Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

what is assessed in pediatric malnutrition

A

food/nutrient intake, energy/protein needs, growth parameters, weight gain velocity, mid upper arm circumference, hand grip strength

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2
Q

when using z scores you can meet _____ number of criteria for malnutrition in pediatrics

A

1

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3
Q

categories of pediatric malnutrition using z scores

A

weight/height, BMI, length for height/age, MUAC

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4
Q

Mild Malnutrition Criteria (peds) Z scores

A
  • 1 to -1.9 height/weight
  • 1 to -1.9 BMI
  • 1 to -1.9 MUAC
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5
Q

Moderate Malnutrition Criteria (PEDS) z scores

A
  • 2 to -2.9 height/weight
  • 2 to -2.9 BMI
  • 2 to -2.9 MUAC
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6
Q

Severe Malnutrition Criteria (PEDS) z scores

A
  • 3 or less height /weight
  • 3 or less BMI
  • 3 or less length/ht and length/age
  • 3 or less MUAC
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7
Q

Mild Malnutrition Criteria PEDS (2+ needed)

A

weight gain velocity <75% of normal
5% loss of UBW
decline in 1 standard deviation of weight for length/weight for height z score
51%-75% EEN/EPN

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8
Q

Moderate Malnutrition Criteria PEDS (2+ needed)

A

weight gain velocity <50% of normal
7.5% loss of UBW
decline in 2 std deviations for weight for length/weight for height z score
26-50% EEN/EPN

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9
Q

Severe Malnutrition Criteria PEDS (2+ needed)

A

weight gain velocity <25% of normal
10% loss of UBW or greater
at least 3 standard deviations below wt/lenght and wt/ht z score
<25% EEN/EPN

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10
Q

phenotypic malnutrition criteria (weight) in GLIM

A

> 5% in = 6 months

>10% in > 6 months

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11
Q

phenotypic malnutrition criteria (BMI) in GLIM

A

<20 if >70 years old
<22 if 77 years old
<18.5 Asians <70 years old
<20 Asians >70 years old

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12
Q

phenotypic malnutrition criteria (Muscle mass)

A

decreased muscle mass

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13
Q

etiologic GLIM criteria

A

50% < food intake >1 week
any reduction > 2 weeks for any chronic GI absorption that impacts food assimilation
acute/chronic disease related inflammation

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14
Q

well defined, easy to palpate, slightly seen clavicle in females, curved shoulders, scapular bones not prominent describes ______ upper body muscle

A

normal

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15
Q

muscles around the knee visible but well rounded, patella not prominent, gastrocnemius is developed and rounded describes ____ lower body muscle

A

normal

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16
Q

temporalis muscle slightly depressed, decreased pectoralis major muscle moderately visible, clavicle present in females and males, shoulder blade/acromion process is more visible with a hollow trapezius, there is somewhat prominent scapular bones describes ______ upper body muscle

A

mild/moderate depletion

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17
Q

patella slightly prominent but rounded, inner thigh with concave gap when pressed together, gastrocnemius is less developed describes____ lower body muscle

A

mild/moderate depletion

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18
Q

depressed/hollow temporalis muscle, prominent facial bones, sharply protruded clavicle, minimal prese pectoralis muscle, scapula/ acromion process are sharply angular and there is deep concave interosseous muscle describes ___ upper body muscle

A

severe depletion

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19
Q

patella is sharply prominent, there is concaved shape between thighs with a large gam and the quadriceps lack definition indicates _____ lower body muscle

A

severe depletion

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20
Q

fat pads protrude slightly or are flat indicate, the skinfold underneath the triceps with ample fat tissue, iliac crest doesn’t protrude and ribs are visible indicates ____ fat assessment

A

normal fat assessment

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21
Q

faint, dark circles with a moderately concave eye area, skin fold pinch with some fat tissue but less space between the fingers, iliac crest visible and ribs are visible but without marked depressions between them indicates _____fat assessment

A

mild to moderate fat depletion

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22
Q

visible, dark circles, extremely concave eye socket, skin is loose, skin fold pinch yields fingers touching, little to no fat tissue present, iliac crest is protruding, ribs are protruding with sharp depressions in-between them indicate ___ fat assessment

A

severe fat depletion

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23
Q

the incidence of aspiration is directly caused by EN is _______ to be determined due to the lack of clinical research. There is no standard definition of aspiration

A

difficult

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24
Q

Critically ill children have decreased strength and coordination of pharyngeal muscles and a weak cough reflex making ___ more likely

A

aspiration

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25
Q

what is considered appropriate use of powdered infant formula in healthcare facilities?

A

only use when alternative, sterile liquid products are not available or when clinically necessary

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26
Q

powdered formulas are or are not sterile

A

are NOT!

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27
Q

use extra caution when providing powdered formulas to ______ children as they have a higher risk of bacterial contamination

A

immunocompromised chidren

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28
Q

in the hospital, what is the hang time for expressed human milk when used for continuous feedings?

A

4 hours

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29
Q

human milk is _____ sterile due to normal skin flora that is present. Never re use ___, ___ or _____ to reduce the chance of contamination

A

never sterile

bags, syringes, or tubing

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30
Q

A 1 month old has acute onset of diarrhea for 48 hours. The parents noticed that he hasn’t been wetting as many diapers and mucous membranes are slightly dry. It is anterior fontanel is soft and not sunken. He normally ingests milk based formula ad lib. What is the most appropriate intervention?

A

oral rehydration therapy. the infant is likely dehydrated from diarrhea/viral gastroenteritis and then return to age appropriate diet as tolerated and continue with milk

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31
Q

sunken eyes, sunken fontanel, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes and decreased numbers of wet diapers indicates

A

dehydration

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32
Q

what osmolarity is considered to be an upper limit for the osmolarity of infant formulas to avoid tolerance issues

A

460mOsm/kg

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33
Q

Osmolality of standard infant formulas has a caloric density of ______ kcal/oz with and osmolarity of _______ to ____ mOsm/kg

A

20 kcal/oz

200-380mOsm/kg

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34
Q

which infant formulas have the highest osmolarity

A

protein hydrolysate and free amino acid infant formulas

35
Q

the osmolarity of a 30kcal/oz infant formula is

A

450 mOsm/kg

36
Q

what distinguishes gastroesophageal reflux (GER) from gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) in infants?

A

GERD is characterized by significant complications including weight loss, failure to thrive, feeding difficulties, and back arching

37
Q

GER commonly resolves spontaneously and without _____

A

significant complications

38
Q

regurgitation is very common in infants and typically resolves between 7-12 months of age as the esophageal sphincter matures. Common causes of regurgitation are

A

rapid administration of EN or formula
delayed gastric emptying
Feeding tube migration

39
Q

what is the max GIR for a term infant getting PN

A

14-18 mg/kg/min

40
Q

a high eGFR in children can cause

A

fat production, hepatic steatosis, PNALD, hyperglycemia, hypertriglyceridemia

41
Q

in an infant getting PN what is the minimum amount of soybean oil based ILE needed to prevent EFAD ?

A

0.5-1g/kg/day

42
Q

fatty acids are important in infants/children because of their role in

A

brain development

43
Q

standardized neonatal parenteral amino acid solutions differ from standard adult PN amino acids by having a higher content of

A

tyrosine and taurine

44
Q

what 2 amino acids are considered essential in neonates due to enzyme immaturity

A

tyrosine and taurine

45
Q

what 3 amino acids are given in lower amounts than adults

A

phenylalanine, methionine, glycine

46
Q

_______ amino acid is not part of a standard infant PN amino acid solutions but can be added separately to lower the pH to optimize calcium and phosphorous solubility

A

cysteine

47
Q

the amino acid cysteine is not part of standard pediatric amino acid solutions in PN but can be added for what benefit

A

optimizes calcium and phosphorous solubility by lowering the pH

48
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of selenium for term infants receiving PN

A

2 mcg/kg/day

49
Q

what are the functions of selenium

A

immune function, antioxidant function, thyroid hormone activity and regulation

50
Q

selenium must be added ____ to PN in neonates

A

separately

51
Q

immediately following neonatal cardiac surgery, which of the following is the best estimate of parenteral caloric requirements

A

55-60 kcal/kg/day (lower than 89)

52
Q

what therapies most appropriate in the nutritional management of an infant with chronic lung disease

A

high calorie, fluid restriction using concentrated formulas

53
Q

why are calorie needs increased in infants with chronic lung disease

A

due to increased work of breathing, emesis and chronic infections

54
Q

_____ is necessary in infants with chronic lung disease to decrease fluid build up around the heart and lungs

A

fluid restriction

55
Q

Pancreatic enzymes that are supplemented in high doses in children with cystic fibrosis could result in

A

fibrosing colonopathy

56
Q

pancreatic enzymes are used are used in children with cystic fibrosis in order

A

to decrease steatorrhea, increased nutrient absorption

57
Q

what is the maximum number of units of lipase/kg/day to avoid fibrosing colonopathy

A

<10,000 units/kg/day

58
Q

Use of Lactobacillus rhamnosus GG (LGG) in pediatric practice has been found to be most effective in treating

A

infectious diarrhea/gastroenteritis

59
Q

An infant has a complete ileal resection with preservation of the ileocecal valve. What would be the primary nutritional concern?

A

vitamin B 12 deficiency w/ bile acid deficiency

60
Q

preterm infant formula or fortified human milk is used for premature infants becuase

A

after the 1st month, unfortified human milk may have inadequate protein amounts

61
Q

preterm formulas contain ___ to __% of carbohydrate calories from lactose and medium chain triglycerides to aid with absorption

A

40-50%

62
Q

premature infant formulas are higher in what macronutrient

A

protein

63
Q

Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NECT) etiology is unclear. but ____ has been found not to increase the risk

A

early minimum enteral feeding does not increase the risk of NEC

64
Q

what is the benefit of starting minimum enteral feedings on infants

A
shortens the time to get to full feeds
faster weight gain
improved feeing tolerance
decreased hospital length of stay
decreased incidence of infection for LBW/VLBW
65
Q

in premature infants, when medically possible starting ))) can begin on the day of birth

A

minimum enteral feedings

66
Q

exclusive EN has been shown to be effective in inducing remission of Chron’s disease in the pediatrics population. What EN formula is recommended as the first line treatment

A

polymeric formula

67
Q

biliary atresia in infants is most frequently associated with

A

fat malabsorption

68
Q

atrophy of the bile ducts causing obstruction of bile flow from the liver to the biliary system & small intestine is called

A

biliary atresia

69
Q

biliary atresia will result in

A

a significant decrease in bile acids required for fat absorption, causing fat and fat soluble vitamin malabsorption . Essential fatty acid deficiency will not occur as long as LCTs are supplemented

70
Q

what is a characteristic of cachexia in pediatric oncology patients

A

progressive lean tissue & body fat

71
Q

what method of estimating energy requirements in critically ill children is LEAST accurate when compared to resting energy expenditure measurement by indirect calorimetry

A

RDA (recommended dietary allowance)

72
Q

In the pediatric ICU, predictive equations are ___ consistent with measured energy expenditure leading to over or underfeeding

A

NOT

73
Q

what is the gold standard for estimated energy needs in the pediatric ICU

A

Indirect Calorimetry

74
Q

Nutrition therapy for pediatric patients with <20% total body surface area burn typically includes

A

oral intake of high calorie, high protein diet

75
Q

In Chron’s disease ___ is thought to positively alter the gut microbiome and ______ is recommended unless there are symptoms of malabsorption of GI dysfunction

A

EN

polymeric

76
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of celiac disease

A

failure to thrive, constipation, anemia, diarrhea, abd pain/distention, vomiting, short stature, weight loss, inadequate weight gain, dermatitis, decreased bone mineral density, fatigue, delayed puberty

77
Q

a 2 month old infant who has been exclusively fed with cow’s milk based formula develops a full body rash, what would be the next step

A

switch to a protein hydrolysate based formula

78
Q

what are signs/symptoms of a cow’s milk allergy

A
blood in stool
diarrhea
skin rash
eczema
wheezing
79
Q

The biochemical defect in Phenylketonuria (PKU) prevents the hydroxyl of phenylalanine to tyrosine which causes a build up of phenylalanine in the blood and a subsequent deficiency of tyrosine

A

provide a phenylalanine restricted, tyrosine supplemented diet

80
Q

what are the metabolic alterations noted during the ebb response following a burn injury to a pedi patient

A
decreased resting energy expenditure
hyperglycemia
low insulin
low oxygen consumption
decreased blood pressure, cardiac output and decreased body temperature
81
Q

after the EBB phase of a burn, comes the flow phase which exhibit these metabolic alterations

A

increased catecholamines, increased insulin, increased glucagon/corticosteroids with hyperglycemia, catabolism, increased body temp, increased losses of nitrogen, magnesium, phos and potassium and accelerated gluconeogenesis

82
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria of infantile anorexia

A

refusal to eat adequate amounts of food for 1 month or greater and or growth deficiency

83
Q

what nutrition support therapy is essential to intestinal adaptation following significant bowel resection

A

Enteral nutrition (human milk preferred)