Lesions of the Liver Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following tumor markers is elevated in the most common pediatric liver tumor?
A. β-hCG
B. Urinary VMA
C. AFP
D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) 
E. Ferritin
A

ANSWER: C

COMMENTS: The most common liver tumor in children is hepatoblastoma, comprising about 80% of all pediatric liver tumors.

Hepatoblastoma generally affects children aged 3 years or younger.

Liver tumors in the pediatric population usually present as enlarged abdominal masses.

When a liver mass is encountered, laboratory tests can be extremely helpful in narrowing the differential diagnosis.

AFP is elevated in about 90% of patients with hepatoblastomas.

The second most common liver tumor in the pediatric population is the hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).

These tumors generally affect older children.

Patients do not have an elevated AFP; however, they can have an elevated ferritin.

Hepatoblastomas are usually solitary lesions, whereas HCC may be multifocal.

Management of hepatoblastoma is based on the PRETEXT staging system, which takes into account the degree of involvement of the liver.

Surgical resection remains the only curative treatment.

Unfortunately, many of these tumors are not resectable at the time of diagnosis.

Hepatoblastomas are chemosensitive, and neoadjuvant therapy before resection has been shown to increase resectability and improve overall outcomes.

If the tumor remains unresectable, transplantation is another treatment option.

CEA is generally associated with colorectal cancers, and when elevated in the setting of a liver tumor, metastatic colorectal disease should be considered.

β-hCG is a tumor marker for germline tumors and not hepatoblastoma.

VMAs are elevated in patients with neuroblastomas.

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2
Q

What causes portal hypertension in infants and children?

A

Intrinsic liver disease with subsequent fibrosis and cirrhosis caused by biliary atresia, metabolic and autoimmune diseases, vascular causes including extrahe- patic portal vein occlusion, and rarely, post-hepatic Budd-Chiari syndrome and hepatic vein stenosis as well as high-flow intra-and extrahepatic arteriovenous communication.

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3
Q

How is portal hypertension defined?

A

Portal venous pressures exceeding 8–10 mmHg or a portal vein to hepatic pressure gradient greater than 5 mmHg.

Direct portal pressure measurement is difficult in children.

In children, indirect evidence of portal hypertension includes physical signs such as an enlarged spleen, caput medusa and thrombocytopenia.

Esophageal varices are also indirect evidence of portal hypertension.

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4
Q

What are the most common causes of portal hypertension in children?

A

Biliary atresia (BA) and extrahepatic portal vein obstruction (EPVO).

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5
Q

How do patients typically present?

A

Spontaneous hemorrhage from gastrointestinal sites, epistaxis, hematuria, menorrhagia, hypersplenism, thrombocytopenia, ascites.

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6
Q

What are key treatment goals for an acute gastrointestinal bleeding episode?

A

Volume resuscitation to restore hemodynamic stability with a target hemoglobin level of 8 mg/dl, platelet levels above 20,000, replacement of fresh frozen plasma, initiation of vasoactive intravenous medication such as octreotide or other somatostatin analogues, endoscopy with variceal banding (EVL) or sclerotherapy are the mainstays of initial therapy.

ICU admission is generally recommended.

Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended in children with cirrhosis.

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7
Q

Is transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) a treatment option?

A

Creation of a portosystemic shunt between portal and hepatic veins via inserted stent has limited use in children and is generally reserved for refractory treatment of variceal hemorrhage in patients with intrinsic liver disease as a bridge to transplantation.

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8
Q

What are surgical management options of portal hypertension?

A

Surgical treatment options are done to redirect portal hypertensive blood flow into the low pressure systemic venous circulation and need to consider underlying pathophysiology and severity of symptoms.

Shunt procedures can be divided into non-selective and selective shunts.

Mesocaval, proximal splenorenal and side-to-side porta-caval shunts essentially redirect the entire portal blood flow and are considered non-selective.

Selective shunts such as the distal splenorenal shunt divert only the splenic and gastroesophageal portion of portal blood flow.

The meso Rex shunt restores mesenteric venous circulation back to the intrahepatic portal circulation and as such, is more of a bypass than a shunt (MSB).

Non shunt options include extensive gastric devascularization with distal esophageal transection and reanastomosis (Sugiura procedure), splenic artery ligation as well as liver transplantation but are reserved for high risk patients that are not candidates for shunt surgery.

Splenectomy is NOT a surgical treatment option as it significantly reduces the chance of successful selective shunt surgery.

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9
Q

What diagnostic imaging should be considered in the workup?

A

Imaging objectives include confirming extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis and assessing size and patency of left portal vein and superior mesenteric vein for MRB feasibility.

Furthermore, evaluation of large collaterals as alternative conduits for MRB as well as inferior vena cava, renal and splenic veins for alternative porto-systemic shunt (PSS) are considered.

Abdominal ultrasonography with doppler can provide and assessment of the portal vein as well as liver parenchyma.

Both triphasic computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance (MR) angiography provide an excellent road map.

Transjugular wedged hepatic vein portography is the authors modality of choice to assess not only the patency of the left intrahepatic branch of the portal vein but also communication between left and right intrahepatic portal veins.

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10
Q

What are the indications for surgical treatment of extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis?

A

Failure of medical and endoscopic management of variceal hemorrhage, severe hypersplenism with thrombocytopenia below 50,000 and recurrent non-variceal bleeding, hepato-pulmonary syndrome and porto-pulmonary hypertension are considered absolute indications for shunt surgery.

Neurocognitive testing suggestive of encephalopathy, increased serum ammonium levels and growth retardation are relative indications.

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11
Q

How do treatment considerations differ for children with EHPVO as compared to those with Biliary Atresia?

A

Portal hypertension develops early in the disease course of EHPVO while in BA portal hypertension may rarely develop when liver function is generally well compensated and overall mortality is less than 1%.

However, unlike BA where the transplantation intervention prevents the disease progression, the natural course of PHT from EHPVO subjects children to a long variety of complications including splenomegaly, hypersplenism, spontaneous portosystemic shunting, encephalopathy, growth failure, coagulopathy and less commonly portal bilopathy and hepato- pulmonary syndrome.

Rather than serial symptomatic treatment, definite surgical correction should be considered.

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12
Q

When should MRB be considered preemptively?

A

There is expert consensus on the use of MRB as primary prophylaxis of PHT complications in EHPVO [1].

Favorable anatomy confirmed on wedge portography, patent superior mesenteric, splenic and bilateral internal jugular veins, negative coagulopathy work up, body weight greater than 8 kg, normal echocardiogram and a multidisciplinary team with MRB experience are prerequisite for a greater than 90% success rate.

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13
Q

What is the advantage of a MRB?

A

Both meso rex bypass and portosystemic shunt effectively relieve symptoms of portal hypertensive bleeding.

However meso rex bypass improves somatic growth, liver synthetic function, coagulopathy, neurocognitive function, prealbumin and insulin like growth factor as well as platelets to levels higher than portosystemic shunts [2, 3].

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14
Q

How did the Rex shunt get its name?

A

Hugo Rex, an Austrian anatomist, described the anatomic correlation of the intrahepatic left portal vein branch with the base of the falciform ligament and ductus venosus in 1888, later referred to as the Rex recessus.

Jean de Ville de Goyet first
described direct bypassing of an obstructed extrahepatic portal vein into the Rex
recessus in 1998 which became known as the Rex shunt or the meso Rex bypass [4].

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15
Q

What does the preoperative workup include?

A

In addition to preoperative imaging, liver function tests and biopsy must evaluate for intrinsic liver disease.

Echocardiogram and possibly cardiac catheterization is performed to assess operative risk particularly pulmonary hypertension and hepatopulmonary syndrome as both are contraindications for portosystemic shunts and relative indication for meso rex bypass.

Hematological workup should rule out a hypercoagulable state.

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16
Q

What are key technical components of a MRB?

A

The recessus of Rex is dissected following the round ligament maintaining vascular control of segmental feeding branches and assuring adequate lumen and backbleeding of the left portal vein.

Partial resection of liver segments III and IV allows wider exposure and passage of the subsequent vein graft.

Then, the superior mesenteric vein is exposed and controlled at the base of the small bowel mesentery and the jugular vein is harvested.

The narrower cephalic end is anastomosed to the exposed left portal vein and the wider thoracic end tunneled through the lesser sac over the pancreas posterior to the stomach and transverse mesocolon before anastomosing the distal wider end to the infrapancreatic superior mesenteric vein.

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17
Q

How are Rex shunt patients managed post operatively?

A

Systemic low level heparinization and transition to long-term antiplatelet therapy for 6 months.

If in the preoperative work-up a hypercoagulable condition has been identified, long term anticoagulation may be necessary.

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18
Q

How should patients be followed up?

A

Outpatient follow up includes doppler US every 3 months for the first year and then every 6 months for the second year and yearly after that.

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19
Q

What are complications of shunt surgery? How can they be managed?

A

Shunt thrombosis in the immediate postoperative period requires urgent thrombectomy, shunt revision and systemic anticoagulation.

If not salvageable alternative portosystemic shunts need to be considered.

Shunt stenosis can successfully be managed by percutaneous endovascular interventions in the majority of cases with excellent long term patency rates and resolution of clinical symptoms [5].

Failure of percutaneous therapy requires operative shunt revision.

Ascites from extensive dissection of retroperitoneal lymphatics resolves spontaneously in most cases but may require oral diuretics or reduced-fat diet.

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20
Q

What are the long-term outcomes of MRB?

A

Over 80% of patients with EHPVO can successfully be treated with MRB.

A patent MRB obviates the need for esophageal endoscopy, banding or use of non-selective beta blockade.

Age at the time of surgery does not appear to affect outcome but younger children tend to have shunt flows that are closer to normal portal flow when expressed per body surface area.

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21
Q

In management of portal hypertension, which of the following is false?

A. In endoscopic variceal ligation, the band and varices slough off in 5-7 days.
B. In proximal splenorenal shunt, splenectomy is required.
C. In portocaval shunt, side of portal vein and end of inferior vena cava is anastomosed.
D. In children, mesocaval and splenorenal shunts are commonly performed.
E. In mesocaval shunt, inferior mesenteric vein is dissected 5cm inferior to the pancreas.

A

C. In portocaval shunt, side of portal vein and end of inferior vena cava is anastomosed.

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22
Q

A 17-year-old male from Mexico presents with right upper quadrant pain and episodic diarrhea. He describes his pain as constant, dull, and aching. He says that he has not been feeling well for a few weeks, has no appetite, and has had a fever for the past 24 hours.
Bloodwork shows leukocytosis and elevated alkaline phosphatase. An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is positive for Entamoeba histolytica. What is the appropriate initial management?
Choices:
1. Amebicidal medication
2. CT scan in anticipation of needing percutaneous drainage
3. Open drainage and antibiotics
4. Observation

A

Answer: 1-Amebicidal medication
Explanations:
• The patient has an amebic liver abscess. The majority of amebic abscesses can be treated with amebicidal agents alone.
• After completion of treatment with tissue amebicides, an amebicidal drug that works inside the intestinal lumen, a lumicide, is administered. Failure to use lumicidal agents can lead to a relapse of the infection. Metronidazole, emetine, and dehydroemetine are such active agents.
• Treatment also entails the use of nitroimidazole, preferably metro-nidazole, at a dose of 500 mg to 750 mg by mouth three times per day for 10 days. Alternatively, tinidazole 2 grams by mouth daily for 5 days can be used. As parasites can persist in the intestine in 40% to 60% of patients, treatment with nitroimidazole should be followed with a luminal agent such as paromomycin. Metronidazole and paromomycin should not be given at the same time because diarrhea, a common side effect of paromomycin, can make assessing response to therapy difficult.
• Therapeutic aspiration, usually through image-guided percutaneous needle aspiration or catheter drainage, is occasionally required.
It should be considered in patients with no clinical response to antibiotics within 5 to 7 days; once an imaging exam shows an abscess with a high risk of rupture (cavitary diameter of more than 5 cm or presence of lesions in the left lobe; or in cases of bacterial confection of an amebic liver abscess.

StatPearls

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23
Q

A 2-year-old boy presents with right-sided abdominal swelling that his mother first noticed in the bathtub 2 months ago.
It has been increasing in size, and the boy now has a decreased appetite and mild pain in the area. Ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging were performed and demonstrated a solitary liver mass. To stage this tumor, what is the best next step?
Choices:
1. Perform a biopsy
2. Screen for hepatitis
3. Chest CT
4. Perform liver function tests

A

Answer: 3 - Chest CT
Explanations:
• A chest CT can help detect lung metastases, as up to 20% of hepato-blastoma cases present with metastases.
• The lung is the most common site of metastases.
• Ultrasound and either CT or MRI are the imaging modalities used to define the extent of tumor involvement of the liver and aid in pre-surgical planning.
• The presence or absence of metastases is important in the staging process.

StatPearls

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24
Q

Which one of the following is the most common liver tumour?

A. Hepatocellular carcinoma.

B. Hepatoblastoma.

C. Sarcoma.

D. Mesenchymal hamartoma.

E. Adenoma.

A

B

Hepatoblastoma is the commonest (43 percent).

Hepatocellular carcinoma has 23 percent incidence, sarcoma 6 percent, mesenchymal hamartoma 6, percent and adenoma 2 percent.

Syed/MCQ

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25
Q

Regarding histological subtypes of hepatoblastoma, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Small cell is more common than foetal.

B. Macrotrabacular is more common than embryonal.

C. Teratoid is more common than non-teratoid.

D. Foetal is more common than teratoid.

E. Epithelial and mixed epithelial are not subtypes of hepatoblastoma.

A

D Histological subtypes of hepatoblastoma are as follows. 1. Epithelial

(a) Foetal 31 percent, (b) embryonal 19 percent, (c) macrotrabacular 05 percent, and (d) small cell 03 percent.

  1. Mixed epithelial/mesenchymal

(a) Teratoid 10 percent, (b) Nonteratoid 34 percent.

Syed/MCQ

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26
Q

With regard to hepatic tumour in children, which of the following is not true?

A. Primary tumour of liver is uncommon.

B. Forty per cent of primary liver tumours are malignant.

C. Hepatoblastoma is the most common primary liver tumour in children.

D. Hepatoblastoma affects boys as frequently as girls.

E. Right lobe is more commonly involved.

A

B Approximately 75 percent of primary liver tumours are malignant.

Syed/MCQ

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27
Q

Regarding liver abscess, which of the following statements is true?

A. Amoebic liver abscess is less common than pyogenic.

B. Left lobe is more commonly involved.

C. Indirect haemaglutination test (IHA) is positive in amoebic liver abscess.

D. Laparotomy and drainage is preferred mode of treatment.

E. Drainage is required if abscess is more than 2 cm.

A

C

Indirect haemagglutination test (IHA) is positive in amoebic liver abscess.

Amoebic liver abscess is more common than pyogenic, right lobe is much more commonly involved, and percutaneous needle aspiration under ultrasound guidance is preferred mode of treatment.

Drainage is generally required if abscess is above 5 cm.

Syed/MCQ

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28
Q

In management of portal hypertension, which of the following is false?

A. In endoscopic variceal ligation, the band and varices slough off in 57 days.

B. In proximal splenorenal shunt, splenectomy is required.

C. In portocaval shunt, side of portal vein and end of inferior vena cava is anastomosed.

D. In children, mesocaval and splenorenal shunts are commonly performed.

E. In mesocaval shunt inferior mesenteric vein is dissected 5 cm inferior to the pancreas.

A

C

In end-to-side portocaval shunt, end of portal vein and side of inferior vena cava are anastomosed.

Syed/MCQ

29
Q

What is the mean age of children with hepatoblastoma?

A. 3.5 years.

B. 5.5 years.

C. 7.5 years.

D. 9.5 years.

E. 11.5 years.

A

A

The mean age children develop hepatoblastoma is 3.5 years.

The hepatoblastoma is an embryonal tumour that typically develops at 1–3 years of age.

Syed/MCQ

30
Q

Regarding diagnostic studies in hepatic tumours, all of the following are correct except:

A. MRI is more accurate in diagnosis than CT scan.

B. CT scan of the chest is indicated to see metastatic disease.

C. Arteriography is used in therapy for chemoembolization and intraarterial infusion of cytotoxic drugs.

D. Alpha-fetoprotein has diagnostic value.

E. Thrombocytosis develops because of release of cytokines from tumour.

A

E

Thrombocytopenia develops from release of cytokines from tumour.

Syed/MCQ

31
Q

Regarding histological subtypes of hepatoblastoma, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Small cell is more common than foetal.

B. Macrotrabacular is more common than embryonal.

C. Teratoid is more common than non-teratoid.

D. Foetal is more common than teratoid.

E. Epithelial and mixed epithelial are not subtypes of hepatoblastoma.

A

D

Histological subtypes of hepatoblastoma are as follows:

  1. Epithelial

(a) Foetal 31 percent,
(b) embryonal 19 percent,
(c) macrotrabacular 05 percent, and
(d) small cell 03 percent.

  1. Mixed epithelial/mesenchymal

(a) Teratoid 10 percent,
(b) Nonteratoid 34 percent

Syed/MCQ

32
Q

Regarding pathology of hepatoblastoma, which of the following statements is false?

A. Usually it is bulky and solitary mass.

B. It is surrounded by pseudocapsule.

C. Bilober disease is common.

D. Aneuploid lesion has better prognosis than diploid tumour.

E. Increased mitotic activity shows poor prognosis.

A

D

Diploid tumour has somewhat better prognosis than aneuploidy tumour.

Syed/MCQ

33
Q

With regard to hepatic tumour in children, which of the following is not true?

A. Primary tumour of liver is uncommon.

B. Forty per cent of primary liver tumours are malignant.

C. Hepatoblastoma is the most common primary liver tumour in children.

D. Hepatoblastoma affects boys as frequently as girls.

E. Right lobe is more commonly involved.

A

B

Approximately 75 percent of primary liver tumours are malignant.

Syed/MCQ

34
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the development of the portal vein?

A The left and right omphalomesenteric veins drain the developing gut at the same time the umbilical veins transport blood from the placenta to the embryo.

B Blood from both the umbilical and omphalomesenteric veins drains through the hepatic sinusoids in developing liver.

C The right omphalomesenteric vein involutes and disappears by the sixth week.

D The left umbilical vein remains patent until shortly after birth, when it thromboses and becomes the ligamentum teres.

E Some of the blood from the umbilical vein drains through the ductus venosus, which develops into the permanent portal vein.

A

E

The left and right omphalomesenteric veins drain the developing gut as it is formed from the yolk sac during the fourth to sixth weeks of gestation.

At the same time, the umbilical veins transport blood from the placenta to the embryo.

Blood from both the umbilical and the omphalomesenteric veins drains through the nascent hepatic sinusoids in the developing liver and into the hepatic veins back to the developing heart.

Some of the blood from the umbilical veins bypasses the liver and drains directly into the inferior vena cava (IVC) through the ductus venosus, which normally closes during the first week of life in most full-term neonates.

The right omphalomesenteric vein involutes and disappears by the sixth week of gestation.

The left one develops into the permanent portal vein, which drains the mesenteric venous bed through the superior mesenteric vein and its branches.

The right umbilical vein also involutes and the left remains patent until shortly after birth, when it thromboses and becomes the ligamentum teres.

SPSE 1

35
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the anatomy of the portal and systemic venous systems?

A The splenic and mesenteric veins normally drain into the coronary which then forms the main portal vein just behind the head of the pancreas.

B The portal vein normally sends large branches to the IVC just before bifurcating into left and right branches.

C As a consequence of portal hypertension, the haemorrhoidal plexus of the superior, middle and inferior rectal veins drain into the vein of Sappey.

D The left portal vein courses under segment IV of the liver then anteriorly in the recessus of Rex and ends into branches supplying segments II, III and IV.

E The recanalised umbilical veins drain the gastro-oesophageal area into the left portal vein producing prominent varicose veins known as caput medusae.

A

D

The portal vein is formed by the confluence of the splenic and superior mesenteric veins posterior to the head of the pancreas. The coronary vein drains the gastro-oesophageal venous bed into the portal vein just distal to the splenomesenteric confluence.

The portal vein does not normally communicate with the IVC in any fashion after birth. Communications between the portal vein and the IVC are known as the Abernethy malformation and deprive the liver of normal portal blood flow and may have significant harmful long-term side effects.

The extrahepatic portal vein divides into a left and a right branch. The left branch courses under segment IV of the liver, turns anteriorly in the recessus of Rex between segments II, III and IV, and ends by dividing into branches that supply those segments. The right branch divides into the posterior and anterior segmental branches at or just inside the liver plate at the capsule.

As a consequence of portal hypertension, blood from the superior mesenteric vein and its tributaries must find alternative routes back to the heart. The three most common collateral formations between the portal and systemic venous networks are in the rectum, periumbilical and gastro-oesophageal areas. In the rectum, a haemorrhoidal plexus forms between the superior haemorrhoidal vein and branches of inferior and middle haemorrhoidal veins. In the course of the ligamentum teres of the liver, small paraumbilical veins recanalises and establishes an anastomosis between the veins of the anterior abdominal wall and the portal, hypogastric and iliac veins. The gastric and oesophageal veins communicate through submucosal plexuses that empty in a direction away from the liver into the hemiazygos venous system. other frequent shunts include the accessory portal system of Sappey with branches that course through the round and falciform ligaments to unite with the epigastric and internal mammary veins and through the diaphragmatic veins to unite with the azygos veins. Caput medusa refers to the cluster of prominent and visible collateral veins around the umbilicus on the anterior abdominal wall that results from the hepatofugal flow of blood through the recanalised umbilical and para-umbilical veins, that shunts blood into the systemic veins on the anterior abdominal wall. The caput medusa name alludes to the snake-like appearance of the venules radiating out from the umbilicus that reminded early anatomists of the snakes that emanated from the head of medusa in Greek mythology.

The veins of Retzius connect the intestinal veins with the inferior mesenteric veins and the haemorrhoidal veins that open into the hypogastric veins.

SPSE 1

36
Q

Which of the following is not associated with prehepatic portal hypertension caused by obstruction at the extrahepatic portal vein?

A omphalitis
B enlarged hilar lymph nodes
C venous webs in hepatic veins
D sepsis and dehydration in infancy
E umbilical vein catheterisation

A

C

Portal hypertension can be divided into two categories: (1) from hepatocellular injury and liver fibrosis, which are mainly intrahepatic causes and (2) from primary vascular causes, which can be classified into prehepatic, posthepatic and high flow or hyperkinetic.

Prehepatic portal hypertension is caused by obstruction at the level of the extrahepatic portal vein. Extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis may be a congenital lesion or acquired at a later time. occlusion of the main trunk of the portal vein may lead to recanalisation of the vein and its transformation into a series of smaller collateral veins that appear as a venous cavernoma on ultrasonography.

Thrombosis of the portal vein is associated with omphalitis, instrumentation and cannulation of the umbilical vein at birth, sepsis and dehydration in infancy and mass lesions that exert extrinsic compression on the vein. These lesions may be inflammatory or malignant such as reactive enlargement of the lymph nodes in the liver hilum, and malignancies such as pancreatic tumours or lymphoma involving the hilum of the liver.

Portal vein obstruction may be termed as portal vein thrombosis, cavernous transformation of the portal vein, or extrahepatic portal vein occlusion.

Posthepatic portal hypertension is caused by occlusion of large or small hepatic veins draining blood from the liver into the IVC. obstruction at this level leads to passive congestion of the liver and necrosis of the hepatocytes in the central areas of the hepatic lobule.

outflow occlusion causes include Budd–Chiari’s syndrome or occlusion of the hepatic veins presenting with the classic triad of abdominal pain, ascites and hepatomegaly. obstruction is primarily caused by thrombosis but can also be secondary to external compression from hepatic masses or surgical misadventure after hepatic resection. It is uncommon in children. other causes of outflow occlusion are congenital venous webs in the hepatic veins, hydatid disease, myeloproliferative diseases, hypercoagulable states, veno-occlusive diseases from drug-induced phlebitis and thrombosis after liver transplantation.

A rare cause of portal hypertension is an abnormal communication between an artery and a vein of the mesenteric venous circulation. This kind of portal hypertension is termed hyperkinetic or high-flow because the elevation of portal pressure is due to the exposure of the portal vein and connecting mesenteric veins to arterial blood pressure and because of the high volume of blood that subsequently flows into the portal circulation. Bleeding from varices may be severe due to the exposure to arterial pressures. Causes can be congenital but more commonly they may be secondary to trauma that results in a breach of an arterial wall and a venous wall adjacent to each other.

SPSE 1

37
Q

Which of the following is true of the clinical presentation of portal hypertension?

A Upper GI bleeding may be sudden and dramatic in a previously well child and is usually accompanied by signs of severe pain and peritonitis that may require urgent laparotomy.

B Upper GI bleeding most commonly originates from the lower oesophagus and the cardia of the stomach.

C Splenomegaly is usually a sign of advanced liver disease with synthetic failure, ascites, thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.

D Disorientation, memory loss and drowsiness commonly accompany episodes of bleeding from varices in children with accompanying hyperammonaemia.

E Hepatopulmonary syndrome occurring with cirrhotic portal hypertension is exacerbated by episodes of bleeding.

A

B

unlike children with pre-existing liver disease, children with extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis are usually completely well before the sudden onset of symptoms.

GI bleeding is one of the most common clinical presentations of portal hypertension. Bleeding most commonly occurs from varices in the distal oesophagus and gastric cardia. It may take the form of haematemesis, haematochezia, melaena or chronic anaemia.

Portal hypertensive gastropathy may cause less acute bleeding; however, variceal bleeds are often dramatic and sudden and are usually not accompanied by abdominal pain.

Although most patients with portal hypertension have varices, not all varices bleed.

Rectal bleeding is less common and occurs from rectal and sigmoid varices. melaena or the passage of gross blood through the rectum or accompanying a bowel movement may occur in the absence of haematemesis. Children with extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis have much less morbidity or mortality from bleeding than in those with liver disease, and bleeding in the former usually stops spontaneously and is generally well tolerated.

Silent splenomegaly without any other history suggestive of portal hypertension is often the first sign of a serious underlying disorder and can occur in children with extrahepatic portal vein obstruction and normal liver function or in children who have well-compensated cirrhosis with no outward manifestations of liver disease. It can easily be misinterpreted as a sign of haematological malignancy, particularly in children with extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis and no other stigmata of liver disease. In addition to splenic enlargement, patients may present with severe hypersplenism with thrombocytopenia and leucopenia from splenic sequestration of platelets and white blood cells.

Severe thrombocytopenia can lead to haematuria, menorrhagia in adolescent girls, epistaxis and haematochezia. In severe cases, spontaneous intracranial bleeding can also occur, with serious neurological consequences. liver-dependent coagulation factor deficiencies also lead to bleeding, typically from the genitourinary tract or nose. In cases with advanced liver disease, haemorrhagic complications in the lungs may cause severe respiratory compromise.

Encephalopathy is extremely unusual in the absence of other signs of advanced liver disease, such as jaundice and synthetic failure causing disordered coagulation and hypoalbuminaemia. learning disabilities and behavioural abnormalities are more subtle manifestations of encephalopathy in children, in contrast to the traditional signs of disorientation, memory loss and drowsiness commonly seen in adults. Hyperammonaemia can result from portosystemic shunting even in the absence of advanced liver disease but it may be exacerbated after a GI bleed.

Pulmonary hypertension can occur in children with both cirrhotic and non-cirrhotic forms of portal hypertension. It may be secondary to increased vasoactive substances that exert a vasoconstrictive or direct toxic effect on pulmonary vessels. Patients with both pulmonary and portal hypertension may develop pulmonary symptoms before there is any evidence of bleeding from portal hypertension. Symptoms may include exertional dyspnoea or chest pain, or no symptoms other than unheralded syncope or sudden death. Cirrhosis may be required, in addition to portal hypertension, for hepatopulmonary syndrome to become clinically apparent. Hepatopulmonary syndrome includes persistent hypoxaemia from arteriovenous shunting in the lungs, and may require liver transplantation whereas pulmonary hypertension from prehepatic portal hypertension may be reversed after eliminating portosystemic shunting.

SPSE 1

38
Q

Which of the following clinical situations and physiological or physical changes are not correctly related?

A Small and non-palpable livers on physical examination are characteristic of patients with congenital hepatic fibrosis.

B Splenomegaly may occur in all pathophysiological conditions causing portal hypertension and is not helpful in arriving at a diagnosis.

C Jaundice, ascites and portal hypertension usually do not occur together unless there is advanced liver disease.

D Although encephalopathy may be exacerbated by acute GI bleeding, it usually signifies advanced hepatocellular disease that may require liver transplantation.

E Ascites may be accompanied by low serum albumin and increased renal tubular absorption of sodium in patients with decompensated cirrhosis or outflow obstruction.

A

A Hepatomegaly is often a sign of hepatocellular disease, although patients with cirrhosis may present with impalpable shrunken livers. A hard or nodular liver is evidence that the cause of portal hypertension is a diseased liver. Children with congenital hepatic fibrosis often present with very enlarged livers that may extend as far as the iliac crest on palpation. Children with outflow obstruction may also present with easily palpable liver enlargement.

Splenomegaly is a common finding in children with portal hypertension and often the first abnormality found on a routine physical examination before the onset of bleeding. Splenomegaly occurs in all forms of portal hypertension and is not helpful in diagnosing the cause.

Children with extrahepatic portal vein obstruction or well-compensated cirrhosis may have mild elevation of total bilirubin level, but jaundice is not a clinical feature. If jaundice is a prominent symptom in a child with portal hypertension and accompanied by ascites or coagulation disorder, then the liver disease is most probably quite advanced.

Clinically evident encephalopathy is a sign of advanced liver disease but also may be present in children with urea-cycle defects such as citrullinaemia that are associated with high ammonia levels but no other liver problem. Portal hypertension associated with encephalopathy exacerbated by blood in the gut may require evaluation for liver transplantation. mild encephalopathy may be hard to quantify in young children who generally present with behavioural abnormalities that are different from adult clinical pictures of disorientation, memory loss and drowsiness.

Ascites may be associated with advanced liver disease with synthetic failure causing a low serum albumin level and decreased plasma oncotic pressure. Dilated lymphatics in the abdomen from increased hydrostatic pressure in all portal tributaries can lead to transudation of fluid across capillary membranes.

occasionally, chylous ascites may develop. Additional mechanisms include increased nitric oxide production in capillaries causing vasodilatation, increase in renal tubular absorption of sodium in patients with decompensated cirrhosis, and can also occur in the setting of Budd–Chiari’s syndrome or outflow obstruction. It is an alarming symptom that may herald the onset of liver decompensation.

SPSE 1

39
Q

Regarding laboratory investigations for portal hypertension, which of the following may be found?

A complete blood count: thrombocytopenia, leucopenia

B hepatic function panel: increased direct bilirubin fraction, low

serum albumin

C coagulation panel: prolonged prothrombin time and INR (international normalised ratio)

D plasma ammonia level: hyperammonaemia

E all of the above

A

E

All of the laboratory investigations are helpful in the diagnostic evaluation of a patient suspected of having portal hypertension. Thrombocytopenia and/or leucopenia are indicative of hypersplenism. An increase in direct bilirubin fraction, a low serum albumin level and a prolonged prothrombin time all indicate significant hepatocellular disease and possible cirrhosis as the underlying cause of portal hypertension. Children with portal vein thrombosis may have laboratory evidence of a mildly disordered synthesis of liver-dependent coagulation factors in both procoagulant and plasminolytic pathways, but this is generally not evident clinically without detailed testing. An INR of more than 2 usually signifies a decrease in synthesis of the liver-dependent coagulation factors V and VII as long as the defect is not correctable by the administration of vitamin K. Giving vitamin K ensures that the abnormality in the INR is not due to a vitamin K deficiency that can be easily corrected. Additional laboratory investigations may be required to exclude a consumptive coagulopathy that can also cause an increase in INR.

A raised plasma ammonia level in the setting of portal hypertension signifies portosystemic shunting, and may occur with all forms of portal hypertension. Plasma ammonia levels do not necessarily correlate with degrees of encephalopathy, but an ammonia level greater than 100 in the absence of a urea-cycle defect probably indicates advanced liver disease and not only portosystemic shunting.

SPSE 1

40
Q

Regarding investigations for portal hypertension, which of the following is incorrect?

A Endoscopy done prior to the onset of bleeding provides valuable clues about the severity of portal hypertension and the likelihood of future bleeding.

B Variceal diameter greater than 5 mm, the appearance of red wale markings on the varices, and clinically advanced liver disease indicate a greater probability for future bleeding and justify surgical treatment as a prophylactic measure against variceal haemorrhage.

C Abdominal Doppler ultrasonography is a useful test in determining cavernous transformation or thrombosis of the portal vein; patency and flow direction of the splenic, superior mesenteric, hepatic veins and IVC at the same time; liver echogenicity; spleen size and kidney appearance.

D Computed tomography (CT) and/or magnetic resonance (MR) angiography provide excellent detailed information of intra-abdominal vasculature and are useful adjunctive studies in planning operative strategies for portal hypertension surgery.

E Transjugular hepatic venography is useful to measure pressures in the hepatic veins, and provides definitive imaging of the hepatic veins and their junction with the vena cava as well as patency of intrahepatic portal venous system.

A

B

During episodes of bleeding, upper GI endoscopy provides direct confirmation of the bleeding source and the opportunity to intervene therapeutically and rule out other sources such as peptic ulcers and haemorrhagic gastritis. In cases of suspected portal hypertension, endoscopy is done before the onset of bleeding to evaluate the severity and likelihood of future bleeding. Variceal diameter greater than 5 mm, the appearance of red wale markings and more advanced liver disease indicate a greater chance for future bleeding and may justify the institution of prophylactic treatment with banding or sclerotherapy. In the absence of a previous GI bleed, surgical treatment cannot be justified under all circumstances. In selected patients, clinical conditions and the availability of experienced hepatobiliary surgery may justify early surgical intervention in patients with well-compensated cirrhosis. If the patient lives in a remote area where medical assistance may be relatively unavailable in the case of a severe GI bleed, prophylactic shunting may be considered. In patients who have poorly compensated cirrhosis or systemic symptoms of portal hypertension, surgery with a liver transplant may be necessary even in the absence of GI bleeding. Alternately, in patients with extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis, there are relative indications for surgical restoration of portal blood flow even in the absence of overt bleeding.

Abdominal Doppler ultrasonography can determine cavernous transformation and thrombosis of the portal vein with additional information of patency and flow directions of intra-abdominal vessels including the hepatic veins, splenic and superior mesenteric veins and the IVC. The liver parenchymal abnormalities, the size of the spleen and appearance of the kidneys can be obtained, which may yield useful diagnostic clues. For example, children with congenital hepatic fibrosis may also have autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease that could easily be discerned by ultrasound.

In spite of Doppler ultrasonography being nearly 100% diagnostic, it is seldom sufficient for determining the patency of the intrahepatic portal vein. CT and/or mR angiography are often required in addition to Doppler ultrasonography in the initial workup for a detailed information of the intra-abdominal vessels especially the portal venous system for surgical planning. With the disadvantages of exposure to radiation, CT angiography can be done more quickly with less image degradation from motion artefact than mR angiography. In children, mR angiography should be done under general anaesthesia with ventilatory arrest to minimise motion artefact. Thus both CT and mR angiography are used as initial workup for definitive diagnosis, surgical evaluation and for assessment of postoperative complications in cases that underwent shunt procedures. Abdominal Doppler ultrasonography is used for routine annual postoperative follow-up cases.

Transjugular hepatic venography although invasive, is a very useful test to measure pressures in the hepatic veins and provides selective definitive imaging of the hepatic veins and their junction with the vena cava as well as of the portal venous system. This modality is operator dependent in selectively accessing veins and provides useful detailed information for decision-making and surgical planning. It can also be used therapeutically, for placement of a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) or dilatation of strictures causing venous outflow obstruction in older children.

many children who present with portal hypertension undergo a liver biopsy. This can be done percutaneously in most cases provided that coagulopathies are corrected with vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma and platelets. Children with more profound coagulopathy manifested by a prothrombin time in excess of 20 seconds, should have a transjugular biopsy in the interventional radiology suite or an open biopsy in the operating room. liver histology findings range from non-pathognomonic in cases of extrahepatic portal vein thrombosis to advanced fibrosis and cirrhosis in children with chronic liver disease.

SPSE 1

41
Q

Which one of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of portal hypertension in both adults and children?

A The aetiology, of portal hypertension and the management and outcomes are the similar in adults and children.

B The 1-year mortality in adults who experience a severe GI bleed is higher than that in children who can tolerate the physiological consequence of hypovolaemia better than adults.

C Portal vein thrombosis is more easily correctable with the meso-Rex bypass in adults and adolescents than in smaller children because of the larger vessels available in larger patients.

D The main treatment goal is palliative in children, whereas in adults, corrective surgical intervention is often considered.

E Portal hypertension resulting from either parenchymal liver disease or vascular causes most likely will require liver transplantation in all age groups.

A

B

The causes of portal hypertension in children are vastly different from those in adults. Whereas children are very often afflicted with congenital malformations, genetic disorders and primary vascular causes of the portal hypertension, adults more frequently have portal hypertension caused by hepatocellular diseases such as hepatitis C and B, and alcoholic liver disease. As such, children may more often undergo corrective surgery aimed at correcting the cause of the portal hypertension, whereas in adults, surgery is often palliative and aimed at temporising until liver transplantation can be achieved. In contrast, the medical management of portal hypertension in adults is much more evidence based and proven to be effective in decreasing the onset and frequency of GI bleeding.

The medical management of portal hypertension in children is empiric and further trials are necessary to prove benefit.

As a consequence of the higher incidence of advanced parenchymal disease in adults, once a GI bleed occurs, the outlook for long-term survival without a transplant is not good, with >50% mortality. In children, more than half of all oesophageal bleeding occurs as an isolated problem in a setting of normal liver. Even when portal hypertension has resulted from cirrhosis, the overall outcome in children is much better than that in adults.

Portal hypertension resulting from hepatocellular liver disease most likely will require liver transplantation in most instances in both age groups if the liver function deteriorates and cannot be actively treated. on the contrary, if patients are found to have good liver function, as in those with vascular causes, surgical intervention should always be considered.

SPSE 1

42
Q

Which of the following is true regarding management for variceal bleeding in portal hypertension?

A Continuous infusion of octreotide is effective in reducing acute bleeding.

B Sengstaken–Blakemore tube is more effective than Pharmacological therapy.

C Non- selective beta blockers replace the need for surveillance endoscopy.

D Variceal sclerotherapy is preferred to band ligation because of more effectiveness and fewer complications.

E All of the above.

A

A

Patients with acute variceal bleeding require intense resuscitation with blood and crystalloids, and replacement of coagulation factors with fresh frozen plasma. Factor VII replacement decreases the amount of sodium and fluid necessary to correct the liver-dependent factor deficiencies, although its use is limited by its cost. Close monitoring in the intensive care unit is mandatory including central venous and arterial pressures, hourly urine output and oxygen status. mental status monitoring is essential in those with cirrhosis because bleeding into the GI tract may exacerbate encephalopathy.

octreotide and other somatostatin analogues reduce hepatic blood flow and wedged hepatic vein pressure, and constrict splanchnic arterioles by a direct effect on arteriolar smooth muscle. They are very effective in reducing and temporarily stopping the bleeding from portal hypertension and can be used in the initial 24–72 hours while awaiting direct endoscopic management. octreotide is started as a continuous infusion at 1–2 mcg/kg/hr up to a maximum of 100 mcg/hr and continued for as long as symptoms of bleeding persist. Pharmacological therapy has proved to be as effective as balloon tamponade in adults. The combination of improved Pharmacological and endoscopic therapies renders the role of balloon tamponade to almost obsolete.

long-term medical management includes the use of non-selective beta blockers such as propanolol or nadolol, either alone or in combination with nitrate vasodilators, which is also the regimen for non-bleeding varices. For those who could not tolerate side effects of the regimen, endoscopic band ligation may be used as primary prophylaxis. Intervention of any kind before the onset of bleeding, is controversial. However, the benefit to the patient of preventing a first bleed may be considerable and may justify early prophylactic management. Studies in both adults and children have demonstrated that prophylactic treatment of varices by medication and endoscopic ligation reduces the frequency of bleeding; surgery for the prevention of an initial bleed is more controversial if there is no other primary goal, such as the treatment of severe hypersplenism.

Endoscopic sclerotherapy is associated with a fairly high incidence of complications in at least one-third of patients. Acute complications include chest pain, oesophageal ulceration and mediastinitis; chronic ones include oesophageal strictures from multiple injection sessions. oesophageal band ligation was found to be a more effective and rapid method in bleeding cessation with fewer complications. Thus oesophageal banding and Pharmacological control has become the procedure of choice in the early therapy for bleeding oesophageal varices. Sclerotherapy is still necessary in babies since the instrumentation required for banding is too large to fit into the oesophagus of these small children.

SPSE 1

43
Q

Which of the following is true regarding transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts?

A TIPS is the initial treatment for variceal bleeding with advanced liver disease.

B Hepatic encephalopathy after TIPS is less common in adults than in children.

C Its limitation of use in children is the high rate of shunt thrombosis.

D TIPS facilitates the shunting of blood with hepatic clearance.

E All of the above.

A

C

TIPS or the percutaneous insertion of vascular stents to create channels between the portal vein and hepatic veins within the parenchyma of the liver is indicated in variceal bleeding difficult to control by other means. It should never be considered as the first line of defence. It is usually reserved for patients with advanced liver disease and serves as a bridge to transplantation. other indications include refractory ascites, hepatic venous outflow obstruction in both transplant and non-transplant candidates and in patients with hepatorenal syndrome. TIPS facilitates the shunting of blood without the benefit of hepatic clearance. In some patients with compensated cirrhosis, TIPS may cause acute deterioration in liver function and precipitate severe encephalopathy and the need for urgent transplantation or at least the need to occlude the shunt.

Its primary limitation in children is the high rate of shunt thrombosis and the aggravation of pre-existing encephalopathy as well as liver failure in patients whose livers are already borderline. Hepatic encephalopathy is less common after TIPS in children than in adults but the incidence of shunt occlusion is higher because of the smaller shunt diameter. In small infants, TIPS cannot be done due to size constraints.

SPSE 1

44
Q

Examples of a non-selective shunt include all of the following except:

A end-to-side portacaval shunt

B side-to-side portacaval shunt

C mesocaval shunt

D proximal splenorenal shunt

E distal splenorenal shunt.

A

E

Non-selective shunts divert a large proportion of mesenteric blood flow away from the liver so that the entire GI tract, including the spleen and pancreas, is decompressed. Non-selective shunts can be further subdivided into total or partial portal diversions.

The end-to-side portacaval shunt completely redirects portal blood into the IVC below the liver oversewing the hepatic end of the portal vein, whereas the side-to-side portacaval shunt allows blood from the intestine and spleen to flow easily into the vena cava with the hepatic end of the portal vein changed into an outflow tract. The latter is effective for posthepatic portal hypertension such as cases with Budd–Chiari’s syndrome, for it decompresses the liver and may result in long-term palliation of the disease with arrest or delay in the progression of liver fibrosis and ultimately failure.

The wide-diameter mesocaval shunt also completely diverts mesenteric blood away from the liver. The procedure can be done as a side-to-side anastomosis between the two veins or with the interposition of a short autologous vein graft or prosthetic graft. Exposure of both the superior mesenteric vein at the root of the bowel mesentery and the IVC below the duodenum is required.

The proximal splenorenal shunt is another example of a total diversion nonselective shunt. The splenic vein is divided close to the spleen and the mesenteric end sewn to the side of the left renal vein so that all the blood from the superior and inferior mesenteric veins is shunted into the systemic venous circulation through the left renal vein. The procedure almost invariably includes splenectomy and sometimes a direct attempt to ligate the gastro-oesophageal varices. Conversely, the distal splenorenal shunt is an example of a selective shunt. The splenic vein is divided close to the confluence with the superior mesenteric vein and anastomosed end to side with the left renal vein. The coronary vein and the gastroepiploic veins are ligated and divided. Hence blood flows from the gastric and oesophageal varices via the short gastric veins, across the spleen, and into the splenic vein. The spleen is also decompressed in this fashion while the portal flow to the liver is preserved.

SPSE 1

45
Q

How is infantile hepatic hemangioma treated?

A
46
Q

What is the PRETEXT system for hepatoblastoma?

A

Staging of HB tumors is, in part, based upon the Pretreatment Extent of Disease (PRETEXT) system developed in 1990 by the European International Society of Pediatric Oncology (SIOPEL).

Since their treatment protocols are based on primary treatment with chemotherapy followed by surgical resection, the PRETEXT staging system is based on the pretreatment anatomic location of the mass as determined by a high-quality axial imaging study (abdominal MRI or CT).

The liver is divided into four sectors based on its segmental anatomy as defined by Couinaud.

Within PRETEXT, the left hemi-liver is separated into the lateral sector, comprising Couinaud segments 2 and 3, and the medial sector comprising segment 4.

The right hemi-liver is an anterior sector made up of Couinaud segments 5 and 8, as well as a posterior sector made up of segments 6 and 7.

In PRETEXT I, three adjoining sectors are tumor free (tumor in only one sector).

In PRETEXT II, two adjoining sectors are tumor free (two sectors involved).

If only one sector is tumor free or a total of three nonadjoining sectors are involved (tumor involves two or three sectors), the tumor is designated PRETEX III.

For PRETEXT IV, there are no tumor-free sectors (tumor in all four sectors).

PRETEXT also takes into account additional criteria (annotation factors) including IVC or hepatic vein involvement (V), portal vein involvement (P), extrahepatic abdominal disease (E), tumor focality (F), tumor rupture (R), lymph node metastasis (N), caudate involvement (C), and distant metastasis (M).

The PRETEXT system is predictive of outcome and is being used by all multicenter HB trial groups.

The PRETEXT system is also used to reevaluate the tumor anatomy after adjuvant chemotherapy. In that setting, it is termed POST-TEXT and is determined approximately 10 days after every two cycles of chemotherapy.

In the most recent SIOPEL studies (SIOPEL 4 and 6), patients were stratified into the standard risk group if they were PRETEXT I, II, or III.

High-risk patients included those with AFP < 100 ng/mL, tumor rupture, SCU histology, and those positive for additional PRETEXT criteria; (V+, P+, E+, or M+).

Studies performed in North America through the Children’s Oncology Group (COG) use both the PRETEXT system and the Evans staging system, which take into account histology and the initial resectability of the tumor.

Under the Evans system, stage I tumors are localized and completely resected, stage II are tumors in which gross residual disease was present after resection, stage III tumors received preoperative chemotherapy, and IV are those tumors in which metastatic disease is present.

Determining the appropriate annotated PRETEX stage can be challenging in some cases. Staging of complex cases is facilitated by a central radiologic review process such as that used in COG studies.

The COG central review allows for accurate subcategorization of hepatic vein involvement (V0–V3) and portal vein involvement (P0–P3).

In the most recent COG study (AHEP-0731), patients were stratified into four groups: very low, low, intermediate, and high risk.

Patients at very low risk are those with PRETEXT I or II and with pure fetal histology (PFH).

Low-risk patients are PRETEXT I or II with any histology other than PFH who have undergone primary resection.

Intermediate-risk patients are PRETEXT II, III, or IV who are either unresectable at diagnosis, are V+, P+, or E+, or have SCU histologic subtype.

High-risk patients have metastatic disease or AFP less than 100 ng/mL.

A new risk stratification system has been developed through the global Children’s Hepatic Tumor International Collaboration (CHIC). Through this initiative, the data from eight (1605 patients) multicenter trials (SIOPEL-2, SIOPEL-3, COG INT-0098, COG P9645, GPOH HB89, GPOH HB99, JPLT-1, and JPLT-2) have been collected and recently reviewed.

Analysis of this data was used to determine the prognostic factors that correlated best with outcomes.

The factors with the highest correlation were found to be PRETEXT group,
age (<3, 3–7, and >7),
AFP (<100 ng/mL and 101–1000 ng/mL) at diagnosis, and
the presence/absence of PRETEXT annotation factors (V, P, E, F, R).

These factors were combined to create four clinically relevant “backbone” groups: very low, low, intermediate, and high risk.

H&A

47
Q

What is the treatment approach to hepatoblastoma?

A

The goals of therapy for HB involve two primary treatment modalities: complete surgical resection and cisplatin-based chemotherapy.

The extent and relative timing of surgery as well as the chemotherapy protocol are determined for each patient based upon their risk stratification.

The risk stratification is based upon radiographic staging (PRETEXT), tumor histology, AFP level, and the presence of distant metastasis.

The treatment of HB requires a multidisciplinary approach that hinges on close cooperation between pediatric oncology, surgery, and radiology services. All HB cases should be managed within the framework of a protocol administered by a multicenter HB study group.

The two largest multicenter study groups have historically used two distinct approaches to the relative timing of surgery and chemotherapy.

The COG approach was based on the premise that all patients who present with HB should be considered for a primary resection. If this is not possible, the patient receives chemotherapy with the goal of shrinking the tumor to the point at which it is resectable. The intent of this approach is to limit the patient’s exposure to chemotherapeutic drugs that carry significant side effects, including renal, cardiac, and ototoxicity.

This is in contradistinction to the SIOPEL approach, in which all patients receive chemotherapy before surgical resection. The rationale for the SIOPEL approach is that chemotherapy will decrease the size, vascularity, and cellular viability of the tumor, thereby making surgical resection easier and more effective.

The guidelines from the most recent SIOPEL 4 and 6 trials recommend that patients assigned to the standard group undergo six cycles of cisplatin (CDDP) before proceeding to surgery. Patients designated in the high-risk group are assigned to undergo eight weekly cycles of CDDP in addition to three weekly doses of doxorubicin before being re-imaged and evaluated for resection.

In both COG and SIOPEL studies, the resection should be planned so that there is an anticipated clear margin of 2–3 mm of normal liver tissue around the tumor.

If it is not possible to resect the tumor with a clear margin, in the COG protocols, the patient should undergo preoperative chemotherapy in an attempt to reduce the size of the tumor such that complete resection is possible.

CDDP is combined with VCR, doxorubicin, or 5-fluorouracil (5FU) and used in either an adjuvant or neoadjuvant fashion.

The current COG recommended chemotherapy regimen for initially unresectable HB is doxorubicin, CDDP, 5FU, and VCR.

In the patients who have had complete resection of their tumor (without preoperative chemotherapy), four to six postoperative courses of chemotherapy are given.

Children in whom the liver tumor was deemed unresectable initially, receive two rounds of chemotherapy, followed by repeat imaging. If the tumor appears resectable, resection should be done at this time.

If the tumor is not resectable, the patient undergoes an additional two rounds of chemotherapy and should be referred to a center with transplant capabilities.

If, after the additional two rounds of chemotherapy, the tumor is resectable (total of four rounds), resection is performed.

With chemotherapy and delayed or second-look surgery, the resection rate has been reported to increase to between 69% and 98%.

In patients with stage IV disease (initially unresectable), only 40% of these tumors were rendered resectable after four rounds of chemotherapy.

If the tumor is still unresectable, the patient needs to be evaluated and listed for a liver transplant.

SURGICAL TECHNIQUE
Though a detailed discussion regarding surgical technique is beyond the scope of this chapter, it is helpful to review several elements key to the performance of hepatectomies.

As aberrant hepatic arterial anatomy occurs in approximately one-third of patients and tumors can distort the hepatic anatomy, the most important element in the safe performance of a hepatectomy is the participation of an experienced liver surgeon.

Recent advances in surgical tools have increased the options for hepatic parenchymal division.

US-based tools such as the LigaSure (Covidian-Medtronics, Minneapolis, MN), the Cavitron Ultrasonic Surgical Aspirator (CUSA, Integra Life Sciences, Plainsboro, NJ), and the Harmonic Scalpel (Ethicon Endo-Surgery, Somerville, NJ) have found a role in effectively dividing liver tissue.

The water dissector ERBEJET (Erbe Electromedizin GmbH, Tubingen, Germany) and bipolar radiofrequency devices Habib 4X (RITA Medical Systems, Mountain View, CA) also have been used for this purpose.

In our center, hepatic parenchymal division is often achieved with serial firing of an endoscopic GIA stapler using medium/thick loads in conjunction with argon beam electrocautery.

Blood loss during the division of the hepatic parenchyma is minimized through the selective performance of a Pringle maneuver.

To minimize venous back-bleeding during right trisegmentectomy, the right and middle hepatic veins often can be identified, ligated, and divided prior to transecting the hepatic parenchyma.

Clear communication between the surgical and anesthesia teams is critical. Relaying information regarding ongoing blood loss, coagulopathy, and volume status to the anesthesia team optimizes the intraoperative care of the patient.

Guidelines from the most recent COG trial (AHEP-0731) recommend primary resection in patients with PRETEXT I and II tumors in whom it is possible to perform a segmentectomy or a nonextended lobectomy with an adequate margin.

The group at very low risk (PRETEXT I or II, PFH) undergo surgical resection alone.

Low-risk category patients (PRETEXT I or II, non-PFH) undergo primary resection followed by two cycles of CDDP, 5FU, and VCR chemotherapy.

In the COG trials, only 23% of the patients initially presented with PRETEXT I or II disease.

Patients with PRETEXT III (intermediate risk) are given adjuvant chemotherapy consisting of 2–4 cycles of primary chemotherapy with CDDP, 5FU, VRC, and doxorubicin before proceeding to surgery.

Patients assigned to the COG high-risk group are treated with two cycles of compressed CDDP in conjunction with irinotecan and temsirolimus followed by possible surgery.

After adjuvant chemotherapy, resection with either a lobectomy or trisegmentectomy is recommended for POSTTEXT I, II, and III patients with no venous involvement (−V, −P).

Several studies have demonstrated that only 30–50% of the patients achieve complete resection of the tumor at the initial procedure.

Some select centers will pursue what is termed an “extreme” resection in patients with PRETEXT IV and POST-TEXT III+V+P. Extreme resection is defined as any resection that results in less than 1% ratio of liver to patient weight or one that requires vascular reconstruction, additional extirpative/ablative procedures, or autotransplantation.

Several studies suggest that extreme resection can provide a survival benefit when performed in a center with expertise in complex hepatobiliary surgery and liver transplantation.

Because the efficacy of extreme resection remains controversial and because of the good outcomes associated with liver transplantation, any patient being evaluated for an extreme resection also must be considered for liver transplant.

If an anatomic complete resection by any means is not possible, it is recommended that patients with PRETEXT IV and POST-TEXT III+V+P be considered for liver transplantation following two rounds of adjuvant chemotherapy.

If a liver resection is elected, a paradox exists as to what to do if the resection is unsuccessful and microscopic residual disease is left after resection. The data from the COG, SIOPEL-1, and SIOPEL-2 studies indicate that microscopic residual disease after resection can be successfully treated with additional chemotherapy.

Conversely, several series have reported that the most common reason for tumor recurrence is either a gross or microscopically incomplete resection.

If local recurrence of the tumor occurs, the prognosis is poor.

Any resection has the potential to leave residual disease, but the risk is increased with extreme liver resections.

Survival outcomes are better for patients with extensive disease who undergo transplantation when compared with those who suffer tumor recurrence after undergoing a challenging liver resection.

Further, survival in patients who underwent liver transplantation after resection and tumor recurrence, so called rescue transplantation, has a survival rate of only 30% and is not recommended.

For these reasons, careful consideration must be given before proceeding with any liver resection, including an extreme resection.

HB commonly metastasizes to the lungs, and lung metastases are often present at diagnosis. Determining the status of lung metastases based on imaging studies alone can be challenging. Thoracoscopy and lung biopsy or resection may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

Similarly, determining the status of extrahepatic regional extension of HB also can be challenging, requiring either a laparoscopy or laparotomy with biopsies.

Because HB tends to be chemoresponsive, metastases and regional extension will often completely regress with several rounds of chemotherapy.

If the pulmonary metastases do not completely resolve with chemotherapy, current data suggest these patients should undergo a metastasectomy to remove remaining disease, either before or shortly after hepatic resection, and before consideration for transplantation.

The data on resection of recurrent pulmonary metastases are less optimistic. Though there is a role for resection of late pulmonary metastasis in patients who presented with stage I disease, pulmonary relapse in stage III and IV disease is associated with a poor prognosis that is not changed by lung resection.

The Pediatric Hepatic Malignancy International Therapeutic Trial (PHITT) design is based upon risk stratification to the four distinct HB patient groups. The groups are based on the prognostic factors defined in the previously described CHIC collaborative.

For this PHITT study, the very low risk group will undergo initial resection without pretreatment chemotherapy.

The low-risk group will be treated with CDDP monotherapy with a reduced number of cycles and early resection.

The intermediate-risk group will be randomized to either the C5VD regimen used in the AHEP0731 COG study or a dosecompressed regimen with CDDP every 2 weeks, followed by surgical resection.

The high-risk group will undergo a response-based consolidation chemotherapy regimen with carboplatin and doxorubicin or etoposide.

This PHITT trial is expected to accrue patients from January 2017 to December 2022.

Newer chemotherapy agents have recently been investigated for treating HB.

Topotecan has been shown to inhibit growth and neovascularization in a mouse model.

In addition, the suppressive effects of topotecan lasted several weeks after administration of the agent. Irinotecan is being studied for use in patients with recurrent disease and could potentially be used as a front-line chemotherapy agent.

High-dose chemotherapy with stem cell rescue has been attempted but has not been successful.

Another approach for the unresectable tumor is the use of adjunctive interventional radiology procedures such as preoperative transarterial chemoembolization (TACE), portal vein embolization, and radiofrequency ablation.

Further details regarding these techniques are reviewed within a separate section of this chapter.

H&A

48
Q

What are the indications and outcomes of transplantation for hepatoblastoma?

A

Orthotopic liver transplantation can be used to successfully treat unresectable hepatoblastoma with a recurrence-free survival rate of 79–92%.

In several series, a good initial response to chemotherapy has been shown to correlate with positive outcomes after transplantation.

In one series, only 60% of the patients who were poor responders are currently alive, with a follow-up of less than 1 year.

Following a maximum of four rounds of chemotherapy, the patient is re-imaged and a decision is made to attempt a complete tumor resection or proceed with workup for liver transplantation.

Bilobar, multifocal tumors at presentation are candidates for transplantation because, despite apparent radiologic clearing of a lobe after chemotherapy, microscopic disease can persist in the liver leading later to recurrent disease.

Patients who present with low AFP levels (<100 ng/mL) tend to respond poorly to chemotherapy and should be considered for either initial resection or transplantation.

Patients who have tumor extension into the IVC, all three hepatic veins, or the bifurcation of the portal vein are unlikely to sufficiently shrink their tumor with chemotherapy to allow a complete resection, and are transplant candidates.

Patients with extrahepatic metastases found on initial evaluation can be successfully treated with liver transplantation if the metastatic disease is eradicated before the transplant.

In most cases, metastasis status determination is made prior to the patient being placed on the active transplant list.

Clear contraindications to transplant include lung metastasis or regional disease that is not cleared by preoperative chemotherapy, as well as tumor persistence or recurrence after primary resection.

Transplantation after tumor recurrence, so called rescue transplant, has only demonstrated 30% survival and is not recommended.

Current United Network Organ Sharing (UNOS) policy allows HB patients to be listed as status 1B in order to maximize their chance of undergoing transplantation within 1 month of listing.

The goal of this policy is to limit the time between the last round of chemotherapy and transplantation to less than 4 weeks because up to 80% of HBs will develop drug resistance after four to five courses of chemotherapy.

Immediately prior to undergoing a liver transplant and accepting the donor organ, an exploratory thoracoscopy (if appropriate) and/or laparotomy must be performed in order to exclude the existence of metastatic or locally invasive disease. If metastatic disease is found, the transplant is called off and the organ is sent elsewhere.

Also, occasionally, a tumor can be found to be resectable at the pretransplant exploration, thereby obviating the need for transplant.

After transplant, the patient receives two rounds of chemotherapy. Although two post-transplant rounds of chemotherapy are currently utilized, one multicenter review noted no significant difference in survival rates between those patients who received chemotherapy (77%) versus those who did not (70%).

OUTCOMES

Outcomes for children with HB are based on the extent of the original tumor (PRETEXT), the tumor histology, and the tumor response to chemotherapy.

Several studies have shown a good outcome with fetal histology and with complete resection of the tumor.

Fetal tumors must have a histology in which the tumor has a mitotic activity of less than 2 per 10 high-power fields.

Conversely, several studies have consistently reported a poor outcome for those patients who have SCU HB.

Except for these data, no consistent correlation has been found with any of the other histologic patterns and patient outcomes.

The AFP level at diagnosis has been found to have prognostic implications. Patients with an AFP level less than 100 ng/mL or greater than 1 million ng/mL have a worse prognosis.

In one study, a low AFP was found in patients with SCU tumors, suggesting that a low AFP level could be related to a very primitive and poorly differentiated tumor that was unable to make AFP.

In another study, patients who had a slow decline in their AFP levels after resection or chemotherapy had a worse long-term prognosis than did those who had an early, very rapid decline (>99% drop in AFP levels).

The best survival rate in patients with HB is for those tumors with PFH. A recent COG study demonstrated that after complete surgical resection of a stage I tumor with PFH, the patient can be carefully monitored, with no further therapy. However, if an area of SCU is noted within an otherwise PFH tumor, aggressive chemotherapy should be instituted.

In another COG study the 3-year event-free survival (EFS) was 90% for stage I and II tumors, 50% for stage III tumors, and only 20% for stage IV tumors.

The European SIOPEL-2 study reported that the 3-year survival for standard-risk tumors was 90% and high-risk tumors was 50%.

These data compare favorably with those of a large German series that noted an EFS of 100% for stage I, 80% for stage II, and 68% for stage III disease.

None of the patients with stage IV disease in the German trial survived.

In another prospective study, the German group showed that the important prognostic factors for survival appeared to be the tumor growth pattern, vascular invasion, and serum AFP levels.

As the patients in the high-risk PRETEXT or COG trials have poor outcomes despite a complete surgical resection, additional or different chemotherapy regimens are necessary to improve patient survival in these groups.

Current studies are evaluating the possibility of modifying cellular or gene targets in HB cells that will make them more susceptible to chemotherapy.

Tumor rupture represents a management challenge, but it does not necessarily lead to metastatic or locally invasive disease. In one review, all three patients who survived the initial rupture demonstrated no evidence of recurrent disease and experienced a mean survival of 36 months. Even with clear radiographic signs of tumor rupture, no peritoneal growths were subsequently identified in any patient.

H&A

49
Q

What is the second most common Pediatric malignant liver tumor?

A

HCC is a relatively rare and highly malignant tumor that is more commonly seen in adults than in children. It is the second most common pediatric malignant liver tumor, constituting approximately 20% of the cases, but it makes up less than 0.5–1% of all pediatric tumors.

It occurs more commonly in boys and has an age-dependent incidence, with the peak between 10 and 15 years.

In the 1970s the EFS and overall survival (OS) were low, at approximately 30%. In the current era, the EFS and OS for patients with resectable HCC range from 70–90% due to improvements in chemotherapy and the operative technique.

The predisposing factors for HCC differ between children and adults. In adults, HCC is preceded by cirrhosis resulting from a spectrum of diseases causing hepatic inflammation and fibrosis. This spectrum includes hepatitis B and C viral infections, hemochromatosis, alcohol-related cirrhosis, nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Patients with these diseases are at a significantly increased risk for developing HCC, and it is recommended they undergo serial liver US and serum AFP screening levels every 6 months.

In contrast, pediatric HCC is not always preceded by cirrhosis. In most cases, no specific cause can be determined. Hepatitis B is linked to the development of HCC, and the risk in carriers is 10–25%.

In areas where hepatitis B is endemic, HCC ranks fifth in the causes of childhood malignancies and outnumbers HB by 3:1.

The importance of hepatitis B and the subsequent development of HCC in children is highlighted by the aggressive hepatitis B vaccination program that Taiwan initiated in 1984. When the mortality from pediatric (0–9 years old) HCC from 1984 was compared with 1993, there was a statistically significant decrease in HCC. Similar results have been found in Gambia. U.S.

Hepatitis C also has been linked to the development of HCC. In contrast to hepatitis B, the cirrhosis and the subsequent development of HCC in the hepatitis C population usually takes several decades to develop.

HCC in children has been associated with a variety of metabolic, familial, and infectious disorders, including tyrosinemia, α-1-antitrypsin deficiency, and hemochromatosis.

Patients with tyrosinemia are at a particularly high risk for developing HCC. Because of this high prevalence, it has been suggested that liver transplantation be performed before 2 years of age in these children.

HCC also has been seen in patients with type 1 GSD. Though most hepatic masses in patients with type 1 GSD are hepatic adenomas, carcinomas can occur as well.

Other noncirrhotic liver diseases that are associated with HCC include familial polyposis, Gardner syndrome, Sotos syndrome, Bloom syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Abernathy malformation, methotrexate therapy, and neonatal hepatitis.

Congenital hepatic inflammatory or fibrotic disorders associated with HCC include extrahepatic biliary atresia, congenital hepatic fibrosis, Alagille syndrome, and persistent familial intrahepatic cholestasis (PFIC).

This association between HCC and diseases that can lead to cirrhosis supports the practice of a screening protocol using liver US and AFP levels every 6 months.

Long-term use of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is also associated with increased rates of pediatric HCC.

H&A

50
Q

How is HCC diagnosed?

A

Clinical Presentation

Most patients with HCC present with an abdominal mass or abdominal pain. Other associated symptoms include nausea and vomiting, anorexia, malaise, and significant weight loss.

More than one-third of HCCs appear as multiple nodules rather than a single tumor.

In one study, 10% were seen initially with tumor rupture and hemoperitoneum.

Patients who experience spontaneous rupture of an HCC tumor present with acute right upper quadrant pain and can present with hypovolemic shock from intra-abdominal hemorrhage. The diagnosis of ruptured HCC can be made with US or abdominal CT.

If the patient is hemodynamically stable, treatment is conservative with volume resuscitation and correction of any associated coagulopathy. With a stable patient, a careful assessment of the tumor can be made with the goal of primary tumor resection.

In the patient with ongoing bleeding, transarterial embolization of the tumor can be performed to control the hemorrhage before proceeding to evaluation for resection.

Laboratory studies can reveal mild elevations in the asparate aminotransferase (AST) and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) levels.

AFP is elevated in 85% of patients with HCC, but normal or only mildly elevated AFP values can be found in patients with the fibrolamellar variant. An elevated AFP is associated with an increased risk for recurrence and therefore reflects a poorer prognosis.l

Imaging CT and MRI are both helpful for delineating HCC masses and determining resectability. Just as with HB, intravenous contrast abdominal CT enables visualization of the hepatic and portal venous systems, thereby allowing assessment of any vascular involvement.

The American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases has published criteria for the noninvasive diagnosis of HCC.

In nodules less than 2 cm in diameter within a cirrhotic liver, the diagnosis of HCC can be made without biopsy of the lesion if two axial imaging studies (CT/MRI) reveal arterial-phase hypervascularity followed by washout in the portal venous phase (Fig. 66.18).

Fibrolamellar variant HCC appears as a hypodense, single or multilobed mass on noncontrast CT. A contrast CT of a fibrolamellar HCC reveals variable perfusion with hypervascularity. In addition, a central hypodense or hypervascular area can be seen to mimic a central scar. This can create confusion between the diagnosis of the fibrolamellar variant and FNH. MRI may be helpful in distinguishing between these two diagnoses.

Histology HCC can vary in size from 2–25 cm, and the surrounding liver exhibits either micronodular or macronodular cirrhosis in up to 60% of cases.

Microscopically, the tumor is made up of trabeculae that are 2–10 cell layers in thickness, with the larger trabeculae at times displaying central necrosis.

Individual tumor cells are usually larger than normal hepatocytes with nuclear hypochromasia and demonstrate frequent and bizarre mitosis.

Vascular invasion may be prominent.

Tumors less than 2 cm are generally well differentiated.

As the tumor grows, the original tumor cells are replaced by poorly differentiated cell clones. With further enlargement, its blood supply becomes dependent on newly formed arterial vessels and less dependent on the portal circulation, leading to the hypervascular pattern that is the radiologic hallmark for HCC.

In the fibrolamellar variant, the hepatocytes are large, deeply eosinophilic, and embedded within a lamellar fibrosis. Clusters of cells are often separated by broad bands of laminated collagen.

The presence of large amounts of fibrosis alone is not sufficient to make the diagnosis of fibrolamellar HCC.

H&A

51
Q

How is HCC treated in children?

A

The treatment of HCC for stages I and II is complete surgical resection followed by chemotherapy.

The first SIOPEL study demonstrated that pediatric HCC is responsive to chemotherapy, with 50% of the children responding to cisplatinum and doxorubicin (this combination is referred to as PLADO).

If a complete, microscopically free, radical resection is possible, the prognosis is good, with an 80–90% survival.

In the German Society for Pediatric Oncology (GPOH) HB99 study (1999–2008), the 3-year EFS and OS after complete resection and two cycles of carboplatin and etoposide was 72% and 89%, respectively.

Similar results were found for patients undergoing chemotherapy and primary resection in the North American Intergroup Hepatoblastoma Study (INT-0098, 1989–1992), with a 5-year EFS of 88%.

Postresection chemotherapy has never been shown to be effective in preventing or treating recurrences in the Pediatric Oncology Group (POG), SIOPEL, or German studies.

Primary resection is not always possible due to either extensive bilobar tumors or underlying cirrhosis. In patients with cirrhosis, resection has the potential to leave the patient with insufficient hepatic mass to carry out the essential functions of the liver.

Primary resection rates range broadly from 10–63%.

The GPOH HB99 study demonstrated an EFS and OS for unresectable pediatric HCC of 12% and 20%, respectively.

Poor prognostic factors that significantly correlate with recurrence and poor outcomes after HCC resection include high tumor marker levels (α-fetoprotein >100 ng/mL), poorly differentiated histology, a high Ki-67 index (>20%), large tumor size (>5 cm), vascular invasion, and low microvascular density.

Also, serosal invasion has been shown to be significantly correlated with HCC recurrence.

New chemotherapeutic approaches are needed for this tumor, and currently studies are planned that will combine chemotherapeutic agents with antiangiogenic agents.

Sorafenib has been shown to significantly improve progression-free survival in adult HCC patients. In a limited trial, the addition to sorafenib to PLADO was effective in slowing tumor progression and achieving a partial response in children with unresectable HCC.

An important variable that deserves special mentioning is fibrolamellar HCC. The fibrolamellar HCC subtype was first recognized in the 1980s based on its unique histologic appearance and clinical behavior.

This lesion is characterized by relatively slow growth and occurs almost exclusively in individuals without hepatic cirrhosis.

The fibrolamellar variant usually occurs in adolescents and young adults, with a peak incidence in the second decade of life.

It accounts for 16–50% of HCC diagnosed in patients younger than 21 years of age. In contrast to conventional HCC, fibrolamellar HCC is not associated with risk factors such as cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis B infection. However, an association does exist between FNH and the fibrolamellar variant HCC.

The results after resection for fibrolamellar HCC in adults are very good, with a 50% 5-year survival. However, after apparent curative resections, recurrences or metastases can occur after very long disease-free intervals.

There appears to be no survival benefit associated with the fibrolamellar variant in children.

The outcome for patients with HCC, regardless of the treatment modality, is still not as good as the outcome for HB.

Ongoing efforts to improve survival in pediatric patients with HCC are focused on exploring advances in chemotherapy regimens to prevent tumor recurrence.

H&A

52
Q

What are indications for transplantation in HCC?

A

Transplantation for Hepatocellular Carcinoma

Just as in adults, liver transplantation has been found to be an effective curative therapy for management of pediatric HCC.

Two selection criteria are currently being used to evaluate the potential for recurrence after adult liver transplantation for HCC (Table 66.10).

The Milan criteria (tumor <5 cm diameter or a maximum of three tumors, none greater than 3 cm diameter, and no vascular invasion or extrahepatic involvement) is widely recognized as a good predictor of a low recurrence rate after transplantation.

However, since HCC can be a rapidly growing tumor, it is possible for the tumor to exceed these criteria before an organ becomes available.

Subsequently, The University of California at San Francisco (UCSF) developed expanded acceptable criteria for a liver transplant (tumor <6.5 cm diameter or a maximum of three tumors, with none greater than 4.5 cm diameter, and cumulative tumor diameter <8 cm) that allowed for a greater pretransplant tumor burden while still having a low post-transplant recurrence rate.

Several studies have supported the use of the UCSF criteria.

The Milan and UCSF criteria have not been verified in children.

The practice guidelines generated by both the American Association of Transplantation and the Society for Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology, and Nutrition recommend that liver transplantation be considered for any pediatric patient with unresectable HCC and no extrahepatic tumor or clear vascular invasion, without specific regard to the number and size of the HCC tumors.

The decision to proceed with liver transplant evaluation in pediatric patients with HCC has to be made on an individual, case-by-case basis.

Two absolute contraindications to transplantation for HCC in children are extrahepatic spread and macroscopic vascular invasion.

The SIOPEL-1 study reported no long-term survivors among those who failed to respond to chemotherapy.

Therefore, the lack of response to preoperative chemotherapy is a relative contraindication to transplantation.

Despite these constraints, liver transplantation in children with unresectable HCC has a very good 5-year survival rate between 63% and 89%.

Both adult and pediatric patients are afforded exception points for HCC in the UNOS matching system to enable transplantation before tumor progression.

In contrast to patients with HB, liver transplantation is an appropriate treatment option for patients with HCC who experience a recurrence after a resection.

Posttransplant survival after HCC recurrence is comparable to that of patients who underwent a primary transplant for HCC.

Patients who are not surgical or transplant candidates can potentially benefit from adjunctive interventional procedures that afford local tumor control.

Procedures such as percutaneous ethanol injection, radiofrequency ablation, or chemoembolization of the tumor have proven to be effective in decreasing or eradicating tumors, treating recurrent tumors, or shrinking tumors so that the patient again falls within the formal (Milan/UCSF) transplant criteria.

Though such interventional procedures can improve survival, they are not curative.

The outcome for patients with HCC, regardless of the treatment modality, is still not as good as the outcome for HB.

Further improvements in survival for HCC will come from advances in chemotherapy regimens that will prevent tumor recurrences.

H&A

53
Q

The most common malignant tumour of the liver in the paediatric population is:

A metastatic lesion
B hepatoblastoma
C hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
D infantile haemangioendothelioma
E sarcoma.

A

A

metastatic tumours are the most common malignant neoplasms of the liver.

These include Wilms’s tumour, lymphoma and neuroblastoma.

Primary hepatic tumours represent only 1%–4% of all solid tumours in children.

Hepatoblastoma is the most common malignant primary hepatic tumour and accounts for almost half of all primary hepatic tumours, both malignant and benign.

HCCs and sarcomas account for the second and third most common malignant tumours respectively.

Infantile haemangioendothelioma is a benign hepatic neoplasm. It is the most common benign hepatic neoplasm.

Infantile haemangioendothelioma is also the most common neoplasm of the liver in the first year of life.

SPSE 1

54
Q

Which one of the following imaging characteristics is diagnostic for focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)?

A abnormal increase in activity on red blood cell blood-pool scan

B single, hyperattenuating lesion on CT

C solid appearance on ultrasonography, but cystic appearance on CT

D multiseptate, multicystic, anechoic mass at periphery of the liver on CT

E early enhancement on CT with intravenous contrast and a central scar

A

E

FNH presents at a mean age of seven. The majority of these benign neoplasms are found incidentally.

FNH characteristically appears on CT as a lesion with early contrast enhancement.

Although not always seen, the presence of a central scar is diagnostic.

These characteristics can also be seen with HCC, so care must be taken to further workup and differentiate the two neoplasms.

Infantile haemangioendothelioma has an abnormal increase in activity on a red blood cell blood-pool scan, which is both specific and sensitive for these benign hepatic neoplasms.

Hepatocellular adenoma usually occurs as a single lesion. Because of the presence of fat within the neoplasm it appears as a hyperattenuating lesion on CT.

A solid appearance on ultrasound and a cystic appearance on CT or mRI is characteristic of undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma.

mesenchymal hamartoma is usually a multiseptated, multicystic, anechoic mass in the liver periphery on ultrasound or CT.

SPSE 1

55
Q

Which one of the following is not usually associated with multiple infantile haemangioendothelioma?

A other liver tumours

B hepatomegaly

C congestive cardiac failure

D anaemia

E cutaneous haemangiomas

A

A

The majority of infantile haemangioendotheliomas will present in the first 2 months of life.

These neoplasms commonly occur with hepatomegaly, congestive heart failure (CHF), respiratory distress and anaemia.

Some patients will have congenital hypothyroidism.

The classic triad of hepatomegaly, CHF and anaemia or other cutaneous haemangiomas occurs in 80% of infants who harbour multiple hepatic haemangiomas.

In addition to cutaneous haemangiomas, haemangiomas can occur in the lung, pancreas, lymph nodes and bone.

Infantile haemangioendothelioma can be seen in conjunction with FNH, but other liver lesions are not common.

SPSE 1

56
Q

Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial management for infantile haemangioendothelioma?

A resection of an asymptomatic lesion due to malignancy risk

B surgical resection once respiratory compromise or coagulopathy develops

C initial treatment of a symptomatic lesion with steroids

D embolisation of asymptomatic lesions to avoid potential associated symptoms

E thyroidectomy once the diagnosis is made and other systemic symptoms are appropriately managed

A

C

Infantile haemangioendotheliomas tend to grow over the first year of life then regress spontaneously.

Asymptomatic haemangioendotheliomas are monitored, but patients should be screened for hypothyroidism.

Those with multiple lesions should also be screened for intracranial or pulmonary lesions.

Patients presenting with CHF, coagulopathy or respiratory compromise have a significant mortality risk.

In addition to treatment focused on the presenting symptoms, steroids are used to treat the haemangioma.

Almost half will resolve with a prednisone dose of 2–3 mg/kg/day.

If steroids fail after administration for 1–2 weeks, then a trial of alpha-interferon is begun.

Alpha-interferon is indicated in patients with Kasabach–merritt’s syndrome.

Surgical resection can be considered for residual lesions (as there is a reported risk of malignant transformation to angiosarcoma), but is not the correct initial management for an asymptomatic or symptomatic haemangioma.

Embolisation is being used to treat these lesions more frequently, especially in unstable patients.

Embolisation is not indicated in asymptomatic lesions.

Thyroidectomy does not have a role in management, but patients should be screened for hypothyroidism since this can complicate management if missed.

SPSE 1

57
Q

Historically, the subtype of hepatoblastoma with the worst prognosis is:

A pure fetal

B small cell undifferentiated

C macrotrabecular

D mixed epithelial and mesenchymal pattern

E embryonal.

A

B

Hepatoblastoma has been divided into six different subtypes based on histology.

All are listed in the options with mixed epithelial and mesenchymal pattern being further divided into those with or without teratoid features.

Historically, the pure fetal type has been associated with the best prognosis.

The small cell undifferentiated subtype carries the worst prognosis.

SPSE 1

58
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding hepatoblastoma?

A Alpha-fetaprotein (AFP) levels are elevated in up to 90%.

B Complete surgical removal at initial presentation is possible in more than 65% of cases.

C It is associated with Budd–Chiari’s syndrome, Gardner’s syndrome and trisomy 18.

D Complete surgical removal can be improved with chemotherapy.

E It most commonly presents as an asymptomatic right upper quadrant mass.

A

B

one of the hallmarks of hepatoblastoma is its association with a variety of clinical conditions, syndromes and malformations.

Beckwith–Wiedemann’s syndrome has a strong association, and patients must be monitored for its coexistence using ultrasound and AFP levels.

A short list of other conditions includes extreme prematurity, Budd–Chiari’s syndrome trisomy 18, familial adenomatous polyposis, Gardner’s syndrome, and neurofibromatosis.

Hepatoblastoma most commonly presents as an asymptomatic right upper quadrant mass.

Sexual precocity can be a presenting feature in those producing human chorionic gonadotropin.

up to 90% of hepatoblastoma patients have an elevated AFP level.

The levels decrease to normal in 4–8 weeks after a complete surgical resection.

AFP levels can be used after resection as a monitoring tool.

Complete surgical resection is possible in less than half the cases at initial presentation, but chemotherapy can improve the complete resection rate to greater than 70%.

Improved resection rates are seen with both delayed and second-look surgery.

SPSE 1

59
Q

A 7-year-old male presents with a right upper quadrant mass associated with some discomfort. Physical examination confirms a large liver mass. Extensive workup reveals a normal laboratory panel. Ultrasound demonstrates a solid 18 cm mass. CT shows a cystic mass within the right lobe of the liver. The child’s most likely diagnosis is:

A HCC

B hepatoblastoma

C FNH

D mesenchymal hamartoma

E undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma.

A

E

undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma typically presents in children aged 6–10 years of age.

It is an extremely malignant lesion associated with a poor outcome.

It most commonly presents with right upper quadrant or epigastric pain.

A mass may or may not be felt on physical exam.

These tumours typically occur in the right lobe of the liver and measure 14–21 cm at the time of diagnosis.

laboratory studies are usually normal. Workup will reveal a solid mass on ultrasound, but a cystic appearance on CT or mRI.

Treatment involves a radical surgical resection. Survival rates have improved with chemotherapy.

SPSE 1

60
Q

A 7-year-old male presents with a right upper quadrant mass associated with some discomfort. Physical examination confirms a large liver mass. Extensive workup reveals a normal laboratory panel. Ultrasound demonstrates a solid 18 cm mass. CT shows a cystic mass within the right lobe of the liver.

Which one of the following is true regarding this patient?

A Survival rates are improved to 66% with a combination of surgery and chemotherapy.

B AFP is an important monitoring tool after resection and adjuvant chemotherapy.

C Small lesions are managed with chemotherapy alone.

D Oral contraceptives and exogenous androgens are common aetiologies of this lesion.

E This malignancy is often associated with Beckwith–Wiedemann’s syndrome.

A

A

undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma, despite historically poor outcomes, is very chemotherapy sensitive.

Sarcoma-type protocols have improved survival up to 66%.

Survival is around 37% in patients who present with free intraperitoneal rupture.

AFP levels are usually normal.

observation is not appropriate for this malignant lesion and aggressive treatment with surgery and chemotherapy is needed to improve survival.

oral contraceptives and exogenous androgens can cause FNH or hepatocellular adenoma.

Beckwith–Wiedemann’s syndrome is seen in children with Wilms’s tumour and hepatoblastoma.

SPSE 1

61
Q

Which of the following is not associated with paediatric HCC?

A haemochromatosis

B portal vein thrombosis

C hepatitis

D biliary atresia

E familial adenomatous polyposis

A

B

HCC is the second most common paediatric hepatic tumour, but comprises less than 1% of all paediatric cancers.

Cirrhosis is the known predisposing factor in the adult population, but the aetiology is different in children.

HCC in the paediatric population follows a variety of metabolic, infectious, congenital and familial disorders.

metabolic disorders include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, haemochromatosis, and type I and III glycogen storage diseases.

Hepatitis B and C are infectious disorders associated with the malignancy, especially hepatitis B in areas where this infection is endemic.

Congenital abnormalities such as biliary atresia, congenital hepatic fibrosis and Alagille’s syndrome have an association with HCC.

The association with biliary atresia is strong enough that a screening protocol with hepatic ultrasound and serum AFP levels is recommended.

Familial disorders such as familial adenomatous polyposis, Gardner’s syndrome and neurofibromatosis have shown an association with HCC.

SPSE 1

62
Q

Which of following is not a likely complication of mesenchymal hamartoma?

A high-output cardiac failure

B fetal hydrops

C pulmonary hypertension

D rupture

E respiratory distress

A

D

most of the growth of mesenchymal hamartoma occurs just before or just after birth.

Prognosis of neonates with this benign hepatic lesion is often poor.

The rapid growth of the neoplasm is felt to be related to the development of fetal hydrops and resulting high mortality.

The presentation can also be of high-output cardiac failure with associated pulmonary hypertension.

Respiratory distress can occur secondary to mass effect.

Tumour rupture is a rare complication.

Reports have demonstrated spontaneous involution with observation, while others have shown rare transformation into undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma.

When possible, complete surgical excision is curative and is the recommended treatment.

SPSE 1

63
Q

Which of the following is not a goal of preoperative radiological workup of potentially resectable hepatic neoplasms?

A judging response to neo-adjuvant chemotherapy

B assessing for the presence of metastatic disease

C predicting prognosis and need for adjuvant therapy in resectable cases

D evaluating tumour extension into adjacent organs or vascular structures

E evaluating tumour extent and predicting remnant liver volume

A

C

Preoperative radiological workup is imperative when considering surgical resection of hepatic neoplasms.

Assessing for metastatic disease that would preclude resection will help prevent unnecessary exploration.

Similarly, tumour extension into adjacent organs or vascular structures that may preclude resection can be evaluated.

Neoplasms that may initially appear unresectable on imaging but are known to be responsive to chemotherapy can be monitored radiologically, and their response to chemotherapy and altered potential for resection can be evaluated.

When a large portion of functional hepatic tissue needs to be resected for a clear margin, radiological workup can help predict remnant liver volume to ensure adequate postoperative liver function.

Prognosis cannot be determined by radiological studies.

SPSE 1

64
Q

Which of the following represents correct management of a hepatocellular adenoma?

A cessation of oral contraceptives in a 16-year-old female

B prompt operation in a patient with a ruptured hepatocellular adenoma

C observation of a 7 cm hepatocellular adenoma

D observation of a ruptured hepatocellular adenoma less than 5 cm diameter, after the patient has stabilised

E selective resection of adenomas in a patient with type I glycogenstorage disease (GSD)

A

A

Hepatocellular adenoma is rare in the paediatric population and is most commonly known for its appearance in women in their twenties on oral contraceptives.

These lesions in the paediatric population are generally asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally.

There is a risk of spontaneous rupture and symptomatic presentation, albeit the risk is very small.

Initial management includes withdrawal of any potential causative medications, and observation.

Surgical resection is reserved for lesions that grow during a period of observation, for those with evidence of intralesional haemorrhage, for adenomas larger than 5 cm and those in which the diagnosis is unclear.

When operating for tumour rupture, elective resection should follow a period of non-operative monitoring and haemodynamic support if the patient’s condition allows.

In patients with type I GSD with multiple adenomas, hepatic transplantation should be considered because of the risk of developing HCC in this patient population.

SPSE 1

65
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding hepatic resection?

A The Pringle manoeuvre should be limited to 20 minutes.

B Extended right hepatic lobectomy includes resection of segments I and IV through VIII.

C Hepatic arterial variations are of no surgical importance.

D Transverse and subcostal incisions are both acceptable approaches to hepatic lobectomy.

E When performing a left hepatic lobectomy, care must be taken to identify the variable insertion of the middle hepatic vein.

A

C

When performing a liver resection both transverse and subcostal incisions provide adequate exposure.

The surgeon must be familiar with the anatomy and identification of displaced or accessory hepatic arteries.

Damage or ligation of these vessels can result in irrreversible ischaemia of the remnant liver tissue and resulting liver failure.

Similarly, knowledge of variations of the middle hepatic vein insertion is of utmost importance during left hepatic lobectomy to avoid devastating haemorrhage.

This area is extremely difficult to expose and control haemorrhage. The Pringle manoeuvre is an important method of controlling intraoperative haemorrhage.

The manoeuvre should be limited to 20 minutes to avoid hepatic ischaemia and postoperative liver failure.

SPSE 1

66
Q

A 3-year-old female is being evaluated for new-onset jaundice. On physical exam a mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant. Ultrasound reveals a 9 cm mass within the right hepatic lobe. The mass appears to involve the right hepatic duct and proximal ductal dilatation is seen. The most likely diagnosis is:

A rhabdomyosarcoma

B HCC

C undifferentiated embryonal sarcoma

D infantile haemangioendothelioma

E hepatoblastoma.

A

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma, although the most common sarcoma in children, is a rare liver tumour.

The median age at presentation is 3 years of age.

The neoplasm arises in the intrahepatic biliary system and then invades the hepatic parenchyma.

Because of its origin the most common presenting symptom is jaundice.

Elevated direct bilirubin, transaminases and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidases are common laboratory findings.

SPSE 1

67
Q

A 3-year-old female is being evaluated for new-onset jaundice. On physical exam a mass is palpated in the right upper quadrant. Ultrasound reveals a 9 cm mass within the right hepatic lobe. The mass appears to involve the right hepatic duct and proximal ductal dilatation is seen.

Which one of the following is true regarding the lesion identified?

A Adequate resection is possible in 69%–81% of patients after a multidisciplinary approach.

B Lymphatic spread is a rare finding.

C Hepatitis B is a common predisposing factor in endemic areas.

D Alpha-fetoprotein is an important monitoring tool after resection.

E Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC) can be useful preoperatively.

A

E

Complete resection of rhabdomyosarcoma is possible in only 20%–40% of patients because of tumour spread and invasion into other organs.

Surgery, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are needed in a multidisciplinary approach to maximise adequate resection rates.

lymphatic spread is not uncommon due to the aggressive nature of this neoplasm.

PTC can aid in evaluating the tumour extent within the biliary system.

PTC also provides a means of external drainage to treat the obstructive jaundice.

Hepatitis B is a predisposing factor of HCC.

AFP is a diagnostic and monitoring tool after resection of hepatoblastoma.

SPSE 1

68
Q

Regarding the surgical anatomy of the liver, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

A Right hepatic trisegmentectomy includes segment III.

B In up to 18% of cases the right hepatic artery arises from the superior mesenteric artery and ascends to the porta hepatis on the left side of the common bile duct.

C A preduodenal portal vein precludes effective vascular control at the porta hepatis.

D The middle hepatic vein usually runs from left to right between segments III and VII to empty into the inferior vena cava.

E Left trisegmentectomy may be curative for solitary tumours limited to segments III, IV and V.

A

E

Right hepatic trisegmentectomy (also called extended right lobectomy) includes segments V, VI, VII, VIII, as well as IV on the left side of Cantlie’s line.

Segment I may or may not be included. An aberrant right hepatic artery, which may be accessory or replacing, does arise from the superior mesenteric artery.

It then ascends to the liver on the right side of the common bile duct, not the left, where the normal common hepatic artery usually stays.

There are fewer than 100 case reports of preduodenal portal vein in the literature. It is usually an incidental finding and has no practical bearing on the surgical anatomy of the liver.

The middle hepatic vein runs from right to left and superiorly along, or across segment IV.

left trisegmentectomy (extended left lobectomy) includes everything to the left of Cantlie’s line, as well as segments V and VIII – leaving segments VI and VII.

Preservation of segment VIII, if uninvolved, may be feasible; however, the operation is technically more difficult.

SPSE 1

69
Q

Regarding extensive liver resections, which of the following is not a likely/expected physiological complication?

A tendency towards persistent hypoglycaemia

B transient encephalopathic features

C prolonged hypoalbuminaemia

D need for clotting factor replacement

E hyperuricaemia

A

E

The liver has a crucial position in intermediary metabolism.

It plays a profound role in the maintenance of blood sugar because of its role in gluconeogenesis, glycogenesis and glycolysis.

If liver mass is below a critical level, persistent hypoglycaemia is a real danger.

Hence, the need to closely monitor blood sugar levels after massive liver resections.

Acute liver failure with encephalopathy can be a consequence of acute and massive reduction in liver mass.

Almost all serum proteins – including albumin and clotting factors – are synthesised in the liver.

uric acid is the end-product of organic base catabolism from nucleic acids. Gout and kidney failure can lead to hyperuricaemia.

liver failure does not affect the level. In any case impaired liver function will tend to produce less uric acid.

SPSE 1