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Pediatrics > Peds Test 1 > Flashcards

Peds Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Categories of APGAR test

A
  • heart rate
  • respiratory effort
  • muscle tone
  • response to cath in nose
  • color
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2
Q

APGAR scores

A
  • 7-10: excellent
  • 4-6: fair
  • < 4: poor
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3
Q

When is APGAR test performed?

A
  • 1 min
  • 5 mins
  • 10 minutes in severely depressed infants
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4
Q

Most common autosomal chromosomal abnormality causing mental retardation?

A

Down’s Syndrome

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5
Q

Down’s patients make up what percentage of mental retardation cases?

A

about 1/3

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6
Q

Disorders that are associated with Down’s

A
  • hypothyroidism
  • hearing loss
  • leukemia
  • atlanto-axial instability (ligament laxity)
  • developmental hip dysplasia
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7
Q

Patau Syn

A

Trisomy 13

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8
Q

Edward’s Syn

A

trisomy 18

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9
Q

disorder involving only one X chromosome

A

Turner’s syndrome

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10
Q

disorder involving multiple X chromosomes of a male

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

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11
Q

cause of Fragile X syndrome

A

chromatin gap on the X chromosome

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12
Q

defects associated with Fragile X syndrome

A
  • mitral valve prolapse
  • strabismus
  • connective tissue defects
  • moderate to severe mental retardation
  • hyperarousal, anxiety, mood swings
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13
Q

what is the most common inheritable cause of mental retardation in males?

A

Fragile X syndrome

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14
Q

Most common drug-induced congenital defect

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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15
Q

3rd most common cause of mental retardation

A

-fetal alcohol syndrome

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16
Q

Congenital syndrome associated with:

  • dysmorphic fetures
  • heart defects
  • short stature
A

Down’s syndrome

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17
Q

Congenital syndrome associated with:

  • webbing of the neck
  • edema of the hands and feet
A

Turner’s syndrome

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18
Q

Congenital syndrome associated with:

  • tall stature
  • diminished male pattern hair
  • female type pubic hair
  • gynecomastia
A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

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19
Q

Congenital syndrome associated with:

  • growth retardation
  • microcephaly
  • flattened mid-face
  • short nose
  • indistinct philtrum
  • thin upper lip
A

Fetal Alcohol syndrome

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20
Q

Cause of Marfan Syndrome

A

-genetic mutation resulting in reduced production of fibrillin

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21
Q

Congenital syndrome associated with:

  • long, spindly extremities
  • spider fingers
  • joint hyperreflexia
A

Marfan Syndrome

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22
Q

What should you think if you observe decreased femoral pulses in a neonate?

A

coarctation of the aorta

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23
Q

what should you think if you observe bounding pulses in a neonate?

A

Patent ductus arteriosis

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24
Q

Bilirubin levels associated with physiologic jaundice

A
  • > 5mg/dL

- Usually peaks at 14-15mg/dL by day 3-5

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25
Q

Bilirubin levels associated with significant jaundice

A

> 20mg/dL

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26
Q

Cause of breast milk jaundice

A
  • prolonged increased circulation of bilirubin

- may be due to increased fatty acids in the milk

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27
Q

History associated with “Breast feeding associated jaundice”

A
  • decreased stooling
  • crying from hunger
  • weight loss of 10% from birth
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28
Q

Follow-up recommended for jaundiced or breast-fed neonates?

A

2-3 days

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29
Q

When do you give Prevnar?

A

2, 4, 6, 12-15 months

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30
Q

When do you give DTAP?

A
  • 2, 4, 6, 12-15 months

- And 4-6 years

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31
Q

When do you give TdaP?

A

11-13 years

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32
Q

When do you give IPV vaccine?

A
  • 2, 4, 6-18 months

- and 4-6 years

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33
Q

When do you give HIB vaccine?

A
  • 2, 4, and 6 months

- booster at 12-15 months

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34
Q

When do you give Hep B vaccine?

A
  • 2, 4, and 6 months
  • given ASAP when mom is positive
  • given within 12 hours if mom in unknown
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35
Q

When do you give MMR?

A
  • twice at 12-15 months

- then again at 2-6 years

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36
Q

When do you give varicella vaccine?

A

12 months - 12 years

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37
Q

When do you give Hep A vaccine?

A
  • 1st injection at year 1

- 2nd injection 6 months later

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38
Q

When do you give MCV4 vaccine?

A

11-18 years

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39
Q

When do you give Gardasil?

A
  • First dose at 11-12 years
  • second dose 2 months after 1st dose
  • third dose 6 months after 1st dose
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40
Q

Most common pathogens for otitis media

A
  • S. pneumococcus is #1
  • H. influenza
  • M. catarrhalis
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41
Q

Pathogens associated with Swimmer’s ear?

A
  • S. aureus

- Pseudomonas

42
Q

Pathogens associated with acute sinusitis?

A
  • pneumococcus
  • H. influenza
  • M. catarrhalis
43
Q

Pathogens associated with pharyngitis/tonsilitis?

A
  • 90% viral

- group A beta hemolytic strep

44
Q

oral motor period

A

0-6 months

45
Q

infant-parent bonding period

A

1-3 months

46
Q

infant-parent attachment period

A

3-6 months

47
Q

manipulative play period

A

6-12 months

48
Q

Stranger anxiety period

A

6-9 months

49
Q

Separation anxiety play

A

9-12 months

50
Q

Functional play period

A

12-24 months

51
Q

Imaginary play period

A

> 24 months

52
Q

supplementation recommended for strictly breast fed babies?

A

Trivisol

53
Q

Reflexes that disappear by 3-4 months

A
  • rooting
  • palmar grasp-curl
  • placing-stepping
54
Q

Reflexes that disappear by 4-6 months

A
  • Moro startle

- asymmetric tonic neck

55
Q

What is a “white pupil” called?

A

Leukocoria

56
Q

Onset of neonatal conjunctivitis caused by gonorrhea?

A

2-4 days

57
Q

Onset of neonatal conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia

A

3-10 days (most by day 5)

58
Q

Onset of neonatal conjunctivitis caused by HSV

A

2-16 days

59
Q

most common pediatric ocular problem

A

bacterial conjunctivits

60
Q

treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis?

A

Ocuflox or vigamox drops

61
Q

pathogens causing bacterial conjunctivitis?

A
  • pneumococus
  • S. aureus
  • H. influenzae
62
Q

What eye pathology should you think of when you see pre-auricular lymphadenopathy?

A

viral conjunctivitis

63
Q

What sort of conjunctivitis should you think of when you see cobblestoning?

A

allergic

64
Q

allergic conjunctivitis treatment

A
  • vasoconstrictors
  • topical cromolyn
  • oral antihistamines
65
Q

inflammation of the lid margins

A

Blepharitis

66
Q

treatment for gonorrhea conjunctivitis

A

single dose of Ceftriaxone

67
Q

treatment for chlamydia conjunctivitis

A

oral and ointment erythromycin

68
Q

treatment for HSV conjunctivitis

A

-viroptic solution

acyclovir

69
Q

infected gland of Zeis at the base of the eyelash

A

hordeolum (stye)

70
Q

chronic inflammatory lesion involving hte Meibomian gland

A

-Chalazion

71
Q

infection of the nasolacrimal duct

A

dacrocystitis

72
Q

Infecting pathogens associated with orbital cellulitis

A
  • H. influenza
  • S. pyogenes
  • pneumococcus
  • S. aureus
73
Q

Orbital cellulitis treatment

A

-IV ceftriaxone, vancomycin, ampicillin

74
Q

Abdominal mass + distension of the abdomen

A

celiac disease

75
Q

olive-shaped mass to the right of the midline

A

pyloric stenosis

76
Q

nephrotic syndrome definition

A

excessive urinary excretion of plasma proteins sufficient to cause hypoalbuminemia

77
Q

hallmarks of nephrotic syndrome

A
  • edema
  • proteinuria
  • hypoproteinemia
  • hyperlipidemia
78
Q

Treatment of GER and GERD

A
  • rantidine

- metoclopramide

79
Q

bacteremia etiology

A
  • strep pneumo: 50-80%

- H. influenza 2nd cause

80
Q

bacteremia treatment

A

IV ceftriaxone in the hospital

81
Q

neonatal bacterial meningitis treatment

A
  • Ampicillin

- Cefotaxime

82
Q

Child bacterial meningitis treatment

A
  • cefotaxime

- ceftriaxone

83
Q

lumbar puncture location

A

-between 3rd and 4th vertebrae

84
Q

preferred asthma treatment

A

-corticosteroids and B2 agonists

85
Q

is croup bacterial or viral?

A

viral

86
Q

croup most common cause

A

parainfluenza virus

87
Q

Chromosome mutation for cystic fibrosis?

A

7

88
Q

what is the most common lethal genetic disease?

A

cystic fibrosis

89
Q

cause of bronchiolitis?

A

main etiology is RSV

90
Q

most common cause of epiglottis?

A

H. influenza B

91
Q

x-ray identification of epiglottitis

A

thumb sign

92
Q

cause of pertussis?

A

Bordetella pertussis

93
Q

neonate pneumonia pathogens

A
  • GBS
  • chlamydia
  • cytomegalovirus
94
Q

1-3 months pneumonia pathogens

A
  • RSV
  • parainfluenza
  • influenza
  • S. aureus
  • aspirated anaerobes
95
Q

4month to 5 year pneumonia pathogens

A
  • RSV, parainfluenza, influenza, adenoirus, measles, HIV

- pneumococcus, H. influenza, S. aureus, B. pertusses

96
Q

pneumonia pathogens in older children/adolescents

A
  • mycoplasma
  • chlamyida
  • influenza
  • measles
  • pneumococcus
  • S. aureus
97
Q

where is pneumonia usually located in babies?

A

upper lobes

98
Q

where is pneumonia usually locatd in older children?

A

lower lobes

99
Q

What should you think when you see tea-colored urine?

A

glomerulonephritis

100
Q

Berger’s disease

A

IgA nephropathy that presents 1-2 days after febrile URI

101
Q

progressive HTN, deafness, renal failure

A

Alport’s syndrome

Pediatrics (16 decks)

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