Inflammatory Bowel Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the common types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in children?

A

Classic IBD consists of Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC).

Unclassified IBD (IBD-U) is of increasing importance, and must be diagnosed accurately to reduce the risk of inappropriate surgical interventions for the incorrect type of IBD.

Approximately 10–15% of pediatric patients will be diagnosed with IBD-U, as they cannot be definitively categorized with CD or UC.

A diagnosis of indeterminate colitis (IC) may only be used in the situation in which a colectomy has been performed, and the distinction between CD and UC still remains uncertain.

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2
Q

What are the predisposing risk factors for Crohn’s disease?

A

Crohn’s disease is most likely the result of an interplay between genetic susceptibility, exposure to environmental factors, and intestinal microflora.

The result is an abnormal mucosal immune response, leading to compromised epithelial barrier function and adaptive immune dysregulation.

A family history of CD is seen in up to 12% of patients at diagnosis, though this rate may change during the patient’s life.

Ashkenazi Jews exhibit a 3–4 times increased risk of developing the disease.

There is an increasing number of alleles that have been associated with pediatric CD.

Commonly detected variants in the risk loci for both CD and UC are able to explain only a small fraction of the expected heritability.

Causative genes include NOD2, IL23R, CARD9 and RNF186.

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3
Q

What are the predisposing risk factors for ulcerative colitis?

A

Similar to CD, UC is most likely the result of an interplay between genetic susceptibility, exposure to environmental factors, and intestinal microflora [1].

The estimated prevalence of IBD among family members with UC is 8–12%.

The advent of Genome Wide Association Study (GWAS) has led to greater understanding of the links between HLA loci and UC.

Strong associations have been shown with HLA DRB1, HLA DQA1 and HLA-DRB*01:03 [2].

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4
Q

When does inflammatory bowel disease most commonly affect children?

A

Approximately 25% of IBD patients will present before the age of 20 years.

The peak onset in children is during adolescence, with a pediatric incidence of 10 per 100,000 children in USA and Canada [1].

Pediatric UC has a tendency to have more extensive disease than adult-onset UC at the time of diagnosis.

However, the gene expression in adult and pediatric patients is shared.

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5
Q

What are the extra-intestinal symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Dermatological: Erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenous

Musculoskeletal: Arthritis, growth failure, osteopenia, osteoporosis, ankylosing spondylitis

Hepatic: Primary sclerosing cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis

Ocular: Episcleritis, uveitis, iritis

Renal: Nephrolithiasis

Pancreatic: Pancreatitis

Hematological: Anemia, venous thromboembolism

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6
Q

What is very early onset inflammatory bowel disease (VEO-IBD)?

A

The age at onset of IBD is intimately linked with the clinical presentations and progression of the disease.

Pediatric-onset IBD (<17years), early-onset IBD (<10years), VEO-IBD (<6years), infantile-onset IBD (<2years), and neonatal-onset IBD (<28 days) may all present in different ways with regards to disease location and severity.

Children with onset during the neonatal or infantile periods suffer from a more severe disease course, are known to have higher rates of affected first-degree relatives, and are more resistant to immunosuppressive therapies.

In addition, it has been demonstrated that patients with VEO-IBD have an increased gene-variant burden, compared with patients that are older at diagnosis.

It is important to consider a potential immunodeficiency syndrome in children with VEO-IBD, due to the high prevalence of gastrointestinal symptoms in children with an immunodeficiency.

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7
Q

Describe the common laboratory findings in patients with inflammatory bowel disease.

A

According to the European Society of Pediatric Gastroenterology, Hepatology and Nutrition (ESPGHAN), initial blood tests should include a complete blood count, at least two inflammatory markers, albumin, transaminases and ƴGT. It has been established that fecal calprotectin is superior for the detection of intestinal inflammation to any blood investigation.

The sensitivity for fecal calprotectin in the diag- nosis of IBD has been shown to be as high as 0.97.

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8
Q

How has the radiological investigation of patients with inflammatory bowel disease changed in the last decade?

A

The radiological investigation of pediatric IBD has been significantly altered in the last decade by the increasing utilization of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

The main advantage of MRI, particularly in the pediatric population, is the avoid- ance of ionizing radiation.

Pelvic MRI is particularly useful in the assessment of perianal disease, which is a common presenting feature in pediatric CD.

Whilst upper gastrointestinal contrast studies (small bowel follow-through) were previously the mainstay of small bowel imaging, magnetic resonance enterography (MRE) is now considered the modality of choice for evaluation of the small bowel.

This is particularly useful when assessing children prior to colectomy, as the presence and extent of small bowel disease is critical to operative planning.

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9
Q

How do the endoscopic findings differ between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis?

A
CROHN'S
Fistulae often present
Usually spared
Skip lesions Cobble-stone appearance
Involvement common (>25%) Ulceration
ULCERATIVE COLITIS
Rare to have anal lesions
Present in rectum in the majority
Contiguous Circumferential (Colon)
Backwash ileitis (10%) 
Spared Esophagus
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10
Q

What are the standardized scoring systems for pediatric inflammatory bowel disease?

A

The pediatric Crohn’s disease activity index (PCDAI) was developed in 1991 by Hyams and colleagues to provide a reproducible stratification system for disease severity [3].

The components of the PCDAI include:
(1) subjective recall of symptoms (abdominal pain, stool frequency and character, general well-being);

(2) objective measures (gender, age, hematocrit, ESR, albumin); and;
(3) examination findings (weight, height, abdomen, perianal disease, extra-intestinal manifestations).

The combined score may then be used to determine the severity of disease (<10=remission, 11–30=mild disease, >30=moderate/severe).

The PCDAI has been shown to closely correlate with the global assessment performed by physicians, and may be used to assess the effect of treatments.

The pediatric ulcerative colitis activity index (PUCAI) was developed in 2007 by Turner and colleagues. [4]

The authors sought to create a non-invasive activity index of UC that was reproducible, and accurately assessed response to treatment.

The components of the PUCAI include:

(1) abdominal pain;
(2) rectal bleeding;
(3) stool consistency;
(4) stool frequency;
(5) nocturnal stools; and;
(6) activity level.

The combined score may then be used to determine the severity of disease (<10 = remission, 11–34 = mild disease, 35–64 = moderate; 65–85 = severe). In addition, a change in the PUCAI score ≥20 was defined as significant.

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11
Q

Describe the medical management of a pediatric patient with inflammatory bowel disease.

A

The introduction of biologic therapies, with a greater focus upon targeting of the immune system, has radically altered the management of pediatric IBD.

These therapies, including anti-TNF agents and monoclonal antibodies to lymphocytes and interleukins, now augment the more traditional treatments in pediatric patients.

The predominant goals of medical therapy are control of symptoms, induction and maintenance of remission, and avoidance of complications (stricture, fistula, abscess, malignancy).

The mainstays of therapy include:

(1) corticosteroids (largely used for induction therapy);
(2) 5-aminosalicylates (exert a topical immunomodulatory and anti-inflammatory effect);
(3) thiopurines (immunosuppressive agents effective in maintaining remission);
(4) methotrexate (immunomodulator effective at inducing and maintaining remission);
(5) exclusive enteral nutrition (useful in induction, but rarely tolerated for prolonged periods); and;
(6) biologics (used in both induction and maintenance).

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12
Q

Is the use of Infliximab associated with an increased risk of long-term malignancy?

A

Biologic agents have transformed the management of pediatric IBD, with particular efficacy in children with perianal and fistulizing disease [4].

However, there have been concerns regarding the potential increased risk of malignancy associated with prolonged administration.

Hyams and colleagues demonstrated, in a large prospective study of 5766 pediatric IBD patients, that there was no increased risk of malignancy, nor development of hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, with infliximab [5].

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13
Q

What are the nutritional implications for children with inflammatory bowel disease?

A

A detailed and purposeful approach to nutrition in children with IBD is essential to reduce the long-term risks of the disease, and should be an integral part of the follow-up of pediatric IBD patients.

Children with IBD exhibit greater risks for malnutrition and impaired linear growth, as well as self-imposed food elimina- tion diets.

In addition, steroid therapies are well known to exert a direct effect on patient growth.

During periods of active disease, it may be required to further supplement macronutrients, including proteins, carbohydrates and fats.

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14
Q

Which children with Crohn’s disease require operative intervention?

A

The requirement for operative intervention in pediatric CD has decreased significantly due to the marked improvements in medical management of the disease.

However, one-third of children with CD will still require an operation within 5 years of diagnosis for variable indications, including fistula formation, stricturing and/or bowel obstruction [6].

Unlike UC, operative interventions in CD are palliative, and preservation of bowel length is critical.

Children with CD may require elective or emergency operative interventions.

Elective indications include stricture formation, enteric fistula formation, failure to comply with medical therapy, complications related to medical therapy, growth retardation, and delayed puberty.

Emergency indications include perforation, complete small bowel obstruction, hemorrhage, abscess formation and/or generalized peritonitis.

Proximal diversion, with the formation of a temporary ileostomy within unaffected ileum, may be useful to reduce the inflammatory load in children with significant colonic disease.

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15
Q

Which children with ulcerative colitis require operative intervention?

A

Unlike CD, UC is a mucosal disease confined to the colon and rectum and is, therefore, able to be cured with resection.

In addition, UC carries a greater risk of developing cancer related to colitis, with 5% of patients affected.

Children with UC may require elective or emergency operative intervention, with up to 45% of all patients requiring surgery at some stage.

Elective indications include children with active or steroid-dependent UC, failure of maximal medical therapy, and/or colonic dysplasia.

These patients require a procto-colectomy, J-pouch formation and ileal pouch-anal anastomosis, with sparing of the dentate line.

The majority of surgeons will employ a two-stage procedure, with covering ileostomy formation, dependent upon the age of the patient and the duration of disease.

Emergency indications include colonic perforation, severe rectal bleeding, and/ or toxic megacolon.

In these settings, an abdominal colectomy with ileostomy formation and retention of a Hartmann pouch, will reduce the long-term risks for the patient.

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16
Q

What are the psychological impacts of pediatric inflammatory bowel disease?

A

The psychological impact of IBD in children and adolescents should not be underestimated.

Potential risk factors for increased psychological morbidity include an older age at diagnosis, a lower socioeconomic status, female gender in adolescent patients, increased severity of disease, and use of corticosteroids. Increased psychological morbidity may lead to poorer medication compliance, increased episodes of abdominal pain, and increased utilization of antidepressant medications.

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17
Q

A 17-year-old female presents with a 5-day history of vague lower abdominal pain and increased urinary urgency and fre-quency. She has also noticed bubbles of air in her urine, which is mal-odorous. She thinks she has lost about 5 pounds (2 kg) over the past 2 months because she is simply not hungry. Further, every time she eats she develops abdominal pain. The patient denies any trauma, use of medications, or any past serious illness. To further evaluate this patient, what is the study of choice?
Choices:
1. Blood cultures
2. Colonoscopy
3. CT abdomen
4. Dye injection in the rectum

A

Answer: 3 - CT abdomen
Explanations:
• This patient may have Crohn disease and has developed an enter-ovesical fistula.
•Sometimes the inflamed bowel will fistulize with the bladder and present with air in the urine, pneumaturia.
•One can do cystoscopy, fistulography, or colonoscopy to look for a fistula within the bladder.
• However, CT can help assess for Crohn disease and possible fistulas.
CT scan is very sensitive for peri-fistular inflammation.

StatPearls

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18
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Crohn’s disease?

A Between 10% and 20% of children have inflammation in the colon only.

B 70% of children with the disease have inflammation of the lower part of the ileum.

C In about 15%–20% of people, the disease runs in the family.

D Mutations in one gene, called CARD15, are present in about 40% of people with Crohn’s disease.

E All of the above.

A

E

In about 15%–20% of people, the disease runs in the family. This is especially true of people who develop the disease at a younger age.

Several genes have been linked to the disease, but there is no clear pattern to how these genes interact to cause the disease.

mutations in one gene, called CARD15, are present in about 40% of people with Crohn’s disease. However, this gene is also frequently present in healthy people who never develop this disease.

As many as 70% of children with the disease have inflammation of the lower part of the ileum. more than half of these children also have inflammation in variable segments of the colon.

About 10%–20% of children have inflammation in the colon only.

Another 10%–15% have inflammation scattered around the small bowel, mainly in the middle section (jejunum and upper ileum).

A very small number have inflammation only in the stomach and the duodenum.

SPSE 1

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a routine investigation to detect Crohn’s disease?

A upper GI endoscopy
B ileo colonoscopy
C inflammatory markers
D barium enema
E all of the above

A

D

Because of advances in diagnostic modalities, barium enema is not routinely performed in Crohn’s disease.

When endoscopic intubation of the intestine is not possible, radiological studies are necessary to determine disease extent and location.

Small-bowel enema for small-bowel disease and double contrast barium enema for large-bowel disease are recommended.

Complementary imaging procedures may be performed, including ultrasonography, CT, and/or MRI.

Differentiation between inflammatory and fibrostenotic bowel stenosis would be very helpful, but current techniques do not permit an accurate distinction.

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20
Q

Which of the following investigations is least helpful in the diagnosis of Crohn’s disease?

A ileo colonoscopy
B ultrasound for pelvic collection
C wireless capsule endoscopy (WCE) to diagnose strictures
D CT scan of the abdomen
E Lower GI contrast study

A

C

WCE represents an advance for small-bowel imaging, but large prospective studies are needed to confirm the diagnostic relevance in Crohn’s disease.

WCE may be considered in symptomatic patients with suspected small-bowel Crohn’s disease in whom a stricture/stenosis has been excluded, endoscopy of terminal ileum is normal or not possible, and in whom fluoroscopic or cross-sectional imaging has not showed lesions.

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21
Q

Barium features of Crohn’s disease include:

A aphthoid ulcers
B fold thickening, deformity and truncation
C long, linear mesenteric border ulcers
D deep fissuring (transmural) ‘rose thorn’ ulcers
E all of the above.

A

E

Radiological features seen on barium enema for Crohn’s disease include:

● aphthoid ulcers

● fold thickening, deformity and truncation

● long, linear mesenteric border ulcers

● deep fissuring (transmural) ‘rose thorn’ ulcers

● intersecting linear and transverse ulcers producing a ‘cobblestone’ pattern

● discontinuous disease (‘skip lesions’ – patchy inflammation may give false negative biopsies)

● loop separation – diseased and non-diseased loops are displaced from one another because of one or more of the following: bowel wall thickening, creeping subserosal intestinal fat, interloop fluid collections and abscesses

● rigid, straightened or kinked bowel segments

● stenoses with or without pre- and poststenotic dilatation

● pseudodiverticula or sacculations (usually antimesenteric border) caused by blowing out of spared normal patches of bowel wall in a diseased segment.

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22
Q

Regarding capsule endoscopy which of the following is not true?

A High-definition pictures are obtained.

B Strictures and dilatation can also be seen.

C Incomplete visualisation can be a problem.

D Biopsy can be freely taken.

E None of the above.

A

D

Advantages
High definition pictures may be reliably obtained from areas of the small bowel previously beyond endoscopic reach.

Studies involving the small numbers of patients with either known or highly likely Crohn’s disease indicate that this is likely to be a sensitive way of identifying early Crohn’s disease.

Disadvantages
Incomplete visualisation: the camera is situated at one end of the capsule. As the capsule rolls through the intestine, there is potential for lesions to be missed, as the bowel surface may not be completely examined.

Capsule retention: early trials documented failure of the capsule to re-emerge and surgical removal was necessary in a small percentage. Current publications on Crohn’s disease investigation usually involve prior radiological assessment to exclude subjects with stricturing disease. A test capsule has been developed, to identify potential ‘capsule retainers’ – if retained it will disperse and not require surgical intervention.

Superficial information only: like other endoscopic techniques, the images are obtained of the mucosa and of the deeper layers only to the extent that these are revealed by mucosal breaks, such as ulcers and fissures. little or no information about transmural inflammation and extraintestinal complications is obtainable.

No biopsies: capsule endoscopy is unable to provide biopsy specimens for histological analysis – the primary advantage of other endoscopic techniques.

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23
Q

All of the following are ultrasound findings in Crohn’s disease except:

A ultrasonography demonstrates transmural inflammatory change and extramural complications

B enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes are a common feature of active Crohn’s disease

C thumbprint sign can be seen

D loss of normal bowel fold pattern

E cobblestone appearance of bowel.

A

E

ultrasonography demonstrates transmural inflammatory change and extramural complications that make diseased segments easier to recognise than the normal small-bowel loops.

It can be recommended as the first-line test in young patients presenting with recurrent lower abdominal symptoms.

Enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes are a common feature of active Crohn’s disease.

In the right iliac fossa, loss of normal fold pattern and small ‘thumbprints’ along the inferior (antimesenteric) border can be picked up by ultrasound.

Cobblestone features of bowel is seen on contrast studies and not visualised on ultrasonography.

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24
Q

Which of the following is not true of Crohn’s disease?

A patchy chronic inflammation
B stricture formation
C pancolitis
D caseating granulomas
E crypt distortion

A

D

The granuloma in Crohn’s disease is defined as a collection of epithelioid histiocytes (monocyte/macrophage cells), the outlines of which are often vaguely defined.

multinucleated giant cells are not characteristic and necrosis is usually not apparent.

only granulomas in the lamina propria not associated with active crypt injury may be regarded as a corroborating feature of Crohn’s disease.

Granulomas associated with crypt injury are less reliable features.

Non-caseating granulomas, small collections of epithelioid histiocytes, and giant cells or isolated giant cells can be seen in infectious colitis (granulomas suggest mycobacterium, Chlamydia, Yersinia pseudotuberculosis, Treponema; microgranulomas suggest Salmonella, Campylobacter, Yersinia enterocolitica; giant cells suggest Chlamydia and must not be regarded as evidence for Crohn’s disease.

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25
Q

Which of the following macroscopic features will not aid in the diagnosis of Crohn’s disease?

A ileal disease
B strictures
C cobblestone appearance
D fistulas
E none of the above

A

E

macroscopic features for the diagnosis of Crohn’s disease include:

● ileal disease*

● rectum typically spared

● confluent deep linear ulcers, aphthoid ulcers

● deep fissures

● fistulas

● fat wrapping*

● skip lesions (segmental disease)

● cobblestoning

● thickening of the intestinal wall*

● strictures.

*Typical discriminating features for a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease compared with other conditions.

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26
Q

Which of the following treatments is not used in the management of ulcerative colitis?

A steroids
B 5-ASA supplements
C azathioprine
D exclusive enteral nutrition
E all of the above

A

D

Exclusive enteral nutrition is used in the management of Crohn’s disease.

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27
Q

Which of the following treatments is not used to maintain remission in Crohn’s disease?

A steroids
B methotrexate
C infliximab
D azathioprine
E enteral nutrition

A

A

There is no role for maintenance steroids for patients with Crohn’s disease in remission.

For patients who are steroid dependent, every effort must be made to find other effective treatment.

Azathioprine (2–2.5 mg/kg/day) or 6-mercaptopurine (1–1.25 mg/kg/day) should be initiated as maintenance therapy in cases that relapse in less than 6 months, cases that relapse two or more times per year following initial successful therapy, and in all that are steroid dependent.

There is some evidence that over half of all adults will relapse within 3 years of stopping azathioprine and hence the usual practice of stopping at 4 years may not be valid.

methotrexate 15 mg/m 2 once weekly by subcutaneous injection, if azathioprine or 6-mercaptopurine is ineffective or poorly tolerated, with folic acid 5 mg 24 hours after each dose to ameliorate any GI side effects.

Enteral nutrition supplementary therapy may reduce the risk of relapse and may improve growth and nutritional status.

If remission is induced with infliximab, maintenance with infliximab may be necessary (5 mg/kg intravenously, every 8 weeks).

It may be necessary to escalate to a higher dose (10 mg/kg) for loss of responsiveness and if successful, should revert to lower dose for subsequent infusions.

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28
Q

Which of the following is a recognised treatment option for acute severe colitis?

A intravenous (IV) steroids
B cyclosporine
C surgery
D IV antibiotics
E all of the above

A

E

Early surgical opinion is essential and patient should be managed jointly between physician and surgeon.

IV fluids/blood transfusion if required.

IV steroids such as hydrocortisone 2 mg/kg q.i.d. (maximum dose 100 mg q.i.d.) or methylprednisolone 2 mg/kg/day (maximum dose 60 mg/day).

Failure to respond by 72 hours suggests the need for escalation of therapy or colectomy.

At least daily plain abdominal X-ray if toxic/unwell.

IV antibiotics only if infection is suspected or sometimes prior to surgery, e.g. cefotaxime (50 mg/kg t.i.d.) and metronidazole (7.5 mg/kg t.i.d.).

urgent surgical review is also indicated with a view to early colectomy if there is evidence of toxic megacolon (diagnosed if diameter >5.5 cm transverse colon and/or >9 cm in caecum, based on adult data) and in cases that are deteriorating.

IV cyclosporine 2–4 mg/kg/day, aiming for trough levels of 100–200 ng/ml, can be considered in cases not responding to steroids as a temporary measure to delay/ avoid colectomy allowing recovery and initiation of second-line immunosuppressant.

Infliximab IV – there is some evidence that infliximab could be considered in non-responding acute severe ulcerative colitis.

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29
Q

Which of the following is not true of Crohn’s disease?

A Surgery can be considered for isolated ileocaecal disease.

B Colectomy is curative for pancolitic disease.

C 30% of patients require surgery in the first 10 years of disease.

D Between 70% and 80% will have surgery in their lifetime.

E Stricturoplasty is a good option for isolated small-bowel strictures.

A

B

Surgery should be considered especially for isolated ileocaecal disease, strictures or fistulas and for those in whom medical treatment has failed.

It is essential that there is close collaboration between gastroenterologists and a surgeon experienced in paediatric inflammatory bowel disease.

In Crohn’s disease, surgery is not curative and management is directed at minimising the impact of disease. At least 30% of patients require surgery in the first 10 years of disease and approximately 70%–80% will have surgery in their lifetime.

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30
Q

Which one of the following is not a well-recognised symptom in Crohn’s disease?

A constipation
B growth failure
C amenorrhoea
D delayed puberty
E none of the above

A

E

many children with Crohn’s disease present with vague complaints such as lethargy, anorexia and abdominal discomfort or with isolated growth failure.

A significant minority have markedly impaired final adult height.

Neglect to record growth parameters, particularly for those not presenting to a paediatrician, has been identified.

other symptoms may include fever, nausea, vomiting, delayed puberty, psychiatric disturbance and erythema nodosum.

The clinical course of Crohn’s disease is characterised by exacerbations and remissions.

Crohn’s disease tends to cause greater disability than ulcerative colitis.

Secondary amenorrhoea has been reported in few cases as a presenting symptom in Crohn’s disease.

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31
Q

What is the mechanism of action of infliximab in Crohn’s disease?

A It binds to TNF-alpha.

B It blocks TNF-alpha receptors.

C It reduces TNF-alpha production.

D It reduces TNF-alpha secretion.

E It increases hepatic metabolism of TNF-alpha.

A

A

Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that has a high sensitivity for and affinity to TNF-alpha.

Infliximab neutralises the biologic activity of TNF-alpha by inhibiting binding to its receptors.

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32
Q

Which of the following colonic polyps are highly unlikely to be premalignant?

A juvenile polyps
B hamartomatous polyps
C villous adenomas
D tubular adenomas
E Peutz–Jeghers’s syndrome (PJS) polyps

A

A

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33
Q

Which of the following extraintestinal feature is associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)?

A epidermoid cysts
B osteoma
C adrenal gland adenomas
D supernumerary teeth
E all of the above

A

E

Extraintestinal features of FAP include:

● congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigmented epithelium (70%–80%)

● thyroid cancer (2%–3%)

● epidermoid cysts (50%)

● brain tumour (1%)

● osteoma (50%–90%)

● hepatoblastoma (1%)

● desmoid tumour (10%–15%)

● supernumerary teeth (11%–27%)

● adrenal gland adenomas (7%–13%).

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34
Q

Regarding FAP, which of the following is not true?

A Between 20% and 30% of cases are de novo mutations.

B Gastric and duodenal lesions occur in approximately 45% of children with FAP.

C Gastric polyps are more likely to be adenomatous than duodenal lesions.

D The risk for carcinoma in the proximal GI tract is small, about 3%–5%.

E Once adenomas are identified, it is generally recommended that ileal pouch anal anastomosis should be offered to patients.

A

C

once adenomas are identified, it is generally recommended that ileal pouch anal anastomosis or ileal anal anastomosis be performed.

Gastric and duodenal lesions occur in approximately 45% of children with FAP.

It is generally recommended that upper endoscopic surveillance begins when colonic adenomas are identified, or at age 20–25 years.

Although gastric polyps are more common than duodenal polyps, duodenal polyps are much more likely to be adenomatous.

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35
Q

Which of the following statements about FAP is true?

A It is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition.

B It is characterised by polyp formation in late adulthood.

C It is associated with osteomas and epidermoid cysts in Gardner’s syndrome.

D It is due to a mutation on the short arm of chromosome 12.

E It cannot be screened for by rigid or flexible sigmoidoscopy.

A

C

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36
Q

Regarding PJS, which of the following is true?

A PJS is an autosomal dominant syndrome with high penetrance.

B Hamartomatous polyps of the small intestine and colon are present.

C The risk of colorectal cancer is 10%–20%.

D Mutations can be identified in the gene STK11(LKB1).

E All of the above.

A

E

PJS is an autosomal dominant syndrome with high penetrance, defined by the presence of hamartomatous polyps of the small intestine, colon and rectum, in association with mucocutaneous pigmentation.

The risk of colorectal cancer is 10%–20%. In 20%–63% of cases, inactivating mutations can be identified in the gene STK11(LKB1).

There is evidence for genetic heterogeneity with LKB1 involvement being formally excluded in some families.

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37
Q

Which of the following is not true about PJS?

A It is an autosomal recessive condition.

B It often presents with anaemia in childhood.

C It is characterised by circumoral mucocutaneous pigmented lesions.

D It is associated with adenomatous polyps of the small intestine.

E Malignant change occurs in 2%–3% of polyps.

A

A

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38
Q

Which of the following is true about juvenile polyposis?

A It is an autosomal dominant syndrome.

B The incidence rate is 1 in 100 000.

C The underlying defect is an inactivating mutation in growth inhibitory transforming growth factor beta, or bone morphogenetic protein.

D Multiple juvenile polyps, usually 50–100, are found primarily in the colon.

E All of the above.

A

E

Juvenile polyposis is a rare autosomal dominant syndrome with an incidence of approximately 1 in 100 000.

The underlying defect is an inactivating mutation in growth inhibitory transforming growth factor beta or bone morphogenetic protein signalling pathways, leading to multiple gastric, small-intestinal and colonic polyps.

SPSE 1

39
Q

Which of the following is true regarding colonic polyps?

A Metaplastic polyps are premalignant.

B Adenomatous polyps are premalignant.

C Villous adenomas are more common than tubular adenomas.

D Genetic mutations can result in epithelial metaplasia.

E Carcinomas arise only in adenomatous polyps.

A

B

SPSE 1

40
Q

Which of the following is true regarding colonic polyps?

A Juvenile rectal polyps are adenomatous polyps.

B Metaplastic polyps are premalignant.

C The risk of malignancy is higher in tubular than villous adenomas.

D Villous adenomas occasionally cause hyperkalaemia.

E All patients with untreated familial adenomatous polyposis will eventually develop colorectal carcinoma.

A

E

Juvenile rectal polyps are hamartomatous polyps.

metaplastic polyps are not premalignant.

Villous adenomas have a higher risk than tubular adenomas of being malignant.

Villous adenomas occasionally present with hypokalaemia as a result of potassium loss from their mucus secretion.

FAP is an autosomal dominant condition. untreated, all patients usually develop a colonic neoplasm by the age of 40 years.

All patients at risk should be screened and if polyps are identified should be offered prophylactic surgery.

SPSE 1

41
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding Cowden’s syndrome?

A Multiple hamartomas of the skin, breast, thyroid gland, endometrium and GI tract.

B The risk of colon cancer is significantly higher than the normal population.

C Genetic screening by DNA sequencing for PTEN mutations, is widely available.

D Mild mental retardation and macrocephaly are associated features.

E None of the above.

A

B

Cowden’s syndrome is characterised by multiple hamartomas of the skin, breast, thyroid gland, endometrium and GI tract.

There is an increased risk of neoplasia in breast, thyroid and other organs, although the risk of colon cancer is low and may not be more than the general population despite the presence of multiple GI polyps.

other common findings are trichilemmomas and papillomatous papules, mild mental retardation and macrocephaly.

occasional children with autism and Cowden’s syndrome have been described.

The GI tumours are juvenile polyps, lipomas and ganglioneuromas.

Specific clinical criteria have been developed for Cowden’s syndrome.

SPSE 1

42
Q

Regarding ulcerative colitis, all of the following are false except:

A. It is not an immunological response to bacterial or chemical agent.

B. It is an inflammatory condition of rectal and colonic muscle.

C. The rectum is involved in 50 percent of cases.

D. Inflammation extends proximally in a contiguous manner.

E. Macroscopically, it has a cobblestone appearance.

A

D

Inflammation extends proximally in contiguous manner. Ulcerative colitis is an immunological response to bacterial and chemical agent. It is an inflammatory condition of rectal and colonic mucosa. Rectum is involved in 95 percent of cases.

Cobblestone appearance is a feature of Crohn’s disease.

Syed/MCQ

43
Q

Regarding extraintestinal manifestation of ulcerative colitis, which of the following is false?

A. Conjunctivitis.

B. Pyoderma Gangrenosum.

C. Erythema Nodosum.

D. Sclerosing cholangitis.

E. Arthralgia.

A

A

Uveitis is an extraintestinal manifestation of ulcerative colitis, not conjunctivitis.

Syed/MCQ

44
Q

Colonic features on barium enema in ulcerative colitis include all except:

A. Colon is shortened.

B. Colon is narrow.

C. Colon is rigid.

D. Extensive haustral fold.

E. Extensive formation of pseudo polyp.

A

D.

Loss of haustral fold is a feature of ulcerative colitis on barium enema.

Syed/MCQ

45
Q

Regarding treatment of ulcerative colitis, which of the following is false?

A. Corticosteroid for 2–3 months; may induce remission.

B. Persistent symptoms despite of medical therapy is an indication of surgery.

C. Growth retardation is an indication of surgery.

D. Surgical treatment option is distal colostomy.

E. Cleaning enema is avoided before surgery.

A

D

Options of surgical treatment are:

  1. Total proctocolectomy with permanent ileostomy
  2. Kock continent ileal reservoir with nipple valve
  3. Ileal pouch procedure

Distal colostomy is not an option, as it is a disease of colon and rectum. A cleaning enema is avoided before surgery because it causes acute flare-up of colitis. Indication of surgery includes persistent symptoms of ulcerative colitis, despite medical therapy, growth retardation, severe limitation of activities and unacceptable quality of life. Indication of emergency surgery is fulminant disease, which is refractory to medical therapy, extensive rectal bleeding and toxic megacolon.

Syed/MCQ

46
Q

Regarding ulcerative colitis, which of the following statements is false?

A. Joint is involved in 20–25 percent of cases.

B. Principal treatment is steroid and amino salicylate.

C. Indication of colostomy is intractable disease. D. Azathioprine response time is 7 days.

E. Operative mortality is about 1 percent.

A

D

Azathioprine response time is about 3 months.

Syed/MCQ

47
Q

Regarding Crohn’s disease, which of the following is true?

A. Microscopically, it has a cobblestone appearance.

B. Granuloma has caseation.

C. Inflammation limited to mucosa.

D. Skip lesions are common.

E. In 20 percent of cases, both small and large bowel are involved.

A

D

Macroscopically Crohn’s disease as cobblestone appearance. The entire intestinal wall increases in width.

Granuloma are non-caseating.

Skip lesions are common.

In 50 percent of cases, both small and large intestine are involved.

Syed/MCQ

48
Q

The following are features of Crohn’s disease except:

A. Vague abdominal pain.

B. String sign of Kantor in upper GIT series.

C. Joint swelling as extraintestinal manifestation.

D. Disease progress leading to stricture formation.

E. Endoscopy showing pseudo polyp.

A

E

Pseudo polyp is a feature of ulcerative colitis.

The string sign is caused by incomplete filling of the intestinal lumen, which results from irritability and spasm associated with severe ulceration.

In such cases, the string sign is most frequently seen at the terminal ileum.

Syed/MCQ

49
Q

In Crohn’s disease, surgical treatment is indicated in all of the following except:

A. Intestinal obstruction.

B. Toxic megacolon.

C. Massive haemorrhage.

D. Perforation.

E. Fistula.

A

B Toxic megacolon develops in ulcerative colitis.

Syed/MCQ

50
Q

Which one is the most common complication of Crohn’s disease?

A. Intestinal stenosis.

B. Septicaemia.

C. Severe bleeding.

D. Fistula formation.

E. Free perforation of colon.

A

D

Fistula formation is the most common complication in Crohn’s disease. Fistula may develop between small intestinal loops, between small intestine and large intestine, between intestine and urinary bladder, and between intestine and skin.

Syed/MCQ

51
Q

Regarding the prognosis of Crohn’s disease, which one is false?

A. Recurrence after resection is uncommon.

B. Recurrence after surgery may lead to further surgery.

C. Improvement in lifestyle is critical.

D. Most achieve normal height and weight.

E. Mortality is low.

A

A

Recurrence of Crohn’s disease after resection is common.

Syed/MCQ

52
Q

With regard to Crohn’s disease, all of the below are true except:

A. Perianal fistula and abscess are the first signs of disease.

B. Perianal disease occurs later than intestinal manifestations.

C. Oral metronidazole gives good response in a number of cases.

D. The mainstay of initial medical therapy is treatment corticosteroid.

E. Stoma should be avoided in Crohn’s disease.

A

B

The presence of perianal abscess and the fistula is often the first sign of Crohn’s disease. Stoma should be avoided because of high incidence of peristomal complications.

Syed/MCQ