Pediatric and Adolescent Gynecology Flashcards

1
Q

A 7-year-old premenarchal female presents with left lower quadrant pain. On ultrasound, she is found to have a 7-cm complex cyst arising from her left ovary. What is the appropriate management for this cyst?

A. Close observation, with ultrasound every 6 months

B. Fenestration

C. Surgical excision of the cyst, leaving the left ovary in situ

D. Ten days of antibiotics

E. Reassurance since this is a normal finding

A

ANSWER: C

COMMENTS: The clinical presentations of ovarian masses are highly variable. Symptoms may include acute pain often due to torsion, intermittent pain, an abdominal mass, or “acute appendici- tis.” It is important to assess the menstrual status and sexual history.

Initial evaluation generally includes ultrasound, which may show a simple cyst, a complex cyst, a solid mass, and blood flow to the ovary.

Lab tests for tumor markers such as CA-125, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), hCG, and inhibin should be performed.

The most common benign lesions are unilateral follicular cysts (50%).

The most simple cysts are likely to regress. However, if they are larger than 5 cm in diameter, the risk of torsion is much higher, and cyst resection should be considered.

Complex cysts could represent cysts that have already torsed or an ovarian neoplasm. Complex cysts should be resected in all premenarchal females.

Excision of the cyst with preservation of the ovary should be performed when- ever possible.

Fenestration would be inappropriate in this scenario. There is an increased incidence of neoplasms in complex cysts, so fenestration could seed the intraabdominal cavity.

In an adolescent, a complex cyst could be the result of hemorrhage into a functional cyst. Therefore surgical excision is not necessary at the time of diagnosis of an isolated complex cyst.

Careful clinical and ultrasound follow-up for symptom resolution as well as involution of the cyst should be performed. If the cyst persists, it should be resected.

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2
Q

What is the incidence of adnexal torsion in the pediatric population?

A

Adnexal torsion accounts for 2.7% of cases of children with acute abdominal pain.

Within children ages 1 to 20 years, the incidence of adnexal torsion has been estimated at 4.9:100,000.

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3
Q

What are the typical clinical findings in a child with ovarian torsion?

A

Sudden onset of severe unilateral pain in the lower abdomen or pelvic area. Pain is commonly associated with nausea and/or vomiting. If the torsion remains untreated, the child may develop leukocytosis and a low-grade fever [1].

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4
Q

What ultrasound findings suggest ovarian torsion?

A

The hallmarks of ovarian torsion on Doppler ultrasound are ovarian enlargement and absent Doppler arterial flow [3, 4]. However, as venous flow is affected first, the presence of arterial flow does not exclude torsion [5].

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5
Q

What is the recommended treatment of ovarian torsion?

A

Ovarian torsion is a surgical emergency. Laparoscopic detorsion with ovarian tis- sue conservation is favored over oophorectomy to preserve ovarian function even if the ovary appears necrotic (blue-black) [1]. The risk of malignancy is low (0.4 to 5%) and oophorectomy should only be performed if there is clear evidence of malignancy [2, 6]. More than half of torsions in post-pubertal patients occur in the setting of an adnexal mass. Concurrent cystectomy can be performed in these patients to decrease the need for repeated surgery [1].

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6
Q

Should oophoropexy be routinely performed?

A

Routine oophoropexy is controversial. The risk of recurrence of ovarian torsion is 2 to 12%, with higher risk in cases of spontaneously torsed normal ovaries [7]. Oophoropexy does not eliminate the risk of recurrence of ovarian torsion with a reported rate of approximately 9% after ovarian fixation [8]. Oophoropexy can be offered in the setting of repeated ipsilateral torsion, absent contralateral ovary, elongated ovarian ligament and torsion of a normal ovary [1]. Laparoscopic oophoropexy can be performed by shortening the ovarian ligament with permanent suture or fixing the ovary to the round ligament, uterosacral ligament or the poste- rior uterus [9].

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7
Q

What is the incidence of fetal ovarian cysts?

A

Ovarian cysts occur in approximately 1 in 2500 fetuses and are the most common abdominal anomalies diagnosed in female fetuses [10]. They are categorized by their sonographic appearance as simple cysts (thin-walled, round, anechoic, uni- locular cysts measuring>2cm) or complex cysts (thick-walled, heterogeneous, containing hyperechoic components) [11].

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8
Q

What are the risks associated with fetal ovarian cysts?

A

Fetal ovarian cysts may develop intracystic hemorrhage, rupture and ovarian torsion [11].

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9
Q

What is the management of a fetal ovarian cyst greater than 5 cm?

A

Consideration should be given to antenatal percutaneous aspiration to decrease the risk of ovarian torsion. In utero aspiration of anechoic ovarian cysts has been shown to increase the incidence of in utero cyst involution and to decrease the rate of oophorectomy [12].

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10
Q

What ultrasound findings of ovarian cysts in children and adolescents are concerning for malignancy?

A

Ovarian mass size >8 cm with complexity [13].

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11
Q

What is the most common ovarian tumor in children?

A

The most common ovarian tumor in children, a mature cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst), is also the most common germ cell tumor in children. Germ cell tumors are the most common ovarian tumors in children and adolescents [13]. The majority of ovarian tumors in children and adolescents are benign. Only from 4% to 11% of adnexal masses are malignant [14].

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12
Q

What is the prevalence of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Ectopic pregnancy has been reported in upwards of 18% of women presenting to an emergency department for first trimester vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both [15]. Ectopic pregnancy occurs in 1.5 to 2% of all pregnancies and ruptured ectopic pregnancy accounts for 6% of maternal deaths [16].

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13
Q

What risk factors increases an adolescent’s risk of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Previous ectopic pregnancy, prior history of pelvic inflammatory disease, early initiation of oral contraceptives (at age < 16 years), use of intrauterine device for contraception, smoking (current or previous use), consumption of > 10 Grams per day of alcohol, previous tubal surgery, in utero exposure to DES (diethylstilbes- trol), history of infertility, use of assisted reproductive technology.

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14
Q

How is ectopic pregnancy diagnosed?

A

By confirming pregnancy (with serum hCG level) and transvaginal ultrasound. Sonographic visualization of a gestational sac with a yolk sac, an embryo, or both in the adnexa definitively diagnoses an ectopic pregnancy.

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15
Q

Where are ectopic pregnancies most frequently located?

A

More than 95% of ectopic pregnancies are located in the fallopian tube. The remaining are interstitial (2 to 4%), ovarian (<1%), cervical (<1%), abdominal (<1%), and along a previous cesarean section uterine scar (<1%). Of ectopic preg- nancies that occur in the fallopian tube, 70 to 80% occur in the ampulla, 12% are isthmic and 5% are located on the fimbria.

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16
Q

What are the contraindications to treating ectopic pregnancy with methotrexate and when is surgery indicated?

A

Surgery is indicated if the patient is hemodynamically unstable, has signs of intra- peritoneal bleeding or symptoms of ongoing ruptured ectopic pregnancy such as pelvic pain. In addition the following absolute contraindications to the use of
methotrexate require the surgical treatment of ectopic pregnancy: evidence of immunodeficiency; moderate to severe anemia, leukopenia or thrombocytopenia; sensitivity to methotrexate; active pulmonary or peptic ulcer disease; clinically important hepatic dysfunction or renal dysfunction; breastfeeding; inability to par- ticipate in follow up.

Surgical management can also be considered in the setting of the following relative contraindications to methotrexate therapy: embryonic cardiac activity detected by transvaginal ultrasonography; high initial hCG concentra- tion (>5000 mIU/mL); ectopic pregnancy >4 cm in size as imaged by transvaginal ultrasonography; refusal to accept blood transfusion.

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17
Q

What are possible etiologies of hydrometrocolpos?

A

Hydrometrocolpos may result from imperforate hymen, transverse vaginal septum, vaginal atresia in the setting of a functional uterus, OHVIRA (obstructed hemiva- gina with ipsilateral renal anomaly) or cloacal anomaly.

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18
Q

What are the typical presenting symptoms of hydrometrocolpos?

A

Progressively worsening, episodic lower abdominal cramping and pelvic pain after onset of puberty. Less common symptoms include back pain, urinary retention, urinary incontinence and constipation. A partial or microperfo- rate transverse vaginal septum allows for some egress of menstrual blood. The patient usually reports dysmenorrhea. In the case of OHVIRA, regular periods from the unobstructed hemivagina are associated with progressively worsening dysmenorrhea.

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19
Q

What complications can occur as a result of hydrometrocolpos?

A

The distended vagina can cause mass effect on other pelvic structures leading to
hydronephrosis and urinary retention.

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20
Q

How is an imperforate hymen diagnosed?

A

On physical examination, an abdominal/pelvic mass may be palpable and the hymen bulges and may appear bluish. Ultrasound imaging shows a cystic structure in the lower abdomen and pelvis (representing the distended vagina) with the uterus at the cranial end of the structure. An MRI is typically not necessary for diagnosis.

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21
Q

How is imperforate hymen treated?

A

Surgically with cruciate of annular hymenal incisions. The evacuation of blood from the vagina leads to the resolution of symptoms. Less commonly, imperforate hymen may be diagnosed in infancy. In infants, surgical intervention is reserved for symptomatic patients (as with hydronephrosis) due to the risk of reclosure and infection.

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22
Q

How is a transverse vaginal septum diagnosed?

A

In contrast to an imperforate hymen, examination reveals no bulging noted at the introitus and the external genitalia is normal in appearance. The vagina appears to end in a blind pouch with no visualization of the cervix. As with imperforate hymen, pelvic ultrasound shows a cystic pelvic mass with a uterus at the cranial end. Ultrasound or MRI may help delineate the thickness and location of the vag- inal septum. Approximately 46% of transverse vaginal septa occur in the upper vagina, 40% in the mid vagina and 14% in the lower vagina.

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23
Q

How is a transverse vaginal septum treated?

A

The septum is surgically resected and the upper and lower vagina are anastomosed in an end-to end fashion. An indwelling stent or vaginal mold is typically left in place in the immediate postoperative period. Thereafter, the use of vaginal dilators are recommended to prevent stricture.

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24
Q

How is vaginal atresia diagnosed?

A

Physical examination of the external genitalia reveals lack of a vaginal orifice or a vaginal dimple. On rectal examination, the distended upper vagina may be palpa- ble.

Transperineal ultrasound or MRI are useful to assess the distance between the hymenal tissue and the proximal aspect of the obstructed vagina.

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25
Q

How is vaginal atresia treated?

A

Pull-through vaginosplasty with a perineal flap is performed to anastomose the distal aspect of the obstructed upper vagina to the perineum. For high atresias, additional graft using bowel, skin, or buccal mucosa may be needed.

26
Q

How is OHVIRA (obstructed hemivagina with ipsilateral renal anomaly) diagnosed?

A

Digital vaginal examination reveals a mass felt to bulge from the lateral wall of the vagina to the midline. In addition to hematometrocolpos, ultrasound may reveal a uterine didelphys with ipsilateral renal agenesis (Herlyn-Werner-Wunderlich syndrome).

27
Q

How is OHVIRA treated?

A

The longitudinal vaginal septum is resected to relieve the obstruction and create a
single vaginal vault. Postoperative vaginal dilation is not typically indicated.

28
Q

What are conditions associated with uterine and vaginal agenesis?

A

Uterine and vaginal agenesis is typically one symptom of broader condi- tions involving abnormalities of the reproductive system such as MRKH (Meyer-Rokintanski-Kuster-Hauser) syndrome and AIS (Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome).

29
Q

What other anomalies are associated with uterine and vaginal agenesis?

A

Up to 50% of mullerian anomalies are associated with renal anomalies including renal agenesis, malrotation or ectopic kidney. Fewer have cervical somite anomalies (MURCS, mullerian duct aplasia, renal dysplasia and cervical somite anomalies.

30
Q

What are the typical presenting symptoms of MRKH and AIS?

A

Primary amenorrhea after normal development of secondary sexual characteris- tics. The external genitalia in both MRKH and AIS appears phenotypically normal female. The vagina may appear as a dimple or short and blind-ending without a palpable cervix.

31
Q

What are the differences between MRKH and AIS?

A

Women with AIS have decreased or absent axillary and pubic hair and testoster- one levels in the normal male range. Karyotype analysis is 46 XX with MRKH and 46XY with AIS. There is an approximately 2% risk of gonadoblastoma of the intraabdominal testes in women with AIS. Prophylactic gonadectomy is typ- ically delayed until after puberty when the patient can participate in decision making and understands risks and benefits including use of hormone replace- ment therapy.

32
Q

What are methods of creating a vagina in the absence of a functional uterus?

A

Vaginal elongation with vaginal dilators is successful in 90% of patients. Surgical techniques vary and require the postoperative use of dilators or intercourse to maintain the neovagina. Various tissue including split-thickness skin grafts, per- itoneum, bowel, buccal mucosa and human amion have been used to create a vagina.

33
Q

What clinical symptoms are associated with PID?

A

90% of patients have lower abdominal pain. 55% have vaginal discharge. 45% have nausea. 20% have vomiting. 40% have back pain. Only 25% report fever.

34
Q

What are the 3 major sequelae of PID?

A

Chronic pelvic pain, ectopic pregnancy, infertility.

35
Q

Does negative testing for gonorrhea and chlamydia exclude the diagnosis of PID?

A

No. PID is generally polymicrobial in nature. Anaerobic and facultative bacteria with and without N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis have been isolated from the
upper genital tract in up to 70% of women with PID. In 30% of cases only anaero- bic and/or facultative bacteria such as bacterial vaginosis and Mycoplasma genita- lium have been isolated.

36
Q

Can PID be diagnosed in a child/adolescent who is not sexually active?

A

Yes. PID can occur in non-sexually active children and adolescents. Patients have been noted to have concurrent illnesses such as inflammatory bowel dis- ease. Microbial etiology differs from that of sexually active adolescents. Documented micro-organisms include Escherichia Coli, Alpha-Hemolytic Streptococci, Coagulase Negative Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Abiotrophia and Granulicatella.

37
Q

What is the role of surgical intervention in the diagnosis and treatment of PID?

A

When compared to laparoscopy, the diagnosis of PID based on clinical criteria has an accuracy of only 65 to 90%. Only 20% of patients with laparoscopically confirmed PID present with the classic symptoms of acute salpingitis includ- ing lower abdominal pain, vaginal/cervical discharge, fever, leukocytosis and increased ESR. Due to the risk of major sequelae, the CDC recommends initiat- ing empiric treatment for PID in patients at risk who have no identifiable cause for illness and cervical motion tenderness or uterine tenderness or adnexal ten- derness. Diagnostic laparoscopy is considered in patients who do not respond to antimicrobial therapy and in whom other diagnoses such as endometriosis or ovarian torsion are being considered. Laparoscopy is 100% specific for the diag- nosis of PID.
Up to 40% of patients with TOA do not respond to broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy within 48 to 72 hours as evidenced by persistent fever and leukocytosis and increasing size of the abscess. Surgical intervention includes percutaneous drainage with CT or ultrasound guidance or laparoscopy or laparotomy with inci- sion and drainage of the abscess. An effort is made to preserve fertility in children and adolescents with conservative surgical approaches that preserve the uterus, fal- lopian tubes and ovaries if possible.

38
Q

What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?

A

Perihepatic inflammation in the setting of PID leads to the formation of adhesions between the liver capsule and the anterior abdominal wall. The patient may report pleuritic right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome has been reported in approximately 14% of patients with PID but may be less common in adolescents.

39
Q

Does an IUD need to be removed when a patient is diagnosed with PID?

A

The IUD does not need to be removed prior to initiation is antimicrobial therapy except for patients with actinomyces and PID. IUD removal should be considered for patients who fail to respond to antimicrobial therapy.

40
Q

Which of the following is true regarding labial adhesions?

A The incidence of labial adhesions is 2%–7%.

B Labial adhesions are an indication of previous sexual abuse.

C Labial adhesions occur as frequently in postpubertal girls as in prepubertal girls.

D Labial adhesions occur congenitally.

E The peak incidence of labial adhesions is at 5–6 years of age.

A

A

Labial adhesions (also known as labial agglutination) occur in prepubertal girls with a peak incidence at 13–23 months of age, but can occur as early as 3 months and up to 6 years of age.

The overall incidence of labial adhesions in prepubertal girls is 1.8%–7% but may be higher in select populations.

The pathophysiology of labial adhesions may involve poorly regulated wound-healing, with re-epithelialisation resulting in an avascular adhesion, essentially cross healing areas of denuded epithelium and fusing the labia minora which are naturally in close apposition.

labial adhesions are associated with any condition that traumatises, irritates or inflames the unoestrogenised prepubertal labia; for example, vulvovaginitis, dermatological conditions, local irritants and recurrent diarrhoea.

labial agglutination is a non-specific vulvovaginal condition and therefore is not a definite indicator of sexual abuse. labial adhesions that occur after puberty are much less common; they are usually a result of trauma or a surgical procedure to the labia and are hence of a different pathophysiology.

SPSE 1

41
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of labial adhesions?

A Manual separation of labial adhesions has a lower recurrence rate than topical oestrogen therapy.

B Treatment is uniformly applied to all children presenting with labial adhesions.

C Children presenting at older ages are more likely to fail topical oestrogen therapy

D Topical oestrogen therapy is successful in 10%–20% of children.

E Topical oestrogen therapy is poorly tolerated with a high incidence of side effects.

A

C

Treatment of labial adhesions is generally reserved for patients who are symptomatic, i.e. with urinary tract infections, altered voiding such as urinary dribbling or incontinence, or almost complete occlusion.

It is not clear if treatment of labial adhesions prevents the development of asymptomatic bacteruria and subsequent development of urinary tract infections.

When adhesions involve almost the entire labia, treatment is often offered to avoid the development of symptoms.

occasionally treatment will be initiated to allay parental concerns and allow demonstration of normal genital anatomy.

Adhesions may resolve spontaneously with correction of vulvar hygiene, and application of a bland emollient to act as a barrier cream.

Treatment of persistent or symptomatic adhesions includes either parental application of topical oestrogen cream daily or twice daily over 2–6 weeks or surgical separation of the adhesions under anaesthesia.

Resolution rates with medical therapy range from 47% to 91%.

Topical oestrogen therapy is well tolerated with minimal local side effects of vulvar irritation and/or pigmentation or with systemic absorption.

Breast budding occurs in 5% of patients.

Both medical and surgical therapy have high rates of recurrence: 19%–33% for medical therapy and 17%–40% after manual separation.

Post-separation use of topical oestrogen may decrease recurrence rates.

Risk factors for failure of medical therapy are related to thicker and longer duration of adhesions (age greater than 6, thickness >3–4 mm) or associated with persistent irritating factors.

SPSE 1

42
Q

A 4-year-old presents with a history of recurrent brown vaginal discharge, associated with odour. It has recurred despite multiple courses of oral antibiotic therapy with amoxicillin. What is the next most appropriate step?

A Consult child protective services.

B Perform a vulvar biopsy.

C Flush or irrigate the vagina.

D Prescribe an antifungal cream.

E Prescribe a course of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.

A

C

Foreign bodies often are diagnosed after a prolonged period (up to a year or more) of persistent or recurrent vaginal discharge.

The discharge is typically either brown or bloody.

Eighty per cent of vaginal foreign bodies are small pieces of toilet paper.

Toilet paper can be flushed from the vagina successfully in cooperative patients. older children (mean age of 7 years) tend to be more compliant with office vaginal irrigation performed with a paediatric catheter or feeding tube and a syringe.

Foreign bodies should be suspected: if discharge is refractory to implementation of appropriate hygiene measures and antibiotic therapy, if discharge is bloody or if there is a history of previous foreign body placement.

A foreign body will be recovered in up to 10% of girls taken for vaginoscopy under anaesthesia with symptoms suspicious for one.

The differential diagnosis of a patient with vaginal discharge includes nonspecific vulvitis, infectious vaginitis, lichen sclerosis, atopic dermatitis and other dermatoses.

Recurrent discharge that is specifically bloody suggests a foreign body.

Prepubertal girls with unoestrogenised genitalia rarely have yeast vaginitis, unless they have a predisposing factor such as immunocompromisation, diabetes or are still wearing nappies.

Non-specific vulvitis generally responds well to improved vulvar hygiene measures.

In regard to specific vaginal infections, shigella can cause an acute vaginitis associated with bloody vaginal discharge.

Shigella is more common in communities where infection is endemic.

Transmitted by the faecal–oral route it may also produce severe diarrhoea and fever associated with either a mesenteric adenitis or acute terminal ileitis.

Shigella is treated with sulfa antibiotics.

The most common causes of infectious vaginitis are the upper respiratory tract pathogens: streptococccus group A and Haemophilus influenzae; both usually present with an acute course, with profuse vaginal discharge and associated severe vulvar and vaginal erythema.

Chlamydia and gonorrhoea do produce vaginitis in prepubertal girls, and may present with vaginal discharge.

The prevalence of sexually transmitted infections in sexually abused children is low; chlamydia rectovaginal infection rates range from 4% to 17% of abused children.

If a sexually transmitted infection is suspected, culture remains the preferred method of documentation of infection to limit the risk of false positive tests in a low prevalence population.

Cultures should be obtained from any suspected site of penetration (oral, genital, rectal).

If a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) is performed, a positive result should be confirmed by a second different NAAT test.

SPSE 1

43
Q

The following image represents the findings in a 5-year-old girl who presents to the emergency department with a history of genital trauma. In taking a history, which of the following mechanisms of injury would not be consistent with the pattern of injuries seen?

A fall on an upturned chair leg

B fall straddling a cross bar on a bicycle

C penetrating water injury from a jet of water

D fall on a toy with a sharp narrow edge

E a motor vehicle accident with pelvic fracture

A

B

The most common mechanism of genital trauma is a straddle injury.

A straddle injury causes perineal trauma as a result of falling or striking an object or surface with the force of one’s body, crushing the soft tissue between the object and the bony margins of the pelvic outlet.

In a straddle or blunt injury the object is not capable of penetrating above the pelvic floor.

Straddle injuries are the most common mechanism of injury in the 5- to 9-year-old age group of girls.

Penetrating injuries can be accidental or intentional (i.e. related to sexual abuse). Penetrating injuries comprise only 3%–20% of accidental genital injuries.

The pattern of injuries seen with a straddle injury and a penetrating injury of the vagina vary.

Either type of injury can involve the posterior fourchette.

Straddle injuries tend to demonstrate ecchymosis, linear abrasions or lacerations and haematomas from extravasation of blood into the loose areolar tissues of the mons, clitoris and labia.

Hymenal and vaginal injuries are far more common with penetrating injuries, with hymenal involvement in 40%–80% of penetrating injuries.

In the image above, a laceration extending into and involving the hymen is evident.

Hence the mechanism of injury is likely penetrating.

The mechanism of genital injury taken on history from either a verbal child or their caretaker should be plausible, timely and most importantly consistent with the findings evident on physical examination.

As a fall straddling a crossbar of a bicycle would be of a straddle-injury type without a mechanism for penetration, and as the examination reveals a laceration of the hymen extending into the vaginal mucosa, the history and examination would be inconsistent.

A lack of correlation between the history and physical findings is an indication to consider a sexual abuse evaluation.

Each of the other options listed above could result in hymenal and vaginal lacerations.

SPSE 1

44
Q

Surgical management of genital trauma is more likely if:

A the child is less than 5 years old

B the patient presents within an hour of the injury

C the size of the laceration is equal to or more than 1 cm

D the size of the laceration is equal to or more than 2.5 cm

E the mechanism of injury is a straddle type.

A

D

Surgical management of genital trauma is required in 5%–37% of all cases.

The severity of injury varies with the mechanism of the injury and not the age of the patient.

more severe trauma occurs from motor vehicle injuries, followed by abuse or assault, with the least severe injuries being those from straddle mechanisms.

A review of the factors associated with surgical repair in a tertiary care centre demonstrated that surgical repair was significantly associated with injuries that were of a penetrating type and hence involved the hymen.

In addition, the mean size of lacerations that required surgical repair was 2.88 cm, compared with a mean size of 0.9 cm for those who were managed with secondary healing.

SPSE 1

45
Q

A 5-year-old is referred for assessment of vaginal bleeding with the following finding evident on examination – see Figure 67.2. Which statement is true regarding the treatment of this diagnosis?

A 90% of patients will require surgical management.

B Medical therapy includes topical testosterone twice daily.

C Prepubertal patients are more likely to fail medical therapy.

D Referral to child protective services is mandatory.

E If >15–30 mm in size, surgery is more likely.

A

E

urethral mucosal prolapse has an incidence of 1 : 2880 children; it is more common between the ages of 4 and 8 years, and it varies with ethnicity.

The presenting symptom is usually painless bleeding without interference of voiding patterns.

Described as an annular, congested or oedematous, anteriorly placed introital mass, it is the protrusion of the urethral mucosa beyond the urethral meatus.

once prolapsed, the muscular tone of the urethral meatus constricts the tissue circumferentially resulting in the oedema, congestion and in some circumstances necrosis of the mucosal tissue.

It is thought that several factors contribute to the prolapse.

First, there may be anatomical defects with poor adhesion of the urethral mucosa to the underlying smooth muscles of the urethra. often there is a precipitating event such as an increase in intra-abdominal pressure from conditions including constipation and straining for bowel movements, or an upper respiratory tract infection and accompanying cough or crying. This precipitating event, when occurring in a susceptible child with prepubertal/unoestrogenised tissue, results in prolapse of the tissue. While the physical findings are often confused for abuse, it is not related to sexual abuse.

medical therapy with topical oestrogen therapy and sitz baths with or without antibiotic treatment will resolve the prolapse in 33%–70% of cases.

Surgery, which involves excision of the prolapsed mucosa, is indicated when medical therapy fails, in patients with profuse bleeding, when the mucosa is necrosed, when the prolapse is particularly large (15–30 mm diameter), and in postpubertal patients.

In regard to patients presenting with vaginal bleeding, the differential diagnosis in a prepubertal girl includes vaginitis, foreign body (as discussed in detail for question (3), premature puberty or premature menarche, genital trauma or abuse (see questions 4 and 5), skin conditions such as lichen sclerosis with excoriations, urethral mucosal prolapse and vaginal/cervical rhabdomyosarcoma.

These diagnoses can be distinguished on history, physical exam and investigations.

SPSE 1

46
Q

A 7-year-old girl presents for consideration of surgical excision of anogenital warts. Which of the following would not be appropriate to recommend at the first consultation?

A human papilloma virus (HPV) typing to determine mode of transmission

B a trial of topical therapy with imiquimod

C a trial of topical therapy with 0.5% podophyllotoxin solution

D expectant management

E referral to child protective services for assessment of potential abuse

A

A

The mean age of presentation for anogenital warts (AGW) in children varies between 2.8 and 5.6 years.

The most common area of involvement is perianal with up to 70% of AGW occurring in that distribution; 23% involve the vulva.

The possible modes of transmission for HPV and AGW are: vertical transmission, sexual abuse and non-sexual contact (autoinoculation or heteroinoculation).

Studies have documented that HPV types are not predictive of the mode of transmission in children.

HPV types are evenly distributed between mucosal, cutaneous and mucocutaneous types in childhood AGW, demonstrating less site specificity than HPV in adults.

HPV typing of AGW is therefore not recommended.

The proportion of AGW attributed to sexual abuse varies from 3% to 50%. one study of children referred to paediatric surgery for surgical excision of AGW had 47% of their cases attributed to abuse after assessment by a multidisciplinary team.

The older the child, the greater the likelihood that abuse is the mechanism of transmission.

Compared with a child aged 0–4 years, a child presenting with AGW between 4 and 8 years of age has a 2.9-fold increased likelihood of abuse, and between 8 and 12 years of age this increases to a 12.1-fold increased risk.

The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends referral to child protective services for all children with AGW, while other opinions recommend referral if any investigation reveals concerns of abuse, or for children aged over 4–5 years.

Given that this child presented at 7 years of age, a referral to child protective services is appropriate on that criterion alone.

Prior to considering surgical excision, expectant and medical therapy should be considered.

Spontaneous resolution of AGW occurs in up to 75% of children with healthy immune systems within 3–5 years.

multiple treatment modalities may be necessary to effect resolution of AGW.

Decisions on the appropriate treatment option should take into account ability to comply with office vs. home treatment, the number of lesions, the cost, the location of lesions, the discomfort associated with treatment and the side effects of treatment.

Paediatric studies are available to support topical treatments with podophyllotoxin 0.5% solution/0.15% cream and imiquimod.

Regardless of the selected treatment, recurrence rates are similar (20%–30%).

SPSE 1

47
Q

Which is correct regarding the development of the müllerian ducts in utero?

A müllerian ducts develop at 9 weeks of gestational age.

B müllerian ducts reach the urogenital sinus at 9 weeks of gestational age.

C müllerian ducts fuse at 9 weeks of gestational age.

D müllerian ducts are of endodermal origin.

E müllerian ducts develop in the presence of müllerian inhibiting substance.

A

B

The müllerian ducts are of mesodermal origin.

They develop into the structures of the female genital tract (fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix and upper vagina).

The lower vagina is of endodermal origin arising from the urogenital sinus. (The ovaries are of a completely separate embryologic origin, migrating from the gonadal ridge.)

The elongating müllerian ducts, which develop at 6 weeks of gestational age, lie lateral to the wolffian ducts until they reach the caudal end of the mesonephros.

At this point their course shifts medially to reach the midline in the area of the cloaca.

At 9 weeks of gestational age, the müllerian ducts elongate caudally to reach the urogenital sinus, inserting at the müllerian tubercle.

The müllerian ducts fuse at 12 weeks of gestational age to form a single tube (which will form uterus, cervix and upper vagina).

Canalisation of the solid vaginal plate follows, a process that is complete by the fifth month of gestation.

The midline septum in the uterus, cervix and upper vagina is resorbed to create a single cavity by 20 weeks of gestational age.

The most distal aspect of the sinovaginal bulbs proliferates to form the hymen, which becomes perforate prior to birth. müllerian anomalies are a result of failure of one of the above processes of embryogenesis and can be summarised as a failure of organogenesis, vertical fusion, lateral fusion or resorption.

SPSE 1

48
Q

The most common age for presentation of a completely obstructing outflow tract anomaly of the female genital tract is:

A 10 years
B 12 years
C 15 years
D 17 years
E 20 years.

A

B

The usual triad of symptoms associated with a completely obstructing outflow tract (imperforate hymen, transverse vaginal septum, partial vaginal agenesis or cervical agenesis) is cyclical abdominal pain, amenorrhoea and a pelvic/ abdominal mass.

The time of presentation is at the onset of menarche. Symptoms hence usually present around age 12 (average age of menarche), or 2 years after the onset of thelarche (the usual interval between onset of thelarche and onset of menarche).

The diagnosis of outflow tract anomalies is often delayed by up to 12 months from onset of symptoms.

SPSE 1

49
Q

An adolescent presents with a complete genital outflow tract obstruction. Of the following müllerian anomalies, which diagnosis is most likely?

A cervical agenesis
B partial vaginal agenesis
C transverse vaginal septum
D uterine didelphys
E unicornuate uterus

A

C

Transverse vaginal septums, partial vaginal agenesis and cervical agenesis are all in the differential diagnosis of a completely obstructed outflow tract.

The most common of these is the transverse vaginal septum.

Transverse vaginal septums have an incidence of 1 : 21 000 to 1 : 70 000. Cervical agenesis occurs in 1 : 80 000.

While both uterine didelphys and unicornuate uteri are more common than a transverse septum, with incidences of 1 : 1828 and 1 : 5400, respectively, neither cause a complete obstruction of the genital outflow tract.

An imperforate hymen is the most common diagnosis resulting in an obstructed outflow tract with an incidence of 0.1%.

However, as the hymen is an embryologic septum between the urogenital sinus and the sinovaginal bulbs, it is technically not considered a müllerian anomaly.

An imperforate hymen can be easily diagnosed on vaginal exam as, in addition to the symptom triad detailed above, physical exam of the perineum usually reveals a thin, bulging membrane with a bluish hue of obstructed blood behind it. (Imperforate hymens should always be addressed in the operating room.)

Complete genital tract obstruction from any müllerian anomaly would present without an obvious bulge on perineal exam.

SPSE 1

50
Q

Which of the following anomaly and surgical repair pairings reflects the appropriate management for the genital anomaly listed?

A partial vaginal agenesis – hysterectomy

B partial vaginal agenesis – mobilisation and pull- through of haematocolpos

C uterine didelphys with obstructing hemivaginal septum hysterectomy

D transverse vaginal septum – needle drainage and tract dilatation

E cervical agenesis – needle drainage and tract dilatation

A

B

A general guide is that obstructed anomalies with cryptomenorrhoea resulting in haematocolpos or haematometria should not be subject to drainage procedures unless definitive surgical repair is being undertaken, because of the risk of introducing bacteria and subsequent infection of the upper genital tract.

Drainage and dilatation of the drainage channel are inadequate means of recreating patent outflow tracts and hence are not advised for management of any müllerian anomaly.

most transverse vaginal septums are less than 1 cm in thickness, and can be managed either with primary surgical excision and reanastomosis of the upper and lower vaginal mucosal edges or with mobilisation of the upper haematocolpos, pulling the upper mobilised vaginal mucosa inferiorly and reanastomosing this to the lower vaginal mucosa.

This mobilisation, pull-through and reanastomosis is applied to thicker vaginal septums and/or partial vaginal agenesis.

Stenting the vagina after surgical repair is mandatory to prevent stricture formation at the site of mucosal reanastomosis.

Hysterectomy is not required for vaginal obstruction by transverse septum, nor for partial vaginal agenesis where continuity of the outflow tract can be reliably re-established.

uterine didelphys with an obstructing hemivaginal septum is surgically corrected by resecting the hemivaginal septum.

Surgical management of the rare cervical agenesis case is more controversial.

Traditionally, hysterectomy was offered.

more recently, successful uterovaginal anastomosis has been reported in several small case series.

Referral to centres of excellence is recommended for management of these infrequent anomalies, to optimise outcomes.

In the management of any outflow tract obstruction, menstrual suppression can be prescribed to manage pain symptoms while awaiting definitive surgical management.

menstrual suppression can be achieved with continuous combined hormonal contraceptives, depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate or gonadotropinreleasing hormone agonists with addback combined hormonal replacement.

SPSE 1

51
Q

In the investigation of a patient with Mayer–Rokitansky–KüsterHauser’s (MRKH) syndrome, besides the genital abnormalities of absent uterus, cervix and vagina, the investigation most likely to diagnose an associated abnormality is:

A audiogram
B echocardiogram
C karyotype
D renal ultrasound
E skeletal survey

A

D

mRKH syndrome or müllerian agenesis is the second most common cause of primary amenorrhoea, with an incidence of 1 : 4000.

These patients have a normal 46,XX karyotype and normal gonadal function, hence commence puberty with their peers.

A blind-ended lower vagina of variable length will be evident on physical examination.

Tanner staging for breast and pubic hair will be appropriate for the stage of puberty and congruent with each other.

The diagnosis is confirmed when the anatomical abnormality is demonstrated on imaging.

Pelvic ultrasound is often the first modality, but magnetic resonance imaging is considered the gold standard for diagnosis.

The major differential diagnosis is androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS). In AIS, however, women will have an absence of sexual hair, hence there will be a discordance between Tanner staging of pubic hair and breast development.

Karyotyping will show a 46,XY configuration and androgens will be in the normal male range.

Sixty-four per cent of women with mRKH syndrome will have a typical presentation with no associated anomalies.

The most common anomalies associated with mRKH syndrome are those of the urinary tract. Renal agenesis, pelvic kidney, horseshoe kidney, hydronephrosis, hydroureter and ureteral duplication have all been reported.

The overall incidence of renal anomalies is in the range of 36%.

less commonly in mRKH patients, skeletal abnormalities (wedge vertebrae, fused vertebrae, rudimentary vertebral bodies, supernumerary vertebrae, clinodactyly, hypoplastic radius, scaphoid, trapezium) and cardiac anomalies (mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitation, ventricular septal defects, truncus arteriosus, patent ductus arteriosus, patent foramen ovale) can be demonstrated in 28% and 16%, respectively.

other less common associations are hernias, unilateral hearing impairment, and unilateral ovarian agenesis.

The high incidence of renal anomalies is speculated to be related to the close proximity (during embryogenesis) of the mesonephric and müllerian duct primordiums, and accounts for the fact that, overall, renal anomalies are present in approximately 25% of patients with any müllerian anomaly.

Disruption in the development of one system is presumed to lead to maldevelopment or agenesis of the contiguous structures.

Klippel–Feil’s syndrome is the association of congenital fusion of the cervical spine, short neck, low posterior hairline and painless limitations of cervical movement associated with uterine and vaginal agenesis.

‘muRCS association’ refers to müllerian duct aplasia, renal aplasia and cervicothoracic somite dysplasia.

The knowledge of these associated abnormalities guides the investigations when the diagnosis of mRKH is confirmed.

Renal imaging and a skeletal survey is recommended.

Karyotyping is often performed during the investigations of primary amenorrhoea.

Audiogram and echocardiogram can be performed selectively based on the individual medical history and physical examination.

SPSE 1

52
Q

An adolescent is brought to the operating room for a diagnostic laparoscopy to investigate persistent dysmenorrhoea despite treatment with anti-inflammatory and oral contraceptive pills over the preceding 3 months. The most likely diagnosis at the time of diagnostic laparoscopy would be:

A endometriosis

B ovarian torsion

C pelvic inflammatory disease

D unicornuate uterus with functional rudimentary horn

E uterine didelphys with obstructing hemivaginal septum.

A

A

Only 10% of dysmenorrhoea in adolescent is of secondary aetiology.

The remainder is defined as primary dysmenorrhoea, related to ovulatory cycles with prostaglandin production leading to myometrial contraction and uterine ischaemia.

In adolescents who have pain unresponsive to conservative management with non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (NSAIDs) and/or combined hormonal therapy, up to 69% will be diagnosed with endometriosis at diagnostic laparoscopy.

Endometriosis is hence the most common aetiology of secondary dysmenorrhoea.

Endometriosis in adolescents is often atypical in appearance, compared with the typical powder-burn lesions seen in adults.

Vesicles, flamelike lesions and white lesions predominate.

The extent of endometriosis is often restricted to earlier stages; stage I and stage II ASRm (American Society of Reproductive medicine) disease is found in 61%–92% and 8%–23%, respectively, of laparoscopies in adolescents and young adult women.

The stage of visible disease, however, does not necessarily correlate with the degree of symptomatology in patients of any age.

müllerian anomalies such as the unilaterally obstructed outflow tracts (unicornuate uterus with a functional rudimentary horn and uterine didelphys with obstructing hemivaginal septum), are responsible for only 6%–8% of chronic pain in adolescents.

unicornuate uteri are a result of a failure of organogenesis with absence of development of one müllerian duct.

In 74% of cases the arrest is incomplete and a rudimentary horn is evident. These rudimentary horns may or may not have a functional endometrium and may be communicating or not.

Horns that contain functional endometrium and are both non-communicating present as secondary dysmenorrhoea due to the cryptomenorrhoea. Twenty-six per cent of horns are in this category and are candidates for surgical excision.

A uterine didelphys is a result of failure of lateral fusion. longitudinal vaginal septums are commonly associated with didelphic uteri, demonstrable in 75% of these anomalies. When the septum is asymmetrical and obstructs one side, this is known as oHVIRA (obstructed hemivagina, ipsilateral renal anomaly) syndrome. Eighty-nine per cent of didelphic uteri with an obstructing septum have an ipsilateral renal anomaly, most commonly renal agenesis.

ovarian torsion is an important differential diagnosis of acute pelvic pain, though would not be associated with the persistent dysmenorrhoea in the given case.

Complications of sexual activity should always be considered in the adolescent with pelvic pain, i.e. pelvic inflammatory disease, ectopic pregnancies and other early pregnancy complications.

Pelvic inflammatory disease can present with new-onset dysmenorrhoea as well as with acute pelvic pain.

SPSE 1

53
Q

The imaging modality which will best distinguish between a bicornuate uterus and a septate uterus is:

A hysterosalpingogram
B hysterosonogram
C transabdominal pelvic ultrasound
D transvaginal pelvic ultrasound
E magnetic resonance imaging.

A

E

A bicornuate uterus is the result of a failure of lateral fusion; a septate uterus is the result of failure of resorption of the central septum once the paired müllerian ducts fuse.

Septate uteri have the highest incidence of reproductive complications of all the müllerian anomalies.

The poor pregnancy-continuation rates are attributed to the fibrous and avascular septum as well as the defective septal endometrium.

Surgical correction of the septate uterus may be accomplished by hysteroscopic division of the septum with subsequent significant improvement in reproductive outcomes.

It is important to establish the correct diagnosis – between a septate uterus and a bicornuate uterus – prior to planning surgical repair.

No surgical intervention is indicated for the bicornuate uterus.

An imaging modality that can accurately assess the external contour of the uterus is essential.

While hysterosalpingography and hysterosonography can provide considerable information regarding the interior of the uterine cavity, mRI is superior for determining the external contour.

The two anomalies can be distinguished with the following criteria: intercornual distance (4 cm with bicornuate uterus, 2–4 cm with septate uteri), fundal indentation (>1 cm with bicornate uterus) and angle of uterine horns (>105 degrees with bicornuate, <75 degrees with septate uteri).

In general, mRI has become the method of choice for assessing anatomical abnormalities of the upper female genital tract.

SPSE 1

54
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding fetal ovarian cysts?

A Between 25% and 70% will develop complexity during the antenatal period

B Caesarean section should be recommended as the mode of delivery.

C Surgical management is recommended in the neonatal period due to the risk of malignancy in antenatally diagnosed ovarian cysts.

D Complex neonatal ovarian cysts do not resolve with expectant management.

E Simple cysts less than 4 cm in size should be resected.

A

A

The antenatal discovery of a fetal ovarian cyst is infrequent with an incidence of 1 : 2625 pregnancies.

The diagnosis is presumptive antenatally, based on the identification of a cystic, non-peristaltic structure in the lower abdomen of a female fetus.

Sonographic demonstration of the integrity of the urinary and gastrointestinal tracts separate from the cystic structure supports the diagnosis.

While these cysts have been diagnosed as early as 19 weeks of gestational age, the most common gestational age at diagnosis is 33 weeks.

Ninety-seven per cent of these cysts are functional, and are speculated to be the result of follicular stimulation of the fetal ovary by placental hCG, maternal oestrogens or fetal gonadotropins.

There are only rare case reports of ovarian pathology in the neonatal period: cystadenomas, cystic teratomas and granulosa cell tumours.

The natural history of these antenatally diagnosed ovarian cysts in utero is the development of complexity prior to delivery in 25%–70%.

Complex cysts typically represent in utero torsion or haemorrhage.

While soft tissue dystocia is possible (from abdominal distension related to the ovarian cyst), it is rare and most authors advocate reserving caesarean delivery for obstetrical indications only.

Because the vast majority of these ovarian cysts represent functional cysts, management in the neonatal period is not guided by risk of malignancy.

Both simple and complex cysts have been demonstrated to resolve spontaneously with observation; 86% of simple cysts may resolve as well as 54% of those that are complex, though complex cysts usually take longer to resolve. on follow-up imaging after complex cyst resolution, often no ovary is evident on the ipsilateral side, presumed to reflect an atretic ovary that reabsorbed subsequent to an in utero torsion.

Neonatal cysts will sometimes be noted on imaging to alternate location in the abdomen, reflecting their mobile nature (some are autoamputated from in utero torsion).

For expectant management to be adopted in the neonatal period, the cyst should be confirmed to be ovarian on postnatal imaging, no solid components should be present aside from debris/clot/septation consistent with haemorrhage or in utero torsion, the infant should be asymptomatic and tumour markers should be normal for age.

The family must also be able to commit to the serial imaging required to monitor cyst resolution.

Patients with cysts that are simple and large (over 4–5 cm in size) can be offered postnatal ultrasound-guided needle aspiration in an attempt to reduce the risk of postnatal torsion and to avoid surgical management.

Cysts less than this size are most often followed expectantly.

If surgery is undertaken, it should be the least invasive, and most conservative, i.e. minimally invasive approaches, with ovarian preservation (ovarian fenestration or cystectomy).

SPSE 1

55
Q

An otherwise healthy 7-year-old girl presents with fever, a 24-h history of colicky left lower abdominal pain and synchronous onset of nausea and vomiting. An ultrasound reveals a unilaterally enlarged left ovary (4 cm). There is no focal mass within the left ovary. Multiple peripheral cysts of 8–15 mm containing fluid-debris levels are located within the ovary. Venous flow is absent and arterial flow is decreased to the left ovary. The most appropriate management plan is:

A magnetic resonance imaging to confirm or refute diagnosis of ovarian torsion

B urgent laparoscopic exploration with plan for detorsion and conservation of the left ovary

C urgent laparoscopic exploration with plan for oophorectomy of left ovary given the 24-hour duration of symptoms

D elective laparoscopic exploration with plan for oophorectomy of left ovary given the 24-hour duration of symptoms

E elective laparotomy after tumour markers and CT scan of the abdomen to assess for malignancy, with plan for staging laparotomy.

A

B

Ovarian torsion is a clinical diagnosis. The usual symptoms are colicky lower quadrant pain, often unilateral with radiation to the flank or groin. Nausea and vomiting are present in up to 83% of torsions, and occur with the onset of pain.

About 20%–40% of children will have a history of similar episodes of pain within the 4 months preceding presentation, reflecting possible intermittent torsion.

only a third of children will have a palpable mass on examination.

Findings of peritoneal signs, fever and leucocytosis occur late in the course of torsion and may be associated with a higher risk of tissue necrosis.

ultrasound imaging assists the diagnosis. The most consistent finding on greyscale ultrasound is ovarian enlargement. An ovary with a volume <20 ml in one series had a 100% negative predictive value for torsion.

The presence of peripheral cysts with fluid–debris levels, is thought to be related to transudation of fluid into follicles and intrafollicular haemorrhage as the ovary becomes congested after the interruption of perfusion. The sensitivity of these findings on imaging ranges from 64% to 85%, with a specificity of 97%. While absent or decreased arterial and venous flow on Doppler imaging is suggestive of ovarian torsion, it should be noted that flow may be preserved.

In children, an ovarian mass as a lead point for adnexal torsion is not uniformly present; approximately 20% of torsions in the childhood age group occur in normal adnexae. Excessive mobility of the adnexae due to long ovarian ligaments in the prepubertal patient has been postulated as the aetiology of these normal ovarian torsions. Further, it is rare for malignancies to tort and consequently only <5% of torsions have an underlying malignant aetiology. The more common pathologies associated with adnexal torsion are: dermoid cysts, functional cysts, paratubal or paraovarian cysts and cystadenomas.

While the rate of conservation of ovaries decreases with delayed surgery (from symptom onset), there are numerous paediatric references demonstrating the preservation of function in ovaries judged moderately to severely ischaemic at time of surgery; hence, urgent surgical management, with detorsion and ovarian preservation, is indicated.

Rarely, another procedure may be required to remove a necrotic ovary at a later time or follow-up imaging may demonstrate a lack of ovarian function, but more often than not ovarian preservation will result in a functional ovary.

Some aspects of surgical management that remain debatable are the role of oophoropexy in the management of normal ovarian torsion, and the timing of ovarian cystectomy in the severely ischaemic ovary.

The overall rate of repeat torsion in childhood is increased from 5% to 11% if there is no associated ovarian pathology. However, oophoropexy may interfere with adnexal blood supply and create a risk of mechanical infertility from distorting tubal/ovarian anatomy. one retrospective case series (oelsner et al., 2003) demonstrated a higher rate of ovarian dysfunction in children and adolescents where an immediate ovarian cystectomy was performed coincident with a detorsion procedure. The authors therefore cautioned that in the severely ischaemic ovary detorsion alone with subsequent cystectomy at a second procedure could be considered.

SPSE 1

56
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding haemorrhagic ovarian cysts?

A The frequency of occurrence is equal in premenarcheal and postmenarcheal populations.

B They do not usually occur in the absence of medical co-morbidities.

C The usual timing of presentation is the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.

D The symptoms of presentation are indistinguishable from ovarian torsion.

E Surgical management is usually required with possible need for oophorectomy to control haemorrhage.

A

C

Functional ovarian cysts result from failure of the maturing follicle to ovulate and involute, or may reflect persistence of the corpus luteum.

These cysts are often simple on ultrasound, with thin walls.

They are benign and self-limited, often regressing within 2–3 menstrual cycles.

These cysts do not cause pain unless they rupture, haemorrhage or lead to torsion and may be incidental findings on imaging.

Haemorrhagic cysts are complicated functional cysts.

Following ovulation, both the luteinised theca cells and the granulosa cell layer of the follicle become vascularised.

The vessels are fragile and may rupture leading to haemorrhage.

Because they are associated with ovulation, they are rare in the premenarcheal patient.

A haemorrhagic ovarian cyst often presents with an abrupt onset of lower abdominal or pelvic pain midcycle or in the luteal phase without fever or leucocytosis.

If the cyst wall ruptures, a haemoperitoneum may develop and peritoneal signs or postural hypotension may be evident on examination.

Haemorrhagic cysts occur in healthy patients but are predisposed in patients with bleeding diatheses, on anticoagulation therapy or following blunt abdominal or pelvic trauma.

The appearance on ultrasonography may be confused with an ectopic pregnancy, an ovarian tumour or an inflammatory process such as a tubo-ovarian abscess.

The hallmark of a haemorrhagic ovarian cyst is its evolution over time from acute haemorrhage (anechoic cystic mass), through clot formation (internal echoes, strands and septations), clot retraction (fluid–debris level) to resolution.

The average diameter of a haemorrhagic ovarian cyst is 3.0–3.5 cm but they may range in size from 2.5 to 10 cm.

While acute pain is often the presentation, the symptoms gradually resolve without intervention.

Analgesia, reassurance and serial imaging follow-up are indicated for the stable haemorrhagic cyst.

use of an oral contraceptive pill does not aid regression of the functional ovarian cyst but may prevent new cyst formation.

SPSE 1

57
Q

What is the overall malignancy rate of surgically managed ovarian masses in childhood and adolescence?

A 0%–5%
B 10%–15%
C 25%–50%
D 70%–75%
E 85%–90%

A

B

of surgically treated ovarian masses in infancy, childhood and adolescence, neoplasms will be responsible for approximately 30%–50%.

mature cystic teratoma is the most common lesion in children and adolescents.

Dermoid cysts have characteristic features on imaging, related to the presence of thick sebaceous fluid, hair and calcifications from teeth or bone.

The most characteristic feature on ultrasound imaging of a dermoid is the hyperechoic mural nodule known as the ‘dermoid plug’ or Rokitanksy’s protuberance.

malignancy will be evident on pathological examination in 8%–15% of surgical cases.

While the overall incidence of ovarian masses increases with age, the malignancy rate is inversely related to age. In one study of children and adolescents with an overall malignancy rate of 7.9%, the rate of malignancy between 1 and 15 years of age was 11% and for over 15, this rate dropped to 4%.

Besides younger age, malignancy is more likely if the mass is associated with endocrine disturbance, i.e. precocious puberty/virilisation or if it is solid or complex on imaging.

SPSE 1

58
Q

Which of the following is not a correct pairing of histological ovarian tumour type with its corresponding tumour marker?

A β-hCG : choriocarcinoma

B alpha-fetoprotein : endodermal sinus tumour

C inhibin : granulosa cell tumour

D LDH : immature cystic teratoma

E CA125 : serous cystadenocarcinoma

A

D

All histological cell types are evident in ovarian neoplasms in children and adolescents; however, the proportion of each type varies compared with adult populations.

Germ cell tumours predominate (73%), followed by epithelial tumours (13%). Stromal tumours comprise a small proportion of ovarian masses at all ages.

The benign germ cell tumour, mature cystic teratoma, is the most common childhood and adolescent ovarian neoplasm.

The benign stromal tumour is the fibrothecoma.

malignant germ cell tumours include: dysgerminoma, immature teratoma, endodermal sinus tumour, mixed germ cell tumour, embryonal carcinoma and choriocarcinoma.

malignant sex-cord-stromal tumours are the granulosa cell and Sertoli–leydig tumours.

Epithelial lesions may be benign (cystadenomas), borderline (low malignant potential) or malignant (cystadenocarcinomas).

The ovarian malignancies in children and adolescents and their related tumour markers are indicated in Table 67.1.

SPSE 1

59
Q

Surgical staging guidelines for management of ovarian germ cell tumours in children and adolescents, recommend all of the following procedures except:

A collection of ascites or washings on entering the peritoneal cavity

B unilateral oophorectomy of the tumour-containing ovary

C biopsy of any abnormality of the contralateral ovary

D bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy and para-aortic lymph node sampling

E inspection and palpation of the omentum with removal of adherent or abnormal areas.

A

D

The overall goals of surgery for germ cell tumours in children are to resect the tumour where feasible, to spare uninvolved reproductive organs, and to accurately stage the extent of the disease.

The Pediatric oncology Group surgical guidelines for ovarian germ cell tumours recommend the following.

1 Collection of ascites or washings on entering the peritoneal cavity.

2 Examination of peritoneal surfaces with biopsy or excision of any nodules.

3 Examination and palpation of lymph nodes in the retroperitoneum with sampling of any firm or enlarged lymph nodes.

4 Inspection and palpation of the omentum with removal of adherent or abnormal areas.

5 Inspection and palpation of contralateral ovaries with biopsy of any abnormal areas.

6 Complete resection of tumour-containing ovary.

Lymph nodes that do not appear grossly abnormal have a low risk of positivity and hence routine bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy is not recommended in the absence of palpable gross abnormalities.

Germ cell tumours respond extremely well to chemotherapy (bleomycin, etoposide and cisplatin), resulting in excellent survival rates for these tumours, especially when they present at an early stage of the disease.

There does not appear to be any adverse effect of omitting aspects of surgical staging that would be routinely applied in adult populations (sampling bilateral retroperitoneal nodes, omentectomy).

malignant epithelial lesions should be staged according to adult staging recommendations.

However, a conservative and fertility-sparing approach is applied to low-malignant-potential tumours of the ovary in reproductive age women, which is especially applicable to children and adolescents.

SPSE 1

60
Q

How are benign ovarian masses differentiated from malignant ones on ultrasound?

A

As US is the imaging modality of choice for evaluation of ovarian masses, it is prudent for the surgeon to recognize ultrasonographic patterns they may encounter.

While benign cysts typically appear with clear cystic areas on US with thin septa, the presence of thick septations >2–3 mm and nonhyperechoic solid nodular or papillary components favors a diagnosis of malignancy.

The use of an ultrasonographic morphology index (MI) has been described as a tool to relate US findings to tumor histology, with a score of 7–10 being concerning for malignancy.

Another new ultrasonographic tool used to evaluate ovarian neoplasms is the ovarian crescent sign (OCS). When seen, the presence of this sign can indicate normal ovarian tissue surrounding a cyst or tumor that may assist in excluding an invasive ovarian malignancy, although the OCS can be present in cases of borderline malignancy and in metastatic disease to the ovaries.

Use of the OCS and MI in conjunction with emergent or nonemergent presentations in 19 year olds with ovarian tumors/ torsion was noted to be a very accurate management tool in a recent study.

No malignancies were noted in asymptomatic patients with an ovarian mass that had an MI of 4 or less in a group of 1236 cases.

The OCS was noted to be present in 96% of benign masses and in 3% with microscopic malignancy.

It would appear that using MI and OCS may reduce the number of surgical procedures performed on functional cysts, and may be useful in choosing the optimal treatment of adnexal masses.

H&A

61
Q

How is endometriosis diagnosed?

A

Endometriosis refers to the presence of endometrial glands and functioning stroma outside the uterine lining and is the most common pathologic condition of the pelvis in adolescents with chronic pelvic pain.

As many as 75% of adolescent girls with medically refractory pelvic pain are found to have endometriosis at the time of diagnostic laparoscopy.

Endometriosis is a progressive disease, and serial studies in adults with endometriosis reveal that 60% of affected women report the onset of pelvic symptoms earlier than age 20, with the prevalence and severity of the disease increasing with age.

Endometriosis has been found in patients as early as prior to menarche and within 1–5 months of menarche.

Endometriosis has been associated with Müllerian duct anomalies that create obstructed outflow tracts of the genitalia such as imperforate hymen, vaginal septum, complete transverse vaginal septa, and uterine anomalies such as noncommunicating uterine horns. This type of endometriosis typically resolves after operative correction of the obstruction.

There is also a genetic predisposition with firstdegree relatives of affected patients having an increased risk of endometriosis.

Preoperative complaints noted in 90% of patients with endometriosis include both cyclic pain with menses and acyclic pain with gastrointestinal dysfunction.

Primary warning signs of endometriosis in adolescents include
(1) prolonged intake of both nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) and oral contraceptive pills to treat dysmenorrhea,
(2) family history of endometriosis,
(3) more frequent absenteeism from school during menses, and
(4) prescription of an oral contraceptive pill before age 18 years because of severe primary dysmenorrhea.

Although symptoms can suggest the diagnosis of endometriosis, the definitive diagnosis is made by laparoscopic visualization or biopsy (or both).

Findings at laparoscopy include thin pelvic adhesions between the ovaries and the peritoneum along with superficial implants on the peritoneum of the cul-de-sac, the uterosacral ligaments, and the rectovaginal septum. 94 Contrary to endometriosis in adults, the appearance of endometriosis differs in adolescents, as there is a predominance of peritoneal defects and pockets of scarred, broad ligament defects referred to as Allen–Masters windows.

These Allen–Masters lesions are pathognomonic for endometriosis in adolescents.

In addition, white, vesicular and hemorrhagic appearing lesions are often noted as well.

Filling the pelvis with fluid and placing the laparoscope under the fluid may make some of these lesions easier to visualize.

If endometriosis is suspected, but not seen, random cul-de-sac peritoneal biopsies have been recommended.

Ovarian endometriomas are uncommon in the adolescent female and are best managed with surgical excision of the endometrioma. Not excising the endometrioma’s cyst wall results in a higher rate of recurrence and pain.

Short-term recurrence after the initial procedure is low, but continuous, long-term follow-up is important for adolescent patients who have undergone surgical treatment of endometriosis in the adolescent period.

There is no cure for endometriosis, and recurrence is common with the optimal treatment still debated.

The treatment in adolescents is based on alleviation of symptoms and slowing the progression of the disease.

For patients undergoing an operation, when possible, removal of all visible lesions by resection or destruction with ablative techniques such as electrocoagulation, endocoagulation, or laser should be performed.

Surgery alone is not adequate and should be considered cytoreductive in nature.

Postoperative menstrual suppression is also needed to treat microscopic residual disease using hormonal therapy in the form of oral contraceptives, progesterone-only medication (or both), or via placement of levonorgestrel containing intrauterine systems along with NSAIDS.

Noninterventional pain therapies may have a place in managing the chronic pain associated with endometriosis.

Long-term outcomes, such as infertility and chronic pain, in those diagnosed with endometriosis as adolescents are not well known.

H&A