Enteral Nutrition Safety Flashcards

1
Q

the agency that regulates medical foods

A

the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when should blue dye/blue food coloring be used in enteral tubes

A

NEVER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is not a nursing responsibility for monitoring jejunal tube feeding

A

measurement of residuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how can clogging of a feeding tube be prevented when checking residuals

A

flush the tube with 20-30 mL of water before checking a GRV to prevent clogging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which patients are at risk for formula related contamination

A

neonates, critically ill, immunosuppressed, compromised gastric acid microbial barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 3 chances of contamination in EN formulas

A

storage
preparation
administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which type of Enteral Feeding has the lowest chances of contamination

A

sterile/closed system feedings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which type of EN formula has the highest risk of contamination

A

mixing, dilution, reconstitution (powder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hang time for open systems

A

4-12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hang time for reconstituted formulas

A

4 hours, room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

powdered enteral formulas are ____ sterilized

A

NOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

___ water should be used to reconstitute powdered formula

A

sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

closed enteral systems can hang for ____ hours

A

24-48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

formulas should be used ____ after opening which reconstitution with ____ water

A

immediately, sterile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what should be referenced for recommended room temperature and hang time of specific formulas

A

manufacturer recommendations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

should a blender be used to mix powders

A

no, high risk of contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

clean the lids of enteral feeding products with ____ and dry

A

isopropyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how often should feeding bags be changed

A

every 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

when material from the lungs, stomach, and throat back up into the feeding tube, where they can proliferate and be re-infused in greater numbers is considered _____ contamination

A

retrograde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

most gravity drips have a ____ that decreases the risk of retrograde contamination

A

drip chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

checking ____ can also lead to contamination of enteral feeding by pulling back gastric contents and infecting the tube feed hub

A

gastric residuals

22
Q

what is one example of prevention policy for enteral feeding to reduce chance of contamination

A

enteral quality control programs/institutional protocols

23
Q

what is another example of prevention of EN contamination

A

define the process for receiving, distributing, storing, preparing, handling and administering EN

24
Q

To ensure safety during EN feedings, visually inspect each TF bottle for ___ and ___

A

damage

expiration date

25
Q

use proper _____ before feeding administration, and formula handling

A

hand washing/clean gloves

26
Q

flip top enteral feeding cans should be wiped with _______

A

isopropyl alcohol

27
Q

visually inspect EN formulas for

A

separation, thickening, clumping or curdling

28
Q

inhalation of material into the airway is known as

A

aspiration

29
Q

aspiration PNA can be caused when _____are in the wrong place or inhaled ____ contents

A

feeding tubes , gastric contents

30
Q

asymptomatic aspiration of saliva is called

A

silent aspiration

31
Q

dyspnea, wheezing, frothy/purulent sputum, cyanosis, anxiety, fever, tachycardia, rhonchi/rales, leukocytosis, leukopenia or a new / progressing infiltrate are symptoms of

A

aspiration pneumonia

32
Q

when aspiration occurs from a ventilator it is known as

A

ventilator associated PNA

33
Q

_____ is one of the most feared complications of EN and can lead to acute pulmonary pathology

A

aspiration PNA

34
Q

patients with dysphagia may aspirate saliva regardless of enteral feedings, true or false

A

true

35
Q

what are the steps to reduce aspiration risk during enteral feeding

A
  1. elevated HOB 30-45 degrees
  2. sit patient upright or reverse Trendelenburg position
  3. good oral care BID with chlorhexidine
  4. continuous tube feeding,
  5. minimal sedation, suction prior to lying down,
36
Q

to decrease risk of aspiration check GRV’s every ___ hours if they are part of your hospital protocol. Start _____ in setting of elevated GRV’s in the critically ill and use ___ trees for actions depending on the GRV

A

4 hours
pro-kinetic
decision

37
Q

per ASPEN, GRV’s should ____ be used routinely to monitor ICU patients with enteral nutrition

A

NOT

38
Q

if your ICU still uses GRVs, avoid holding EN for GRVs < ____mL in the absence of other signs of feeding intolerance

A

500mL

39
Q

what methods should be used to check TF placement to decrease the risk of aspiration PNA and tube feeding

A
  1. check visible tube length

2. routinely check CXR especially if migration is suspected

40
Q

to avoid hypertonic dehydration in EN what should be monitored

A
daily fluid
I/O
daily body weight
serum electrolytes
urine specific gravity
BUN/Cr raio
enteral/IV fluid provision
41
Q

excessive fluid intake, rapid feeding, catabolism of LBM tissue with potassium loss, cardiac insufficiencyy/renal/hepatic insufficiency/refeeding syndrome are all causes of

A

overhydration

42
Q

if a patient is experiencing overhydration during enteral feeding , what can be done/monitored

A

I/O
body weight/fluid status
check aldosterone (increases Na retention)
diuretic therapy

43
Q

refeeding syndrome, catabolic stress, high ADH/aldosterone, diuretics, diarrhea/NGT loss, metabolic alkalosis, insulin and dilution can all cause _____

A

hypokalemia

44
Q

if hypercapnia from overfeeding is suspected during enteral feeding what can be done

A
  1. lower phosphorous
  2. measure EEN with IC
    provide balance of CHO, fat and protein
45
Q

if a patient on EN develops low levels of serum zinc what can be done

A

supplement zinc in EN

46
Q

per ASPEN when EN is being provided in a patient suspected to be at risk for refeeding syndrome provide ____% of energy goal on Day 1 with attention to energy contribution from ____then cautiously advance toward energy goal within ____ to ___ days pending clinical status/electrolyte levels.

A

25% on day 1
dextrose from IV
3-5 days

47
Q

hyperglycemia is more common in EN Or PN

A

PN

48
Q

when a patient on Enteral Nutrition experiences hyperglycemia what can be done

A
  1. use EN formula high in fat/fiber
  2. manage with insulin
  3. advance TF slowly toward goal
49
Q

a BUN/Cr ration over > can indicate dehydration

A

20:1

50
Q

a patient with renal failure/malnutrition with a BUN of 100 and Cr of 1 with a ratio of 100:1 may still be _____

A

adequately hydrated

51
Q

typical urine output range

A

0.5-2 mL/kg/hour

52
Q

1 liter of fluid = ___ kg of weight

A

1