Congenital Bronchopulmonary Malformations Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following correctly describes a pulmonary sequestration?

A. Vascular connections are to the pulmonary artery and vein

B. Is a result of air trapping due to minimal expulsion of air with exhalation

C. Can be located both extralobar and intralobar

D. Communicates with the bronchial tree

E. Has minimal risk of infectious complications

A

ANSWER: C

COMMENTS: Bronchopulmonary sequestration (BPS) is characterized by nonfunctional pulmonary tissue that has an anomalous systemic vascular supply and does not communicate with the bronchopulmonary tree.

BPSs can be either intralobar, within the actual lung parenchyma, or extralobar, which are completely separate from the lung.

In fact, BPS may be found anywhere within the chest or even below the diaphragm. It is often identified on prenatal ultrasound as a well-defined mass.

If it is not detected prenatally, the typical presentation is with recurrent pneumonia within the BPS.

There is an increased risk for malignant transformation.

Surgical resection is generally recommended.

Other lung malformations include congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM) and congenital lobar emphysema (CLE).

Congenital cystic lung lesions are usually CPAM. This entity was formally termed congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM) but was renamed because cystic components are not always present.

There are five subtypes of CPAM: 0, affecting the proximal lung; 1 to 3, varying sizes of cysts from large to smallest; and 4, peripheral lung cysts.

A CPAM is connected to the bronchopulmonary tree, and its blood supply is from the pulmonary arteries and veins.

These lesions most commonly arise from the lower lobes of the lungs and can be identified on prenatal ultrasound.

As with BPS, CPAMs may become infected and present as recurrent pneumonia and have a risk for malignant transformation.

Surgical resection is generally recommended.

CLE is the third lung abnormality in this group.

Normal lung parenchyma becomes hyperinflated because of impaired expulsion of air on exhalation.

This is due to either an obstruction of the feeding bronchus from dysplastic bronchial cartilages or extrinsic compression.

Management is lobar resection.

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2
Q

Discuss congenital lung malformations.

A

This chapter discusses the major pearls and tricks in the diagnosis and management of congenital lung lesions, which include congenital pulmonary airway malformations, bronchogenic cysts, bronchopulmonary sequestrations, and congenital lobar emphysema.

Collectively, congenital lung malformations can be uniquely challenging for pediatric surgeons in part because they are rarely encountered in most clinical practices and often require multi-disciplinary expertise, including maternal-fetal medicine specialists, neonatologists, and pediatric radiologists.

Moreover, lung lesions can have highly variable clinical presentations and unclear natural histories.

The current standard of care for the most common clinical scenarios is discussed, and specific areas of controversy are highlighted.

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3
Q

What are the four major types of lung malformations?

A

The four major types of lung malformations are:
[1] congenital pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM), formerly congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation;

[2] bronchopulmonary sequestration (BPS);

[3] congenital lobar emphysema (CLE); and

[4] bronchogenic cyst.

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4
Q

What are the main differences between congenital pulmonary airway malformations (CPAM) and bronchopulmonary sequestrations (BPS)?

A

CPAMs communicate with airways of the native lung and have a vascular supply derived from the pulmonary circulation.

In contrast, BPS lesions are non-aerated lung tissue that has a large systemic arterial blood supply, often coming directly
off of the aorta.

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5
Q

What are the two major types of bronchopulmonary sequestrations and how do you tell the difference between them on postnatal cross-sectional imaging?

A

BPS lesions are classified as intralobar (75%) or extralobar (25%).

Intralobar BPS is entirely invested with the visceral pleura with venous drainage usually to the pulmonary venous system.

In contrast, extralobar BPS represents accessory pulmonary lung tissue that is invested in its own pleural lining that is completely separate from normal lung parenchyma.

Extalobar BPS usually has both a systemic arterial and venous blood supply.

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6
Q

What is the most common anatomic locations for each of the lung malformations?

A

Most CPAM and BPS lesions are located in one of the lower lobes of the lung.

CLE most commonly involves the left upper lobe.

The second most common site is the right middle lobe.

Bronchogenic cysts tend to be centrally located within the mediastinum in the paratracheal or subcarinal regions.

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7
Q

What are hybrid lung lesions?

A

Hybrid lung lesions have characteristics of at least two different types of lung malformations.

The most common hybrid lesion is a CPAM with a systemic arterial blood supply.

This is seen in approximately 9–25% of all resected lung malformations.

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8
Q

How common are congenital lung malformations?

A

Recent reports suggest that the incidence has been increasing and may be approximately 1 in 2,500 live births.

The increasing incidence is likely secondary to wide- spread prenatal screening by ultrasound as well as improvements in sonographic image quality.

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9
Q

How are CPAMs usually diagnosed?

A

Lung malformations can have a highly variable clinical presentation.

However, the majority of CPAM and BPS lesions (>75%) are now diagnosed during fetal life as an echogenic lung mass.

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10
Q

How can congenital lung malformations affect the developing fetus?

A

Large lung malformations can compress the esophagus, resulting in impaired fetal swallowing and polyhydramnios.

Analogous to the situation in congenital diaphragmatic hernia, mass effect may also lead to pulmonary hypoplasia and pulmonary hypertension.

Rarely, the mass can impair venous return to the heart and lead to hydrops, in which fluid accumulates in body cavities in conjunction with generalized skin edema.

In severe cases of hydrops, placentomegaly and right heart failure are signs of impending fetal demise.

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11
Q

Are fetal lung lesions associated with other birth defects?

A

In greater than 90% of cases, a fetal lung malformation is an isolated finding, and screening for karyotype anomalies is not indicated.

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12
Q

You are asked to counsel a pregnant woman carrying a 21-week fetus with a lung malformation identified on ultrasound. What imaging information are most important in terms to determining the potential morbidity of the lesion at birth?

A

The most important characteristic is its relative size, most often measured in terms of the CVR (CPAM volume ratio). It is the volume of the CPAM mass normalized for gestational age.

CVR = (L x W x H x 0.52) / head circumference

Serial monitoring of the CVR is required because many of these lesions increase in size until 26 weeks.

Fetuses with lesions with a CVR less than 0.9 are usually born asymptomatic and can be delivered at the birthing center of the family’s choosing.

However, lesions with a CVR greater than 0.9 are at increased risk for respiratory symptoms at birth, and these fetuses should probably be delivered at a tertiary care referral center with pediatric surgery coverage.

A CVR > 1.6 or a CPAM with a dominant large cyst increases risk of developing hydrops. Lesions with a CVR of > 1.6 may be followed 2 to 3 times per week.

Other characteristics on ultrasound that may influence the delivery plan include the presence of mediastinal shift and macrocystic disease.

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13
Q

What is the Stocker classification?

A

The Stocker classification scheme* was the original description of CPAMs based on pathologic specimens.

Type I lesions have macrocysts, and type III lesions are solid or microcystic.

Type II lesions have a mixed of both microcysts and macrocysts.

The classification of CPAM type based on cyst diameter on histology, as originally defined by Stocker, has been largely replaced by the simple separation of lesions into microcystic (cysts <5 mm) and macrocystic (cysts ≥5 mm), based on prenatal and postnatal imaging.

This classification has clinical utility and helps define the therapeutic options for symptomatic lesions.

For example, microcystic CPAM typically appears solid on ultrasound, is more likely to become symptomatic during fetal life, and is more likely to respond to maternal steroid treatment.

Sherif

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14
Q

A pregnant woman is carrying a 23-week fetus with a microcystic lung malformation. The ultrasound shows a CVR of 2.5, and there is ascites. What are some potential management options for this fetus?

A

Lesions with a CVR greater than 1.6 are at increased risk for hydrops.

The first line of therapy is the administration of maternal betamethasone.

Other options include fetal resection, which is uncommonly performed and associated with high mortality.

If the lesion has a large, dominant macrocyst, fetal thoracocentesis or thoracoamniotic shunting can be helpful to reduce the mass effect of the lesion.

In near-term fetuses, another option is to resect the lesion while still on placental support, otherwise known as ex utero intrapartum treatment (EXIT)-to-resection.

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15
Q

Can fetal CPAMs regress in size prior to delivery? What about postnatal regression of a CPAM identified on CT?

A

Many CPAMs regress in size during the third trimester of pregnancy.

Other microcystic CPAMs can become isoechoic with the adjacent lung tissue by ultrasounds after 32 weeks of gestation.

Therefore, these lesions can be difficult to visualize in utero but are usually subsequently identified on postnatal cross-sectional imaging.

For this reason, all fetal lung malformations, regardless of whether they have “disappeared” on subsequent fetal sonograms, should undergo postnatal chest CT, usually at 2–3 months of age [3].

Postnatal regression of a CPAM is a controversial topic, but most investigators believe that complete regression after a child is born is extremely rare.

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16
Q

You are called to the neonatal intensive care unit to see a 6-hour old neonate in respiratory distress. Chest x-ray shows mediastinal shift to the right hemi-thorax and a hyperlucent left chest. How would you manage this patient?

A

This child has a left upper lobe CLE and should go to the operating room in an expeditious manner in preparation for a thoracotomy and left upper lobectomy.

If the baby is in extremis, a bedside thoracotomy with exteriorization of the affected lung can be a life-saving maneuver.

Intubation should generally be avoided because positive pressure can exacerbate air trapping.

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17
Q

Describe the basic steps involved in a neonatal lung resection for a CPAM.

A

A thoracotomy with formal lobectomy represents the standard of care in neonates.

Lung isolation is not required.

Since most of these lesions involve one of the lower lobes, the inferior pulmonary ligament is divided.

If this is a hybrid lesion, any systemic feeding vessels are identified and controlled with clips, energy devices, or ligatures.

The pulmonary arteries and veins are identified and controlled in similar fashion.

The bronchus to the affected lobe is taken last using clips, staplers, or ligatures.

A chest tube is left in place to help with lung re-expansion and to evacuate pleural fluid.

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18
Q

A newborn with a prenatally diagnosed lung malformation was born several hours ago. She appears to be in no respiratory distress and has a normal physical exam. What are the next steps?

A

This patient can be discharged in 24–48 hours.

Plain film radiographs of the chest are often performed as a baseline study.

However, even if the plain film is completely normal, a chest CT is indicated because of the low sensitivity of plain films.

Most referral centers do not perform a chest CT until a child is at least 2 months old in order to obtain the best images for preoperative planning purposes.

MRI avoids the ionizing radiation of CT, but is not the preferred imaging modality because it requires sedation to minimize motion artifacts and gives inferior resolution of the lung parenchyma.

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19
Q

A four-month old healthy child with a small, asymptomatic CPAM on CT comes to your office. Would you recommend surgical resection? If so, why and when would this be performed? If not, why not?

A

Although there are no well-designed, prospective studies on the natural history of CPAMs, early surgical resection of a CPAM has been the preferred management strategy in the USA.

The median age at resection is about 5–6 months of age.

The rationale for prophylactic lung resection is to prevent pneumonia and other complications.

Earlier resection has also been embraced since the resection may be easier given that subclinical infection and inflammation have yet to occur.

Early resection may also allow for maximal compensatory lung growth.

Other pediatric surgeons cite a small, but defined risk for malignant degeneration.

Finally, the optimal frequency and best imaging approach to monitor unresected CPAMs has not been defined.

Opponents of early surgical resection argue that the risk of pneumonia in selected CPAMs may be as low as 5%.

Since some lesions may regress and most may never become symptomatic, it may be difficult to justify performing an operation that can have its own complications, including massive hemorrhage and prolonged air leak.

Moreover, the cancer risk is believed to be very small, especially in prenatally diagnosed lesions.

There are also concerns about the possible long- term neurotoxic effects of anesthesia in younger children.

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20
Q

What is pleuropulmonary blastoma?

A

Pleuropulmonary blastoma (PPB) is a rare malignant primary cancer of the lung.

Type 1 PPB presents at a mean age of about 9 months and can be confused with macrocystic CPAM by chest CT.

As a result, many surgeons strongly urge resec- tion of all CPAMs for fear of inadvertently observing PPB.

The treatment of PPB involves a gross total resection and chemotherapy.

Roughly a third of PPB lesions are associated with the DICER1 mutation, a gene defect with increased susceptibility to ovarian and kidney tumors.

Another argument that supports resection of asymptomatic lesions is the coexistence of malignancy in a CPAM or malignant degeneration of a CPAM lesion.

The exact incidence of lung cancer associated with CPAM is not known, but some studies showed that up to 5% of CPAM lesions may contain malignant elements.

A lesion that may be difficult to differentiate from CPAM is pleuropulmonary blastoma (PPB), as shown in the case depicted in Figures 9.12 through 9.14.

This patient was a baby girl who had a small, wedge-shaped, fluid-filled mass identified on 21-week fetal ultrasound.

At 31 weeks, it appeared bi-lobed, but had not increased much in size, as shown in Figure 9.12.

The patient had no symptoms at birth or after.

The chest x-ray at 2 days of age showed nonspecific haziness in the left upper lobe but, at 2 weeks, demonstrated an impressive air-filled cyst with mediastinal shift. A CT scan demonstrated large, dominant, peripheral cysts, a finding typical of PPB on imaging.

The patient underwent early left upper lobectomy, with the findings noted on Figure 9.13.

A type I PPB was confirmed on pathology, as shown in Figure 9.14. The large cystic areas were lined by alveolar and respiratory epithelium overlying a loose to dense fibrous stroma, containing primitive small cells in a cambium-like layer beneath the epithelium.

Of note, many pathologists now consider all Stocker type 4 CPAMs to be PPB, until proved otherwise.

The patient was followed closely and has done well, with no further lesions identified on 7-year follow-up.

The patient also underwent screening of her kidney and spleen for synchronous lesions, as well as genetic consultation and testing for DICER-1 mutation, all of which were negative.

This is the most favorable presentation of PPB.

Patients who present later with type II (cystic and solid) and type III (solid) PPB typically require adjuvant chemotherapy and have less favorable prognoses.

There is strong evidence that type I PPB will progress over time to types II or III.

Sherif

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21
Q

What is the best operative approach for an asymptomatic congenital lung malformation in an infant?

A

There remains debate on the best operative approach.

The traditional operative approach in infants is an open (thoracotomy) incision, which is safe, well-tolerated, and associated with a three-day hospital stay.

A muscle-sparing approach has been adopted by many pediatric surgeons to help minimize musculoskeletal morbidity, including scoliosis.

More recently, minimally invasive (thoracoscopic) approaches have gained traction since they result in smaller scars and obviate the need for an epidural catheter to attain good postoperative pain control.

However, thoracoscopic surgery necessitates effective lung isolation, is associated with a relatively steep learning curve despite ongoing refinements in surgical instrumentation, and has generally longer operative times.

Hospital lengths of stay are similar or only marginally shorter after thoracoscopic resection [5].

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22
Q

Is there a role for segmentectomy or wedge resection in the surgical man- agement of CPAM?

A

Yes, there is a small and limited role for lung preserving resections in selected patients with lung malformations.

Routine use of segmental or wedge resections has generally been discouraged because of increased risk of parenchymal leak from the cut surface of the lung as well as concerns regarding leaving residual disease behind.

However, those with bilateral disease (1–2%) or CPAMs involving multiple lobes on the same side might benefit from segmental or wedge resection.

Those with lung function that is already compromised (e.g., bronchopulmonary dysplasia) may also be ideal candidates.

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23
Q

How do you manage a child with an intralobar BPS?

A

Children with intralobar BPS are at increased risk for pneumonia and high-output cardiac failure because of chronic shunting of blood through a large systemic feeding artery.

For these reasons, surgical resection is indicated.

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24
Q

How do you manage a child with a small extralobar BPS?

A

The management of small extralobar BPS lesions is controversial given that they are not contiguous with the native lung and therefore less likely to become infected.

Opinions on management vary amongst pediatric surgeons and range from observation to catheter embolization to thoracoscopic resection.

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25
Q

What are the histologic features of bronchogenic cysts? How would you manage a child with an asymptomatic bronchogenic cyst identified by CT scan?

A

Bronchogenic cysts contain cartilage and ciliated columnar epithelium.

Most should be excised before complications (e.g., airway obstruction, abscess) ensue.

If complete surgical excision is not possible without causing damage to adjacent mediastinal structures, then other options include sclerotherapy or de-epithelialization.

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26
Q

Indication of pulmonary resection in tuberculosis includes all of the following except:

A. An open cavity that persists after 6 months of combined drug therapy.

B. The inadequate pulmonary reserve.

C. Irreversible destructive lesion.

D. An unexpandable lobe with encapsulating empyema.

E. Recurrent persistent haemorrhage.

A

B

Child with inadequate pulmonary reserve is not candidate for resection.

Syed/MCQ

27
Q

Regarding actinomycosis, which of the following is false?

A. It causes lymphadenitis.

B. It causes lung abscess formation.

C. It causes sinus formation.

D. Sulphur granules are pathognomonic.

E. Amphotericin B is the treatment.

A

E

Actinomycosis is treated with penicillin G or sulphonamide + trimethoprim.

Syed/MCQ

28
Q

Regarding bronchiectasis, which of the following is true?

A. It is an abnormal constriction of bronchi and bronchiole.

B. Asthma is the cause.

C. X-rays show increased bronchovesicular marking.

D. Mostly occurs in apical segment.

E. Pulmonary resection is commonly required.

A

C

Bronchiectasis is an abnormal dilatation of bronchi and bronchioles.

Pneumonia and pertussis are the common causes.

X-rays shows increased bronchovascular markings. It mostly occurs at the basal segment of lower lobe of lung.

Pulmonary resection is rarely required.

Syed/MCQ

29
Q

What is the most common cause of empyema thorax?

A. Trauma.

B. Intrathoracic oesophageal perforation.

C. Surgery on chest.

D. Pneumonia.

E. Bronchiectasis.

A

D Pneumonia.

Syed/MCQ

30
Q

Regarding chylothrax in children, which of the following is false?

A. Chylothrax in new-born may be spontaneous.

B. Lymphoma is one of the causes of chylothrax.

C. Persistent central venous catheter is a rare cause.

D. Leakage in lower part of thoracic duct causes left-sided pneumothorax.

E. Total parenteral nutrition is part of the treatment.

A

D

Leakage in lower part causes right-sided effusion and leakage in upper part causes left-sided effusion.

Syed/MCQ

31
Q

Regarding primary tumours of the lung, which of the following is false?

A. Plasma cell granuloma usually present as peripheral pulmonary mass.

B. Carcinoid tumour is a type of bronchial adenoma.

C. Bronchogenic carcinoma is rare in children.

D. Primary tumours are more common than metastatic disease.

E. Rhabdomyosarcoma is rarely seen.

A

D

Metastatic disease is much more common than primary tumour.

Syed/MCQ

32
Q

Tumour/tumours frequently considered for metastasectomy is/are:

A. Osteogenic sarcoma.

B. Soft tissue sarcoma.

C. Wilms tumour.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

A

D

All mentioned tumours are frequently considered for pulmonary metastasectomy.

Note: Metastasis should not be considered for resection until primary tumour is eradicated without evidence of recurrence and other sited of metastatic disease are ruled out.

Syed/MCQ

33
Q

Regarding rigid bronchoscopy, all of the following are true except:

A. It is especially for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway.

B. Neck is slightly in the antenatal position.

C. Time is a limiting factor in rigid bronchoscopy.

D. Bradycardia is one of the complications.

E. Pulmonary hypertension is a relative contraindication.

A

C

Time is not a limiting factor in rigid bronchoscopy, as it is during flexible bronchoscopy because of the ability to ventilate through the sheath.

The complication includes hypoxia, hypercapnia, bradycardia, laryngospasm, pneumothorax, airway oedema, bleeding and nosocomial infection.

Relative contraindication includes pulmonary hypertension, bleeding diathesis, haemodynamic instability arrhythmia and hypoxemia.

Syed/MCQ

34
Q

Regarding thoracoscopy, all of the following are true except:

A. It is used for mediastinal lesion biopsy.

B. Complete excision of bronchogenic cyst is not possible.

C. Endo GIA stapler is used for lung biopsy.

D. Plurodesis is possible using pure talc.

E. Bronchopleural fistula is a known complication after talking lung biopsy.

A

B

Complete excision of bronchogenic cyst and duplication cyst is possible by thoracoscopy.

Syed/MCQ

35
Q

Regarding bronchogenic cysts, which of the following is false?

A. Lined by cuboidal, columnar or ciliated epithelium.

B. If communicated with airway, may produce air fluid level.

C. May develop into adenocarcinoma.

D. It is a malformation of lung, receives blood supply from one or more anomalous systemic arteries.

E. Option of treatment is enucleation, segmentectomy and lobectomy, depending upon the site.

A

D

Pulmonary sequestration is the malformation of lung receiving blood supply from one or more aberrant systemic anomalous arteries, not the bronchogenic cyst.

Syed/MCQ

36
Q

Regarding pulmonary sequestration, all of the following are false except:

A. They have no bronchial communication.

B. Intralober is more common in apical segment.

C. More common on the right side.

D. Extralobers are multiple in 10 percent of cases.

E. Intralobers are less common.

A

A

Pulmonary sequestration has no bronchial communication. Intralober is more common than extralober. Both are more common on the left side. Intralober are more common in posterior basal segment. Extralober are multiple in 40 percent of cases.

Syed/MCQ

37
Q

Regarding communicating pulmonary sequestration, all the following are correct except:

A. Communication with oesophagus or stomach is well known.

B. Communication with middle oesophagus is commonest.

C. Group 1 is associated with oesophageal atresia with distal tracheoesophageal fistula.

D. X-rays show features of consolidation.

E. Anomalous arterial blood supply may be detected by Doppler ultrasound.

A

B

Communication with lower oesophagus is commonest.

Communication is 4 percent with upper oesophagus, 11 percent with middle oesophagus, 67 percent with lower oesophagus, and 15 percent in stomach.

Syed/MCQ

38
Q

Regarding the development of lesions in mediastinum, which of the following is true?

A. Cystic hygroma from any part of mediastinum.

B. Neuroblastoma from middle mediastinum.

C. Ganglioblastoma from anterior mediastinum.

D. Teratoma from posterior mediastinum.

E. Thymoma from middle mediastinum.

A

A

Cystic hygroma arises from any part of mediastinum. Other lesions that arise from any part of mediastinum include haemangioma, lymphangia and congenital aneurysm of pulmonary artery. From anterior mediastinum, teratoma and thymoma develop. From middle mediastinum, bronchogenic and oesophageal duplication cyst develop. From posterior mediastinum, neuroblastoma and ganglioblastoma develop.

Syed/MCQ

39
Q

In congenital lobar emphysema, X-ray findings may include all except:

A. There is a hyperlucent over-expanded area of lung.

B. Adjacent lung segment may be compressed or atelectasis.

C. Mediastinum is shifted on the same side.

D. Emphysematous segment may be herniated to contralateral chest.

E. There is a depression of the affected side of the diaphragm.

A

C

Mediastinum is shifted on opposite side because of hyperinflation.

Syed/MCQ

40
Q

Xenon ventilation perfusion lung scan, in congenital lobar emphysema, shows which one of the following:

A. Delayed uptake and delayed washout of isotope.

B. Early uptake and delayed washout of isotopes.

C. Delayed uptake and early washout of isotopes.

D. Early uptake and early washout of isotopes.

E. Excessive blood flow from emphysematous segment.

A

A

It shows delayed uptake and delayed washout of isotopes from air spaces and little blood flow from emphysematous lobe.

Syed/MCQ

41
Q

Regarding cystic adenomatoid formation, all of the following are true except:

A. It is lined by psdeudocolumner epithelium.

B. There are numerous small cysts, few large cysts or bulky firm mass.

C. When it compress the oesophagus in the foetus, it develops oligohydramnios.

D. When a large mass-producing hydrop foetalis, it requires intervention in utero.

E. Newborn with respiratory distress requires high-frequency oscillatory ventilation.

A

C

When cystic adenomatoid malformation compresses the oesophagus in foetus, polyhydramnios develops.

Syed/MCQ

42
Q

The first phase of empyema, according to the American Thoracic Society, is:

A. Transudate.

B. Exudate.

C. Fibrinopurulent.

D. Organising.

E. None of the above.

A

B

Exudative. Empyema is defined as pus (an exudate) in the pleural space. Presence of transudate is not an empyema. Fibrinopurulent is the second and organising is the third phase of empyema.

Syed/MCQ

43
Q

Male-to-female ratio in extra-lobar sequestration is:

A. 1:1

B. 2:1

C. 3:1

D. 4:1

E. 5:1

A

D 4:1

Syed/MCQ

44
Q

Approximately what percentage of pulmonary sequestration is connected with the gastrointestinal tract?

A. 2 percent.

B. 5 percent.

C. 10 percent.

D. 20 percent.

E. 30 percent.

A

C 10 percent.

Syed/MCQ

45
Q

With regards to congenital lobar emphysema, all of the following are true except:

A. Tension pneumothorax is difficult to differentiate.

B. Bronchoscopy is recommended to rule out bronchial lesion.

C. It rarely involves the upper lobe.

D. There is no deficit in lung volume after operation.

E. It is attributed to dysplasia of cartilage of the affected bronchus.

A

C Upper and middle lobe is commonly involved. It rarely involve the lower lobe. There is no deficit in lung volume after the operation. Actual lung volume measured at 90 percent to 100 percent of the predicted volume with perfusion equally distributed between operated and non-operated lung.

Syed/MCQ

46
Q

Criteria for cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM) type III is:

A. Multiple larger cysts greater than 5 cm.

B. Multiple larger cysts greater than 3 cm.

C. Multiple larger cysts greater than 2 cm.

D. Multiple cysts smaller than 2 cm.

E. Multiple cysts smaller than 0.5 cm.

A

E

In type III cystic adenomatoid malformation the entire lobe is infiltrated with bronchiole-like structure usually smaller than 0.5 cm in diameter.

Syed/MCQ

47
Q

Characteristic features of extra-lobar sequestration include all of the following, except:

A. Separate from lung.

B. Mostly left side.

C. Age less than one year.

D. Mostly seen in male.

E. Venous drainage usually to pulmonary vein.

A

E

Venous drainage is usually to systemic vein (Azygous vein).

Syed/MCQ

48
Q

Regarding aspiration of chylothorax, chyle shows all of the following features, except:

A. High triglycerides.

B. Low white-cell count.

C. Significant proteins.

D. High low-density lipoproteins.

E. Cloudy in colour.

A

B

Chyle shows high white cell count, predominantly lymphocytes.

Syed/MCQ

49
Q

The most common site for congenital lobar emphysema is the:

A right upper lobe
B left lower lobe
C left upper lobe
D right lower lobe
E right middle lobe.

A

C

Congenital lobar emphysema is a congenital cystic lung lesion in which the fundamental abnormality consists of an abnormal bronchus that allows passage of air on inspiration but only limited expulsion of air on expiration leading to lobar overexpansion.

These lesions do not always cause symptoms. In severe cases, prenatal hydrops or postnatal fatal respiratory distress can occur.

The most common site of involvement for congenital lobar emphysema is the left upper lobe (40%–50%), followed by the right middle lobe (30%–40%), right upper lobe (20%), lower lobes (1%) and multiple sites for the remainder.

SPSE 1

50
Q

The most common location for a congenital pulmonary adenomatoid malformation (CPAM) is in the:

A right upper lobe
B lingula
C left upper lobe
D either lower lobe
E right middle lobe.

A

D

CPAMs represent about 30%–40% of developmental lung bud anomalies and are diagnosed both antenatally and postnatally. Evidence suggests that lesions arise from insults that may occur from 5 to 22 weeks of gestation.

CPAMs are characterised by an adenomatoid increase of terminal respiratory bronchioles that form cysts of various sizes. It consists of a discrete, intrapulmonary mass that contains cysts ranging in diameter from less than 1.0 mm to over 10.0 cm.

CPAMs usually arise from one lobe of the lung, with the lower lobes being the most common site. Bilateral lung involvement is rare. Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation lesions have an equal left- and right-sided incidence.

SPSE 1

51
Q

The systemic perfusion and venous drainage of an extralobar pulmonary sequestration (ELS) consists of:

A systemic artery and mostly systemic venous drainage

B systemic artery and mostly pulmonary venous drainage

C pulmonary artery and pulmonary venous drainage

D pulmonary artery and systemic venous drainage

E variable inflow and systemic pulmonary drainage.

A

A

Bronchopulmonary sequestrations (BPSs) are microscopic cystic masses of non-functioning pulmonary tissue that lack an obvious communication with the tracheobronchial tree. An accepted embryologic theory is that a supernumerary lung bud arises caudal to the normal lung bud and continues to migrate distally with the oesophagus. If this lung bud arises prior to the development of the pleura, it is invested with adjacent lung and becomes an intralobar sequestration (IlS). If supernumerary lung development occurs subsequent to pleura formation, the bud will grow separately and acquire its own pleural covering, forming an ElS. All the ElSs have a systemic arterial blood supply. In most ElSs, there are systemic venous connections, which include the superior vena cava, the azygous and hemiazygous veins. IlSs are supplied by systemic vessels and drain into the pulmonary circulation.

SPSE 1

52
Q

The microscopic features that distinguish a CPAM from other pulmonary lesions are all of the following except:

A polypoid projections of the mucosa
B increased smooth muscle and elastic fibres within the cyst wall
C increased cartilage within the mass
D mucus-secreting cells
E absence of inflammation.

A

C

Macroscopically, CPAMs can be very difficult to differentiate from pulmonary sequestrations or congenital lobar emphysema.

Microscopically, a CPAM is distinguished from other lesions and normal lung by several features.

These include polypoid projections of the mucosa, an increase in smooth muscle and elastic tissue within cyst walls, an absence of cartilage, the presence of mucus-secreting cells and the absence of inflammation.

SPSE 1

53
Q

CPAMs that consist of large cysts surrounded by smaller cysts and account for 50%–65% of all CPAMs are classified as:

A type I
B type II
C type I and II
D type III
E type IV.

A

A

The type 0 CPAM, also known as acinar dysplasia or agenesis, is a rarely occurring malformation that is incompatible with life. Affected infants survive for only a few hours.

Type I CPAM is the predominant cystic type, comprising 50%–65% of postnatal cases. They consist of single or multiple large cysts (3–10 cm in diameter) surrounded by smaller cysts and compressed normal parenchyma.

Type II lesions account for 10%–40% of postnatal CPAMs and consist of more numerous smaller cysts (0.5–2.0 cm in diameter) that are lined by cuboidal-to-columnar epithelial cells with a thin, underlying, fibromuscular layer.

Type III lesions account for only 5%–10% of postnatal cases and have a male predominance. These lesions consist of small cystic lesions that appear solid on gross examination. Microscopically, lesions resemble an immature lung devoid of bronchi. These cells are surrounded by alveolar ductules and saccules also lined by epithelial cells.

Finally, type IV CPAM (10%–15% of cases) consists of a hamartomatous malformation of the distal acinus. Macroscopically, large thin-walled cysts are located at the periphery of the lobe and are lined by a smooth membrane. Microscopically, type IV cysts are lined by flattened type I and II epithelial cells over most of the cyst wall.

SPSE 1

54
Q

The most accurate prognostic factor for prenatally diagnosed CPAMs is:

A presence or absence of hydrops

B type IV CPAM

C size

D location

E gestational age at diagnosis.

A

A

The classification described above may correlate with a favourable or unfavourable prognosis depending on the subtype; however, it does not affect treatment decisions and is not sufficient to provide an accurate prognosis.

Rather, prognosis for prenatally diagnosed lesions largely depends on the presence or absence of hydrops.

Additionally, prognosis for both prenatally and postnatally diagnosed lesions depends on the size of the lesion and the extent of pulmonary hypoplasia, as well as the presence of other significant anomalies.

SPSE 1

55
Q

A 28-year-old female is 27 weeks pregnant with a fetus whose prenatal ultrasound reveals a 3.5 cm cystic mass in the left lower lobe. There is mediastinal shift and no hydrops. The next step in management should be:

A counselling for termination of pregnancy
B intrauterine drainage of the mass
C observation with serial ultrasounds
D placement of thoracoamniotic shunt
E in utero excision of the mass.

A

C

The size of the CPAM can cause mediastinal shift and low-output cardiac failure from caval and cardiac compression. This results in polyhydramnios and hydrops.

Hydrops manifests as skin/scalp oedema, ascites, pleural or pericardial effusions and placentomegaly.

The single characteristic most commonly noted with fetal demise or perinatal death is hydrops. In the absence of hydrops, the survival of fetuses with CPAMs is excellent.

Ultrasound-guided interventions or prenatal surgery are not indicated for fetuses who are not hydropic.

Termination of pregnancy would not be recommended since there is a high chance that this fetus will probably have a good outcome.

Symptomatic patients may require surgery or drainage of the cyst soon after birth for adequate ventilation.

Observation with serial ultrasounds is the appropriate management in this case.

SPSE 1

56
Q

An otherwise healthy newborn has a prenatal diagnosis of a cystic lesion in the right lung. His chest radiograph is unremarkable and he is on room air. Appropriate management at this point includes:

A elective radiographic (e.g. CT scan) localisation

B operative resection as soon as possible

C emergency CT of the chest

D follow up with observation and chest X-rays until the patient becomes symptomatic

E serial chest ultrasounds.

A

C

occasionally, CPAMs or sequestrations will decrease in size or even disappear by the time of delivery.

If not seen on chest X-ray, a chest CT with intravenous contrast is still recommended since small lesions are not well seen on plain radiographs.

In addition, it is important to recognise a systemic arterial blood supply, which may help during resection.

Asymptomatic masses do not require urgent surgery and can be watched over the first several months.

Most authors suggest that the child with a persistent lung mass undergoes resection before the first year of life to avoid infectious complications.

While the incidence of malignancy is unknown, undiagnosed lesions have been reported to experience malignant transformation several decades after birth.

SPSE 1

57
Q

Even though infrequent, case reports show that CPAMs can have malignant transformation into all of the following tumour types except:

A rhabdomyosarcoma
B squamous cell carcinoma
C adenocarcinoma
D bronchioalveolar carcinoma
E pleuropulmonary blastoma.

A

B

The management of asymptomatic CPAms continues to be controversial, with some authors advocating observation and others recommending elective resection. However, most agree that there is substantial evidence against a ‘wait and see’ approach.

A growing number of reports document malignancies such as myxosarcoma, embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, pleuropulmonary blastoma and bronchioalveolar carcinoma arising in CPAms.

Although primary lung tumours are rare during the first 2 decades of life, up to 8% of these tumours are associated with congenital cystic lesions of the lung, including CPAms.

The youngest reported patient with a malignancy arising within a CPAm was only 13 months of age. Squamous cell carcinomas have not yet been described in the literature in this setting.

SPSE 1

58
Q

The operation recommended for a 3 cm microcystic lesion located in the left lower lobe of the lung is:

A wedge resection
B drainage of the cyst
C marsupialisation of the cyst
D lobectomy
E lobectomy and local lymph node dissection.

A

D

Most authors recommend elective resection either at birth or at about 1 month of age after allowing some time for family bonding at home.

Most CPAMs can be treated with single lobectomy. The rationale behind lobectomy is that visually, it is very difficult to predict how much of the lobe can be preserved without leaving cystic disease unresected.

In cases where two lobes are affected, bi-lobectomy is the preferred treatment of choice.

There have been several series reported describing thoracoscopic lobectomy for cystic lung lesions, and in many institutions it is now the preferred approach.

SPSE 1

59
Q

Which of the following statements about BPSs is true?

A They are macrocystic lesions located mostly in the pulmonary parenchyma.

B They are microcystic lesions that lack an obvious communication with the airway.

C They are macrocystic lesions that communicate at the level of segmental bronchi.

D They are usually symptomatic at birth.

E Most of their blood supply arises from a branch of the pulmonary artery.

A

B

A BPS is a microcystic mass of non-functioning lung tissue that is supplied by an anomalous systemic artery and does not have a bronchial connection to the native tracheobronchial tree. Typically, the lung tissue in BPS receives all or most of its blood supply from an anomalous systemic artery of variable origin. Two forms of sequestration are recognised: IlS and ElS. Although rare, both forms can occur simultaneously. IlSs are incorporated into the normal surrounding lung, whereas ElSs are completely discrete from the normal lung and are enveloped by a separate pleura. The most widely accepted embryologic theory is that a supernumerary lung bud arises caudal to the normal lung bud and continues to migrate caudally with the oesophagus. If this lung bud arises prior to the development of the pleura, it is invested with adjacent lung and becomes an IlS. If supernumerary lung development occurs subsequent to pleura formation, the bud will grow separately and acquire its own pleural covering, forming an ElS.

SPSE 1

60
Q

The following features distinguish congenital lobar emphysema from sequestrations and CPAMs except:

A endobronchial obstruction from inspissated mucus
B absence of systemic blood supply
C decreased echogenicity on ultrasound
D presence of dysplastic bronchial cartilages which cause a valve effect
E lobar hyperexpansion.

A

C

Air trapping in the emphysematous lobe may be due to (1) dysplastic bronchial cartilages creating a ball-valve effect or complete bronchial atresia; (2) endobronchial obstruction from inspissated mucus or extensive mucosal proliferation and infolding; (3) extrinsic compression of the bronchi from aberrant cardiopulmonary vasculature or enlarged cardiac chambers; and (4) diffuse bronchial abnormalities that may or may not be related to infection. Congenital lobar emphysema can be distinguished prenatally from other cystic lung lesions on ultrasonography by increased echogenicity and reflectivity compared with a microcystic CPAm, and the absence of systemic arterial blood supply compared with a BPS. At the time of birth, the affected lobe may be radio-opaque on chest radiography because of delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid.

SPSE 1

61
Q

The following have proven to be effective treatments of hydrops due to a congenital cystic lesion of the lung except:

A thoracoamniotic shunt
B maternal steroid administration
C resection using the ex utero intrapartum treatment (EXIT) strategy
D percutaneous, in utero drainage of the cyst
E maternal prostaglandin administration.

A

E

The development of hydrops usually mandates emergency intervention. Centres with high fetal surgery volume have reported their experience in the management of these lesions. Surgical interventions such as thoracoamniotic shunting, ultrasound-guided drainage and fetal resection have shown to be effective in some cases. In patients who show signs of severe mediastinal shift and cardiac compression, EXIT-to-resection may be indicated. The EXIT-to-resection procedure is a thoracotomy and resection of the CPAm performed on placental support. Although surgical intervention remains the best treatment option for CPAms associated with hydrops, some patients may not be appropriate candidates because of either medical or psychosocial contraindications. These contraindications include chromosomal abnormality, multiple gestation, the presence of other significant anatomical abnormalities, and the presence of other maternal medical or psychosocial risk factors. In these cases, a course of maternal steroids (betamethasone or dexamethasone) may be effective in limiting CPAm growth and resolving hydrops. Prostaglandins have not shown to be effective in treating this condition.

SPSE 1

62
Q

Which one of the following statements is true regarding the CPAM volume: head-circumference ratio (CVR)?

A A CVR lower than 1.6 is predictive of increased risk for hydrops.

B Serial measurements of the CVR showed that the growth of a CPAM often reaches a plateau by 28 weeks’ gestation.

C The CVR is most helpful in CPAMs that consist of a dominant cyst.

D If the CVR measured at 26 weeks’ gestation suggests an increased risk for hydrops, the recommendation is to perform ultrasounds every 3 weeks.

E The CVR is of no value in predicting hydrops

A

B

In 2002, Cromblehome et al. developed an ultrasound-derived CPAM volume: CVR, which allows a gestational age-corrected volume ratio to be used to predict the risk of hydrops within the setting of a CPAM.

The CVR is obtained by dividing the CPAM volume by the head circumference to correct for differences in gestational age.

The authors found that a CVR >1.6 was predictive of an increased risk of hydrops, with 80% of these CPAM fetuses developing hydrops.

Those fetuses with CVR <1.6 have only a 2% risk of hydrops.

The major exception to this rule is that CPAMs with a dominant cyst may be unpredictable in their growth and expansion.

If the CVR is >1.6 at presentation, the authors suggest following the pregnancy with ultrasounds twice a week to help detect early signs of hydrops. The development of marked hydrops may indicate the need to consider open fetal surgery, especially if there is a large microcystic CPAM.

By performing serial CVR measurements, it has been shown that CPAM growth generally reaches a plateau by week 28 of gestation.

SPSE 1

63
Q

Which one of the following statements is true regarding the features of an ELS?

A They are more common in females.

B They share the same pleural lining as the rest of the lung.

C Twenty per cent of ELSs have an infradiaphragmatic systemic feeding vessel.

D The venous drainage consists of a branch of the pulmonary vein.

E Associated anomalies are not common.

A

C

Extralobar BPS has predominance in males (3 : 1), is more common on the left side, and can be associated with conditions such as congenital diaphragmatic hernia, vertebral deformities and congenital heart disease in about 40% of the cases. Approximately 5% of neonates with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia will have an extralobar BPS, which is usually an incidental intraoperative finding. All the ElSs have a systemic arterial blood supply. In 20% of patients, the feeding artery originates from the infradiaphragmatic aorta. In most ElSs, there are systemic venous connections, which include the superior vena cava and the azygous and hemiazygous veins.

SPSE 1