formula-fed babies?

A

4 months

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12
Q

When should you check for strabismus?

A

4 months

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13
Q

Age of reaching/scooping up cheerios using thumb

A

6 months

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14
Q

Age at which child sits momentarily

A

6 months

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15
Q

Age child imitates “bye-bye”

A

6 months

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16
Q

Age when child transfers objects

A

6 months

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17
Q

Age when child rolls from back to stomach

A

6 months

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18
Q

Age when AAP recommends floride supplementation

A

6 months

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19
Q

Age at which you should screen for anemia?

A

6 months

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20
Q

Age when child stands

A

12 months

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21
Q

Age when child cruises/begins walking

A

12 months

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22
Q

Age when child develops a good pincer grasp

A

12 months

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23
Q

Age when child uses 2-3 words and points to desired things

A

12 months

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24
Q

Age when child should get table food and milk

A

12 months

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25
Q

Age when you should screen for lead and anemia

A

12 months

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26
Q

Age when child should hop on one foot

A

4 years

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27
Q

Age when child should throw a ball

A

4 years

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28
Q

Age when child should cut with scissors

A

4 years

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29
Q

Age when child should copy a circle or cross

A

4 years

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30
Q

Age when child should count and recognize colors

A

4 years

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31
Q

Age when child should understand the word “stranger”

A

4 years

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32
Q

Age when child should dress themselves (except shoes)

A

4 years

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33
Q

Age when child should self-care at the toilet

A

4 years

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34
Q

Good to excellent APGAR score

A

7 - 10

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35
Q

Fair APGAR score

A

4-6

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36
Q

Poor APGAR score

A

< 4

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37
Q

APGAR score of < 4

A

Poor

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38
Q

APGAR score of 4-6

A

Fair

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39
Q

APGAR score of 7-10

A

Good-excellent

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40
Q

Normal respiratory rate of a newborn

A

30-60

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41
Q

Normal HR of a newborn

A

100-160

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42
Q

Normal BP of a newborn

A

60/35

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43
Q

Normal temperature of a newborn

A

99.1

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44
Q

What should you think if you have abdominal distention in a newborn?

A

Celiac Disease

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45
Q

How does celiac disease usually present under age 2?

A
  • Failure to thrive
  • malabsorption
  • bloating
  • foul, explosive stools
  • vomiting
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46
Q

What should you think if you observe an olive-shaped mass to the right of the midline?

A

Pyloric stenosis

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47
Q

How might pyloric stenosis present?

A
  • With an olive-shaped mass to the right of the midline
  • Projectile vomiting
  • Sometimes can see visual peristalsis after feeding
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48
Q

What causes pyloric stenosis?

A

-Hypertrophy of muscles of the pylorus with elongation and thickening leading to obstruction

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49
Q

Evidence of hip dislocation/dysplasia in children > 1 year

A

-Galeazzi sign

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50
Q

In what age group is knock-knee normal?

A

2-8 years

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51
Q

In what age group are flat feet normal?

A

-Infants and toddlers

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52
Q

In what age group is in-toeing common?

A

Until age 8

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53
Q

Reflex involving the turning of the infant’s mouth toward the stimulus when the cheek is stroked

A

Rooting

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54
Q

Reflex involving the curling of fingers around an object placed within them, without spontaneously letting go

A

Palmar grasp-curling

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55
Q

Reflex involving rapid abduction and extension of arms followed by an embracing motion

A

Moro (startle)

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56
Q

Reflex involving the turning of the infant’s head to one side, leading to extension of the extremities on that side and flexion on the contralateral side

A

Asymmetric tonic neck

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57
Q

When does rooting disappear?

A

3-4 months

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58
Q

When does palmar grasp disappear?

A

3-4 months

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59
Q

When does the Moro (startle) reflex disappear?

A

4-6 months

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60
Q

When does the asymmetric tonic neck reflex disappear?

A

4-6 months

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61
Q

When does placing-stepping disappear?

A

3-4 months

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62
Q

Which reflexes disappear at 3-4 months?

A
  • Rooting
  • Palmar grasp
  • Place-stepping
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63
Q

Which reflexes disappear at 4-6 months?

A
  • Moro (startle)

- Asymmetric tonic neck

64
Q

Where is the needle for a lumbar puncture inserted?

A

Between the 3rd and 4th vertebrae

65
Q

Describe the cellular, glucose, protein, gram stain, and culture findings for bacterial meningitis

A
  • Cells: 1,000-50,000
  • Type: neutrophils
  • Glucose: low
  • Protein: high
  • Gram stain: +/-
  • Culture: (+)
66
Q

Describe the cellular, glucose, protein, gram stain, and culture findings for Viral meningitis

A
  • Cells: < 1000
  • Type: lymphocytes
  • Glucose: normal
  • Protein: normal-high
  • Gram stain: (-)
  • Culture: (-)
67
Q

Describe the cellular, glucose, protein, gram stain, and culture findings for TB meningitis

A
  • Cells: <500
  • Type: lymphocytes
  • Glucose: low
  • Protein: high
  • Gram stain: (-)
  • Culture: (-)
68
Q
  • Cells: <500
  • Type: lymphocytes
  • Glucose: low
  • Protein: high
  • Gram stain: (-)
  • Culture: (-)
A

TB meningitis

69
Q
  • Cells: < 1000
  • Type: lymphocytes
  • Glucose: normal
  • Protein: normal-high
  • Gram stain: (-)
  • Culture: (-)
A

Viral meningitis

70
Q
  • Cells: 1,000-50,000
  • Type: neutrophils
  • Glucose: low
  • Protein: high
  • Gram stain: +/-
  • Culture: (+)
A

Bacterial meningitis

71
Q

Major problem of the early phase of asthma

A

Bronchospasm

72
Q

Major problem of the late phase of asthma

A

Inflammation

73
Q

Which phase of asthma is worse?

A

Late

74
Q

Cystic fibrosis is due to a mutation on what chromosome?

A

7

75
Q

Median survival of CF patients

A

35 years

76
Q

Pathology involving:

  • Abnormal chloride transport
  • Lack of normal exocrine pancreatic digestive enzymes
  • Mucoid obstruction of the airways
A

Cystic fibrosis

77
Q

Common etiology of pneumonia in older children and adolescents

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumonia
  • Chlamydia
  • Viral: influenza and measles
  • Bacterial: pneumococcus, S. aureus
78
Q

What should you think if you see:

  • Webbed neck
  • Swelling of the hands and feet
  • Infertility
A

Turner’s syndrome

79
Q

What should you think if you hospitalize a FTT infant and find that the infant feeds fine and gains weight?

A

The diet at home is lacking

80
Q

What should you think if you hospitalize a FTT infant and find that the infant feeds fine, but doesn’t gain weight?

A

Malabsorption problems

81
Q

What can you give infants for prophylaxis against neonatal conjunctivitis (ophthalmia neonatrorum)?

A

Erythromycin ointment

82
Q

How can you treat N. gonorrhea conjunctivitis?

A

Single does of Ceftriaxone

83
Q

Major cause of blindness world-wide

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

84
Q

When does chlamydia conjunctivitis appear in infants?

A

5 days to several weeks

85
Q

What’s the big way to prevent anterior epistaxis?

A

Discourage nose-picking!!!

86
Q

What’s an appropriate way to treat a vomiting child?

A
  • Ice chips
  • Very small sips of ice water
  • Ice pops from pedialyte
87
Q

Congenital condition involving improper nerve impulses to the muscles of the bowel, resulting in large intestinal blockage

A

Hirschsprung’s

88
Q

Hirschsprungs treatment

A

Surgery

89
Q

When does Hirschsprungs commonly “start”?

A

Early infancy

90
Q

Describe the stool of Hirschsprungs disease

A

Small, ribbon-like

91
Q

How does a child with Hirschsprungs appear?

A

Chronically ill

92
Q

Is FTT common or rare in Hirschsprungs disease?

A

Common

93
Q

Describe the anal tone of Hirschsprungs disease

A

Tight

94
Q

Chromosome with the abnormality is Puetz-Jegher syndrome

A

19

95
Q

Peutz-Jegher syndrome

A
  • Inherited polyps of the small intestine with melanin lips, mucosa, fingers and toes
  • Anemia often results from the polyps’ bleeding
96
Q

Most common UTI pathogen

A

E. coli

97
Q

Factors that promote bacterial access to genital tract

A
  • Poor hygiene

- Anatomical obstruction

98
Q

In which age group is it most common to find FTT and/or feeding problems as a result of a UTI?

A

Newborn - 1 month

99
Q

In which age group is it most common to find vomiting/diarrhea as a result of a UTI?

A

1 month- 2 years

100
Q

In which age group is it most common to find CNS symptoms as a result of a UTI?

A

Newborn - 1 month

101
Q

In which age group is it most common to find unexplained fever that ends up being the result of a UTI?

A

2-6 years

102
Q

In which age group is it most common to find strong urine as a result of a UTI?

A

2-6 years

103
Q

Cardinal sign of right ventricular failure?

A

Hepatomegaly

104
Q

Does JVD appear before or after hepatomegaly in RV failure in children?

A
  • Later

- Because liver is more distensible

105
Q

Where do you best hear pulmonic stenosis?

A

ULSB

106
Q

Where do you best hear ASD?

A

ULSB

107
Q

Where do you best hear PDA?

A

ULSB

108
Q

Where do you best hear aortic stenosis?

A

URSB

109
Q

Where do you best hear venous hum?

A

URSB

110
Q

Where do you best hear VSD?

A

LLSB

111
Q

Where do you best hear Tricuspid regurgitation?

A

LLSB

112
Q

Where do you best hear Mitral regurg?

A

Apex

113
Q

How can you determine if persistent hypoxemia is cardiac or pulmonary-related?

A

100% oxygen test

114
Q

What should you think if you have persistent hypoxemia in the setting of 100% O2?

A

Cardiac sources

115
Q

Color change in skin

A

Macule

116
Q

Macule

A

Color change in skin

117
Q

Papule

A
  • Solid
  • Raised
  • < 1cm
118
Q
  • Solid
  • Raised
  • < 1cm
A

Papulse

119
Q

Vesicle

A
  • < 1cm

- Clear serous fluid

120
Q

Bulla

A
  • > 1cm

- Clear serous fluid

121
Q

> 1cm, filled with clear serous fluid

A

Bulla

122
Q

< 1cm, filled with clear serous fluid

A

Vesicle

123
Q

Skin lesion containing purulent exudate

A

Pustule

124
Q

Nodule

A

Mass that elevates the skin

125
Q

Elevation of the skin from edema (like with uticaria)

A

Wheal

126
Q

Wheal

A

Elevation of the skin from edema (like with uticaria)

127
Q

Most common pediatric endocrine disease

A

DM Type 1

128
Q

Symptoms of DM Type 1 don’t appear until what percentage of pancreatic beta cells have been destroyed?

A

90%

129
Q

What is the second-most common chronic illness?

A

DM Type 1

130
Q

Disease involving a deficiency of the enzyme Glucocerebrosidase, caused by a genetic mutation received from both parents

A

Gaucher Disease

131
Q

Child appears with a rash that’s spread down to the trunk from the face. Rash was preceded a prodrome with a fever. You note Koplik spots.

A

Rubeola (common measles)

132
Q

Blueberry muffin baby

A

Congenital rubella

133
Q

Triad that accompanies congenital rubella

A
  • Deafness
  • Cataracts
  • CHD’s
134
Q

Cause of Roseola

A

HSV 6 or 7

135
Q

Which HSV strain tends to cause roseola later in life?

A

HSV 7

136
Q

“Dewdrops on rose petals” lesions

A

Varicella (Chickenpox)

137
Q

Skin lesions form in “crops” and itch severely

A

Varicella (chickenpox)

138
Q

Where do varicella lesions usually begin on the body?

A

Trunk

139
Q

Cause of Fifth disease

A

Parvovirus B19

140
Q

Numerous, tiny red papules that cause a sandpaper-like feel to the skin

A

Scarlet fever

141
Q

Where is the scarlet fever rash the most dense?

A

On the trunk

142
Q

What parts of the body are affected last by the rash of scarlet fever?

A

Palms and soles

143
Q

Where does the scarlet fever rash begin and travel?

A

Begins on neck, then travels to the trunk and extremities

144
Q

Associated with “strawberry tongue” and cervical lymphadenopathy

A

Scarlet fever

145
Q

Scarlet fever treatment

A
  • Benzathine Penicillin G

- Penicillin VK

146
Q

Autoimmune disease in which the arteries throughout the body become inflamed

A

Kawasaki disease

147
Q
  • Marked erythema of the conjunctivae, oral mucosa, tongue (strawberry tongue), and lips
  • Accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy and lymph edema
A

Kawasaki disease

148
Q

How do you confirm the dx of pinworms?

A

Tape test

149
Q

Home remedy for head lice

A

Mayonnaise

150
Q

Creams/shampoos for head lice

A
  • Permethrine
  • Lindane
  • Pyrethrins
151
Q

Is the rash associated with Mono diffuse or focal?

A

Diffuse

152
Q

Does Kawasaki disease respond to antibiotics?

A

No

153
Q

How should you treat a newborn if Mom is Hep B positive?

A
  • Give HBIG (HepB Immunoglobulin)

- And Hep B ASAP followed by 2 doses of Hep B at 1 and 6 months

154
Q

How should you treat a newborn if you don’t know if Mom is Hep B positive or not?

A

-Test the baby, but give baby Hep B vaccine in 12 hours

155
Q

How should you treat a premature newborn if Mom is Hep B positive?

A
  • Give HBIG at birth

- Give the 3 vaccine Hep B series when weight reaches 2000g (4.4lbs)

Pediatrics (16 decks)

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