Endocrine Diseases and Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

A 38-year-old female patient presents with a complaint of abdominal weight gain and weakness in the shoulders and hip girdle. She denies the use of any corticosteroid therapies. Nighttime salivary cortisol and low-dose dexamethasone suppression test are positive and serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is elevated.
A high-dose dexamethasone suppression test fails to suppress ACTH level. What is the next best step?

Choices:
1. Adrenal vein sampling
2. Evaluate for a primary malignancy producing ectopic ACTH
3. Head computed tomography scan
4. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CH) stimulation test

A

Answer: 2 - Evaluate for a primary malignancy producing ectopic
ACTH

Explanations:
•The next best step is to search for primary malignancy. Secondary hypercortisolism via ectopic ACTH production may be observed in paraneoplastic Cushing syndrome in small cell lung cancer, renal cell carcinoma, and carcinoid syndrome.
• Ectopic ACTH secreting foci such as in paraneoplastic syndromes are resistant to negative feedback provided by the high-dose dex-amethasone suppression test, and cortisol level remains elevated.
• The high-dose dexamethasone suppression test should suppress
ACTH secretion in cases when low doses of dexamethasone fail to suppress it. If the cortisol level decreases after a high-dose dexam-ethasone suppression test, head imaging studies should be done to evaluate for pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease).
• If ACTH levels were low with positive nighttime salivary cortisol and low-dose dexamethasone suppression test, suspect adrenal overproduction of cortisol. evaluation.

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2
Q

A 3-year-old male is noted to have a 2 cm mass over the thyroid cartilage that the parent’s report has not changed for several months. The child has been healthy but is obese with weight at the 95th percentile and height at the 10th percentile. The thyroid gland is not palpable, and the rest of the exam is normal. What is the next step in evaluation?

Choices:
1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level
2. Fine needle aspiration cytology
3. Head and neck magnetic resonance imaging
4. Thyroid assessment with technetium-99m pertechnetate

A

Answer: 1 - Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level

Explanations:
• The child may have ectopic sub-hyoid thyroid tissue. TSH is an essential tool to evaluate for the diagnosis, especially when the patient is obese and short which indicates the underlying endocrinology issue.
• The normal thyroid function and the absence of manifestations in ectopic thyroid could last up to years.
•After establishing the diagnosis of hypothyroidism when the suspicion of ectopic thyroid is high, a radionuclide thyroid imaging employing technetium-99m pertechnetate is to be performed.
•The most common location of ectopic thyroid tissue is at the foramen cecum, resulting in a lingual thyroid.

StatPearls

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3
Q

Which one of these genes is involved in the pathogenesis of multiple endocrine neoplasia type II?

A APC
B p53
C RET
D VLH
E None of the above

A

C

Multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with very high penetrance.

The genetic defect in these disorders involves the RET proto-oncogene, a tyrosine kinase receptor, on chromosome 10q11.2.

All clinical manifestations of the multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN-2) syndromes relate to a defect in transduction of growth and differentiation signals in several developing tissues that express RET.

So far, mutation analysis in MEN-2 families has identified over 50 different mutations related to the disease.

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4
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding hypothyroidism in children?

A Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated.

B Patients are usually symptomatic at birth.

C It can present as a sublingual mass.

D It is congenital in 90% of cases.

E Surgical treatment is rarely required.

A

B

Children may be rarely afflicted with acquired or congenital diseases of thyroid hormone production, resulting in either increased or decreased hormone production and secretion.

Thyroid gland dysgenesis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism diagnosed in neonatal screening programmes, accounting for approximately 90% of these patients.

In about one-third of these babies, no thyroid tissue is seen on radionuclide scanning.

In the rest of the patients, a rudimentary gland may be found in an ectopic location, usually the base of the tongue.

Often, there has been enough transplacental thyroid hormone present throughout development so even children with complete thyroid agenesis are asymptomatic at birth.

In some cases, ectopically located thyroid tissue may supply a sufficient amount of thyroxin for many years or may fail in childhood. This condition can be identified with the development of a sublingual or midline neck mass.

When evaluating neck masses in children, attention should be paid to this fact and a radionuclide thyroid scan should be considered, prior to removing any unusual neck mass. This will ensure that functioning thyroid tissue is not accidentally resected.

Because of its sensitivity, TSH is the best screening method for this condition.

Disorders of hypothyroidism are rarely treated surgically, and may result from a defect anywhere in the hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid axis.

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5
Q

Which of the following is not true about Graves’ disease?

A It is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in childhood.

B Infection may elicit the production of autoantibodies against the TSH receptor.

C The condition is seen in girls about five times more than in boys.

D The condition is more frequent in the adolescent years.

E The congenital form occurs in 20% of infants born to mothers with active Graves’s disease.

A

E

Graves’s disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in childhood.

It is characterised by autoimmunity by thyroid-stimulating antibodies that result in activation of thyrotropin receptors leading to unregulated hyperthyroidism.

This is mediated by immunoglobulins of the IgG class, and is present in 95% of the patients.

The event that initiates the production of these antibodies is unknown, but it has been postulated that it could be related to infection.

This is suggested by the presence of TSH-binding sites in gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria and also by epidemiologic reports of disease clustering.

The disease is seen in girls 5 times more than boys, and is higher in the adolescent population.

Congenital Graves’s disease occurs in 1% of infants born to women with active disease.

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6
Q

While evaluating an infant on rounds, you notice that his mother looks anxious, complains of fatigue and heat intolerance, and admits to some weight loss despite having an increased appetite. You examine her carefully and discover that she is tachycardic, with a tremor. Furthermore she has fullness in her neck and in her eyes. She denies prenatal care. The infant is most likely at risk for development of:

A constipation
B heart failure
C macrocephaly
D third-degree heart block
E thrombocytosis.

A

B

The infant is likely at risk for neonatal thyrotoxicosis.

Neonatal thyrotoxicosis usually disappears within 2–4 months as the concentration of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) diminishes.

Unlike TSI, TSH does not cross the placenta.

All forms of thyrotoxicosis are more common in females, with the exception of neonatal thyrotoxicosis, which has an equal sex distribution.

Symptoms include tachycardia and tachypnoea, irritability and hyperactivity, low birthweight with microcephaly, severe vomiting and diarrhoea, thrombocytopenia, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly and heart failure.

In severely affected infants, the disease could be fatal if not treated vigorously and promptly.

Third-degree heart block is not a feature of this disease, but is sometimes seen in infants born to mothers with systemic lupus erythematosis.

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7
Q

A 16-year-old female has had elevated serum calcium levels since birth. During her workup she is found to have a normal parathormone (PTH) level and hypocalciuria. She denies any symptoms. What would be the most appropriate treatment?

A 3½ parathyroidectomy
B technetium-99m sestamibi scintigraphy
C bisphosphonate
D observation
E single adenoma parathyroidectomy

A

D

The case describes a patient with familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemic disease.

It is an autosomal dominant disease that expresses itself as an error in the calcium-sensing receptor. This results in higher-than-normal serum calcium levels.

These patients are usually asymptomatic and laboratory findings include hypercalcaemia, hypocalciuria and normal or slightly elevated PTH levels.

The diagnosis of familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia can be made by measuring urine calcium levels, which are lowered in these patients.

It is important to exclude this diagnosis in all patients with high serum calcium.

The treatment of this disease is strictly observational. Patients do not require surgery or further workup.

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism in children?

A Conn’s syndrome
B adrenocortical hyperplasia
C adrenocortical carcinoma
D Bartter’s syndrome
E none of the above

A

B

Overproduction of aldosterone is known as primary hyperaldosteronism when the cause is related to adrenal dysfunction.

This hypersecretion may be the result of bilateral nodular hyperplasia, or from an adrenocortical tumour (adenoma or carcinoma).

Adrenocortical hyperplasia is the most common cause in the paediatric population.

Children present with hypertension, hypokalaemia, elevated plasma aldosterone levels, and low plasma renin activity.

Children with hyperplasia are treated medically with spironolactone, an inhibitor of aldosterone biosynthesis, which is usually quite effective in managing the hypertension.

Bilateral adrenalectomy has not always been effective in curing the hypertension associated with this condition.

Bartter’s syndrome is a renal tubular defect that is characterised by hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis, hypokalaemia, elevated urinary chloride, potassium and prostaglandin levels.

Patients have normal blood pressure, but hyperreninaemia and hyperaldosteronism are present.

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9
Q

A 5-year-old male is referred to your clinic after presenting with a few months of muscle weakness, polydipsia and polyuria. His BP is 150/80. What is the next step in management?

A head CT scan
B aldosterone level
C potassium level
D check a renin level
E arterial blood gas

A

C

Signs and symptoms of primary hyperaldosteronism are non-specific. Children usually present with hypertension, muscle weakness, polydipsia and polyuria.

Constant high levels of aldosterone causes the total body sodium level to increase, thus increasing the total fluid volume.

This also suppresses renin and angiotensin.

When a child presents with hypertension and hypokalaemia, one should consider a diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism.

This is the reason why potassium levels are the initial screening test in children with hypertension.

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10
Q

A 5-year-old male is referred to your clinic after presenting with a few months of muscle weakness, polydipsia and polyuria. His BP is 150/80. Potassium levels show hypokalemia.

CT scan shows no discrete masses. What is the next step in management?

A exploratory laparotomy
B selective adrenal vein sampling
C MRI scan
D abdominal ultrasonography
E none of the above

A

B

Once the diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is confirmed, one has to distinguish between an adenoma and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.

If a mass greater than 1 cm is identified by a CT scan or an MRI, the diagnosis of adenoma is entertained.

If no masses are visualised, a selective adrenal vein sampling can differentiate unilateral vs. bilateral adrenocortical hypersecretion.

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11
Q

Which of the following is true about goitres in children?

A Most are euthyroid, and surgery is rarely indicated.

B With simple colloid goitre, the patient is hyperthyroid.

C Exogenous thyroid hormone is the treatment of choice for simple goitres D Graves’s disease is the most common cause.

E None of the above.

A

A

Diffuse thyroid enlargement can be due to a defect in hormone production, autoimmune disease or a response to an inflammatory condition.

Most children with goitres are euthyroid and surgical indication is rarely indicated.

The most common diagnosis of enlarged thyroid is simple goitre.

Other diagnoses include chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis, Graves’s disease, benign adenomas, and cysts.

Exogenous thyroid hormone does not enhance resolution of the goitre.

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a manifestation or associated condition of Graves’s hyperthyroidism in children?

A Addison’s disease
B diffuse goitre
C ophthalmopathy
D diffuse arthropathy
E localised dermopathy

A

D

Graves’s disease is characterised by autoimmunity by thyroid-stimulating antibodies that results in activation of thyrotropin receptors leading to unregulated hyperthyroidism.

It is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in children.

The clinical manifestations specific to Graves’s disease include diffuse goitre, exophthalmos, dermopathy and lymphoid hyperplasia.

Common diseases associated with Graves’ are diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, vitiligo, pernicious anaemia, myasthenia gravis, alopecia areata and other autoimmune diseases.

Patients will often present with signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

Most children with Graves’s disease have a family history of some type of autoimmune thyroid disease.

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13
Q

A 7-year-old obese female presents to your clinic with growth failure.

Which is the most sensitive test to order in this patient to screen for Cushing’s syndrome?

A high-dose dexamethasone suppression test
B 24-hour urine free cortisol
C adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulation test
D corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) test
E plasma cortisol level

A

B

The most sensitive and specific test to determine hypercortisolism is the 24-hour urine free cortisol test.

This avoids the episodic nature of cortisol secretion.

ACTH level can be elevated, suppressed or normal in hypercortisolism.

The CRH test is used to differentiate between a pituitary cause for hypercortisolism and other causes.

The high-dose dexamethasone test separates a pituitary source of hypercortisolism from an ectopic source of ACTH.

The ACTH stimulation test is used to determine the function of the adrenal gland(s) and is the test of choice to diagnose adrenal insufficiency.

The low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is used to diagnose hypercortisolism.

Although plasma ACTH level will most likely be elevated in adrenal insufficiency, this test is not specific for this condition.

Random serum cortisol levels are quite variable because of the episodic nature of cortisol secretion, and thus this test is not sensitive enough for diagnosing adrenal insufficiency.

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14
Q

Non-endocrine manifestations of MEN2B include all the following, except:

A megacolon
B lichen amyloidosis
C mucosal neuromas
D hypertrophied corneal nerves
E pectus excavatum.

A

B

MEN syndromes are a group of endocrine disturbances that affect hormonesecreting glands. These are rare autosomal dominant conditions that predispose affected individuals to benign and malignant tumours of the pituitary, thyroid, parathyroids, adrenals, endocrine pancreas, paraganglia or non- endocrine organs.

The classic MEN syndromes include MEN type 1 (MEN-1) and MEN type 2 (MEN-2).

MEN-2 syndrome is often first suspected when a patient is found to have one or more of the tumours described in the syndrome, usually medullary thyroid cancer, or a family history.

These syndromes are accompanied by a series of non-endocrine manifestations that help in the diagnosis, especially in children with no known family history of the disease.

Cutaneous lichen amyloidosis is a component of the MEN-2A syndrome that has been described in families with the disease. It can be present before the onset of medullary thyroid carcinoma , and the identification of this skin lesion should prompt an evaluation for MEN-2A. The skin lesion is usually described as as intensely pruritic, red-brown hyperkeratotic papules most commonly seen in the interscapular region or on the extensor surfaces of the extremities. The first early symptom is usually pruritus; the amyloid deposition is seen later and is thought to be secondary to repeated scratching.

Amyloid deposition has been documented histologically.

MEN-2B presents with mucosal neuromas, intestinal ganglioneuromas and marfanoid habitus. Clinically the neuromas present in the tongue, lips and eyelids, with characteristic facial features including enlarged lips, a ‘bumpy’ tongue, and eversion of the eyelids. The marfanoid body habitus physic is accompanied by increased joint mobility and decreased subcutaneous fat.

Ganglioneuromatosis presents with thickening of the corneal nerves or in the gastrointestinal tract, resulting in abdominal distension, megacolon, constipation, or diarrhea.

All these physical traits are usually evident in early childhood, and are sometimes already present at birth.

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15
Q

You are evaluating an 8-year-old female who complains of short stature. She is in the 10th percentile for her age. On further questioning, you notice that she had vaginal spotting for the last couple of months and she is also constipated. Her school performance has changed. On examination, she seems overweight and has a puffy face; no obvious masses are palpated on her neck, and she has muffled heart sounds. Which of the following conditions is most likely to present with these findings?

A rickets
B scurvy
C hypothyroidism
D microcytic anaemia
E adrenocortical insufficiency

A

C

Acquired hypothyroidism is the most common disturbance of thyroid function in childhood. Most cases of acquired hypothyroidism in children are the result of autoimmune thyroid disease.

The most common manifestation is a decrease in growth rate resulting in short stature.

If hypothyroidism occurs in adolescence, it is also associated with delayed puberty.

Another common presentation is altered school performance.

Other common symptoms are sluggishness, lethargy, cold intolerance, constipation, dry skin, brittle hair, facial puffiness and muscle aches and pains.

On physical examination, findings include short stature and increased weight for height.

A goitre may or may not be present.

Children with long-standing hypothyroidism have puffy myxoedematous facies.

Cardiovascular examination may show bradycardia, low systolic blood pressure, and muffled heart tones if a pericardial effusion is present.

On neurologic examination, deep tendon reflexes tend to have a delayed return phase.

A minority of children may actually present with pseudoprecocious puberty.

Rickets results from a deficiency of vitamin D. This condition predominantly affects the long bones and skull.

Vitamin C deficiency results in scurvy, a condition with impaired collagen formation. The clinical manifestations may include changes in the gums, loosening of teeth, brittle bones and swollen joints.

Pallor is the most important sign of iron-deficiency anaemia. Children may also have the desire to ingest unusual substances such as ice or dirt.

Finally, hyponatraemia and hypoglycaemia are the prominent presenting signs of adrenal insufficiency in infants.

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16
Q

A 10-year-old boy has recently been diagnosed with sporadic hyperparathyroidism (HPT). Compared with MEN1 associated HPT, this patient’s disease is most likely to involve:

A a single parathyroid gland
B all four parathyroid glands
C the thyroid gland
D the pituitary gland
E none of the above.

A

A

Sporadic primary hyperparathyroidism (HPT) is genetically distinct from its MEN-associated disease.

Whereas MEN-associated disease tends to produce diffuse multiglandular parathyroid involvement, sporadic primary HPT tends to involve only a single gland.

The difference in number of glands involved in sporadic vs. MEN-associated disease has important implications for surgical management of patients with primary HPT.

In MEN-associated HPT, most surgeons advocate exploration with identification of all four glands.

The specifics of which procedure to perform in MEN-associated disease, however, are controversial.

Some surgeons advocate total parathyroidectomy with autotransplantation while others prefer subtotal or 3½ gland parathyroidectomy.

In contrast, surgical therapy for sporadic adenomas may be directed at removal of the single adenomatous gland – especially with the use of localisation imaging and intraoperative parathyroid hormone testing.

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17
Q

A 12-year-old male with known diagnosis of HPT and awaiting surgical resection, presents with hypercalcaemia. Which of the following is not an acceptable treatment for hypercalcaemia?

A intravenous hydration
B furosemide
C thiazide
D bisphosphonate
E calcitonin

A

C

The treatment for symptomatic hypercalcaemia begins with inpatient admission for continuous cardiac monitoring.

Any medication that may increase calcium levels should be discontinued. This includes vitamin D supplements and thiazide diuretics.

Any dietary calcium (dairy products) should also be stopped.

Intravenous hydration and furosemide will generally correct symptoms and bring calcium levels to normal in those patients with hyperparathyroidism as the cause of their hypercalcaemia.

Malignant hypercalcaemia may be more difficult to manage and may require the use of disodium etidronate or other bisphosphonates. These agents work by inhibiting the action of osteoclast activity.

Calcitonin is another agent that can be used to lower calcium levels. It is a comparatively poor hypercalcaemia treatment agent, but has a short time to action and minimal adverse effect profile.

Mithramycin is also effective and high-dose steroids work well for sarcoid patients with hypercalcaemic symptoms.

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18
Q

You are evaluating a female newborn with tonic–clonic seizures. Patient and mother did not have any prenatal significant history. On her initial workup she is found to have glucose of 10 mg/dL. After correcting her hypoglycaemia, which of these tests is not indicated in the workup of this patient?

A TSH
B insulin level
C cortisol level
D growth hormone level
E PTH level

A

E

Hypoglycaemia is the most common metabolic disorder in the first year of life.

It is potentially a devastating cause of severe brain damage, mental retardation and even death if not recognised and treated early.

The differential diagnosis for hypoglycaemia in the newborn includes persistent hyperinsulinaemic hypoglycaemia of infancy (PHHI), also called nesidioblastosis; lack of substrate for gluconeogenesis (e.g. glycogen-storage disease); and inadequate gluconeogenic hormones (e.g. hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency or growth-hormone deficiency).

When working up a neonate with hypoglycaemia, all these causes should be ruled out.

PTH is useful in the screening for parathyroid disease and is not indicated in this patient.

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19
Q

You are evaluating a female newborn with tonic–clonic seizures. Patient and mother did not have any prenatal significant history. On her initial workup she is found to have glucose of 10 mg/dL.

Laboratory studies show a serum insulin of 9.0 mcU/mL when her plasma glucose was 24 mg/dL (insulin : glucose = 0.35) (normal <0.3), along with negative findings for serum acetone; cortisol, 17.2 ug/dL (normal = 6–23 mcg/dL) and growth hormone, 18.8 ng/mL (normal = 10–40 ng/mL).

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A nesidioblastosis
B Addison’s disease
C Cushing’s disease
D thyroid dysgenesis
E none of the above

A

A

Nesidioblastosis or PHHI is the most common cause of persistent hypoglycaemia in infants.

It is characterised by inadequate suppression of insulin secretion in the presence of severe, recurrent, fasting
hypoglycemia.

There are two forms of PHHI, a focal and a diffuse type. Both forms have similar clinical presentation, and pathological analysis is required for proper distinction between the two.

Neonates with PHHI present with hypoglycaemic symptoms, which include lethargy, hypotonia and seizures shortly after birth.

Serum glucose, ketone and insulin levels should be obtained while the patient is hypoglycaemic.

The finding of nonketotic hypoglycaemia in association with elevated insulin levels (>10 µu/ml) and normal levels of free fatty acid supports the diagnosis of hyperinsulinism.

The insulin-to-glucose ratio may range from 0.4 to 2.7 (normal <0.3).

Cortisol and growth hormone levels are usually elevated in specimens taken during an episode of hypoglycaemia (appropriate and normal response to hypoglycaemia) and are usually within the reference range during periods of normoglycaemia.

Serum metabolic screens, pH, lactate and ammonia studies may be obtained to exclude other metabolic diseases.

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20
Q

In Nesidioblastosis, if medical management fails, what is the most appropriate surgical management?

A pancreatoduodenectomy
B near-total pancreatectomy
C trans-sphenoidal microadenoma
D liver transplant
E pancreatic transplant

A

B

The initial therapy is directed towards correcting the hypoglycaemia.

This should consist of intravenous glucose, frequent feedings if possible, and drug administration to control insulin secretion.

Diazoxide and octreotide are the firstline medications. They act by inhibiting insulin secretion.

Other medical therapy may consist of glucocorticoids to promote insulin resistance and streptozotocin to decrease the number of insulin-secreting cells.

In cases where medical therapy fails, pancreatic resection has been the mainstay of surgical therapy for patients with PHHI.

The clinical distinction between the two forms of PHHI is important because patients with focal PHHI may respond to a topographically guided partial pancreatic resection, whereas patients with diffuse PHHI may require a near-total pancreatectomy to alleviate symptoms of hypoglycaemia.

However, long-term follow-up has reported a significant incidence of diabetes after such a resection.

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21
Q

A 5-day-old girl is admitted to a hospital for evaluation of vomiting and dehydration. Physical examination is otherwise normal except for a small urethral phallus, apparent hypertrophy of a clitoris and near fusion of the labioscrotal folds. Serum sodium and potassium concentrations are 121 mEq/L and 8.5 mEq/L, respectively; serum glucose is 122 mg/dL. The most likely diagnosis is:

A panhypopituitarism
B congenital adrenal hyperplasia
C secondary hypothyroidism
D pyloric stenosis
E hyperaldosteronism.

A

B

This infant most likely has congenital adrenal hyperplasia, usually manifested during the first 5–15 days of life as anorexia, vomiting, diarrhoea and dehydration.

Hypoglycaemia can also occur.

Affected infants can have increased pigmentation, and female infants show evidence of virilisation (ambiguous external genitalia).

Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia and urinary sodium wasting are the usual laboratory findings.

Pyloric stenosis seems unlikely in this infant in that the vomiting with this disease usually begins after the third week of life.

Hypothyroidism would present as a lethargic, poor-feeding infant with delayed reflexes, persistent jaundice and hypotonia.

Hyperaldosteronism would be expected to cause decreased potassium, not increased levels.

Panhypopituitarism usually presents with apnoea, cyanosis or severe hypoglycaemia.

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22
Q

Which of the following is the best test to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

A abdominal ultrasonography
B measurement of 17-hydroxyprogesterone
C somatomedin C measurement
D measurement of T3, T4 and TSH
E measurement of serum renin levels

A

B

The enzymatic defect in the steroidogenesis pathway causes a decrease in cortisol secretion, with consequent increased ACTH production, which acts in a vicious cycle to further drive the production of other steroids in the pathway (other than cortisol).

The excess adrenal androgens are converted peripherally to testosterone.

The most common enzymatic deficiency is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, responsible for more than 90% of the congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

It is manifested by elevation of serum levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone beyond 3 days of life (in the first 3 days of life they can normally be high).

Treatment of this disorder consists of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement and in the case of the female pseudohermaphrodite, the external genitalia are surgically modified to be female.

Death can occur if the diagnosis is missed and appropriate treatment is not instituted.

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23
Q

A 17-year-old male is being evaluated for a thyroid nodule. During questioning, he admits to recently having headaches and anxiety. After the administration of pentagastrin, his serum calcitonin is 1500 pg/mL.

A fine needle aspiration (FNA) of the nodules is performed. What measurement on the FNA sample would aid in making the diagnosis?

A calcitonin

B vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)

C carcinoembryonic antigen

D A and C

E all of the above

A

D

This question describes a typical case of medullary thyroid carcinoma (mTC), with a multinodular thyroid in the setting of an elevated calcitonin level.

mTC originates from the parafollicular C cells and is responsible for 5% of all thyroid malignancies.

Eighty percent of medullary carcinomas are sporadic and the remainder are associated with an inherited multiple endocrine neoplasia (mEN) syndrome.

Pathological diagnosis can be obtained with FNA.

The pathological features of medullary carcinoma include C-cell hyperplasia, presence of amyloid, and specimen staining positive for calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen.

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24
Q

What is the most important test to consider before any surgical interventions for multiple endocrine neoplasm type 2?

A serum calcium

B serum parathormone (PTH) level

C 24-hour urine catecholamines

D serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and T4 levels

E serum phosphorus

A

C

This patient presentation with headache and anxiety, should raise the suspicion of a concurrent phaeochromocytoma.

Phaeochromocytomas are rare catecholamine-secreting tumours of the adrenal medulla.

They affect 40% of patients with mEN2A and similarly with mEN2B, although there is large variability of its penetrance among kindreds.

About 10% of phaeochromocytomas in children are familial.

malignant phaeochromocytomas are rare in children (<1%), but there is a higher incidence of bilateral disease.

usually phaeochromocytomas become evident about 10 years after the diagnosis of C-cell hyperplasia or mTC.

The symptoms associated with phaeochromocytoma include hypertension, headache, intermittent sweating, pallor and flushing, tachycardia and palpitations, nervousness, weight loss, abdominal or chest pain, and thirst with polyuria.

mEN2 patients are characterised by an adrenergic phenotype and show larger elevations of plasma metanephrines and a higher frequency of hypertension and symptoms, particularly of a paroxysmal nature.

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25
Q

If the CT scan suggests a phaeochromocytoma, what procedure would you perform first?

A adrenalectomy
B parathyroidectomy
C thyroidectomy
D A and C
E B and C

A

A

If a phaeochromocytoma is identified in this patient, it will need to be removed before the thyroid is operated on.

The treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgical removal of the lesion.

Phaeochromocytomas can be extraordinarily active for their size, and accurate preoperative localisation of the lesions is essential.

In the setting of bilateral disease, partial adrenalectomy should be considered.

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26
Q

What is the recommended treatment after the possibility of phaeochromocytoma has been definitely excluded?

A ipsilateral thyroid lobectomy with ultrasound examination of the contralateral lobe

B total thyroidectomy with postoperative iodine-131 treatment

C total thyroidectomy with postoperative calcitonin monitoring

D total thyroidectomy with postoperative chemoradiation therapy

E excisional biopsy with permanent pathology examination

A

C

The treatment of choice for sporadic and inherited disease is total thyroidectomy with central lymph node dissection.

Ipsilateral modified neck dissection should be performed if there is neck disease, if there are positive findings during central neck dissection, or if tumour size is greater than 1 cm.

Postoperatively, patients benefit from thyroid hormone replacement after total thyroidectomy.

There is no role for postoperative iodine-131 therapy.

Chemotherapy has not been shown to be useful, but radiation therapy has been shown to decrease local recurrence in high-risk patients.

After a period of 8–12 weeks, if serum calcitonin and carcinoembryonic antigen levels are within normal limits, they can be used as sensitive markers for recurrence or metastases. Somatostatin may be used for the treatment of facial flushing and diarrhoea.

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27
Q

After an uneventful laparoscopic appendicectomy for acute appendicitis in an 8-year-old, pathology report shows a 2 cm carcinoid in the tip of the appendix. What is the next step in management?

A right hemicolectomy

B chemotherapy

C observation

D caecectomy

E ileocaecectomy

A

C

Carcinoid tumours arise from the amine uptake cells and the carboxylation cells and are classified according to the site of origin as foregut, midgut or hindgut, with midgut tumours accounting for 80%–85% of cases; 46% of these arise from the appendix.

only 10% of patients have symptoms present at time of diagnosis.

Sixty per cent of these tumours are detected after an appendicectomy has been performed.

As in adults, 2 cm is the threshold between a simple appendicectomy and a right hemicolectomy.

Also the proximity to the caecum and mucin production is also taken into account.

In this case treatment has been completed, and the patient requires only observation.

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28
Q

Which tumour markers can be used to follow this patient?

A serotonin

B chromogranin A

C somatostatin

D inhibin

E CA125

A

A

Carcinoid tumours are derived from chromaffin cells and are able to secrete vasoactive peptides such as serotonin.

This makes it a good tumour marker to follow up for recurrence in these patients.

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29
Q

A 5-year-old girl who underwent prophylactic total thyroidectomy 24 hours ago now complains of a generalised ‘tingling’ sensation and muscle cramps. Appropriate treatment would include which of the following?

A intravenous infusion of calcium gluconate

B administration of oxygen by mask

C administration of an anticonvulsant

D administration of a tranquilliser

E neurologic consultation

A

A

The most common complication of thyroid surgery remains transient hypoparathyroidism, occurring in 0.7%–40% of paediatric patients.

The most frequent cause is injury to the blood supply of the parathyroid glands. The manifestations include tingling, muscle cramps, convulsions and a positive Chvostek’s sign (contraction of facial muscles after tapping the facial nerve).

mild asymptomatic hypocalcaemia does not require calcium supplementation.

In patients with severe disturbances or symptoms of hypocalcaemia, intravenous supplementation should be implemented and patients should be released with an oral calcium regimen until the hypoparathyroidism resolves.

In 2% of patients, permanent hypocalcaemia requires permanent calcium and vitamin D supplementation to avoid the long-term complications of hypocalcaemia.

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30
Q

A 16-year-old female presents with depression, hypertension, 9 kg weight gain over 6 months and amenorrhoea. On examination, she weighs 75 kg, her height is 152 cms, and she has supraclavicular fullness, abdominal striae, ecchymoses on her arms and facial acne. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

A morning adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level

B morning cortisol level

C MRI of pituitary

D 24-hour urine free cortisol

E 1 g cosyntropin stimulation test

A

D

The patient has the clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome.

Initial screening tests for determining if she has hypercortisolism include dexamethasone suppression testing, midnight cortisol measurement and urinary free cortisol.

of these tests, the urinary free cortisol is most sensitive test.

In patients with Cushing’s syndrome, the urinary free cortisol level is greater than 100 µg per day.

31
Q

After confirming the diagnosis of Cushing’s disease, how would you identify pituitary from non-pituitary causes?

A low-dose dexamethasone test

B high-dose dexamethasone test

C morning adrenocorticotropic hormone level

D 24-hour urine free cortisol

E morning cortisol level

A

B

After the diagnosis of Cushing’s syndrome is established, a specific cause needs to be determined.

This can be achieved by using the high-dose dexamethasone test.

This test distinguishes between pituitary and non-pituitary causes.

An oral dose of dexamethasone is given every 6 hours for 48 hours.

Then a 24-hour urine is collected to measure for free cortisol and 17-hydroxysteroids.

In patients with an adrenal adenoma or adrenocortical carcinoma, and in most patients with tumours that produce ACTH, the levels are not suppressed.

In patients with pituitary neoplasm, the steroid secretion levels are suppressed by 50%.

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32
Q

When a pituitary microadenoma is identified, what is the best option for treatment?

A chemotherapy

B adrenalectomy

C trans-sphenoidal hypophysectomy

D radiation

E none of the above

A

C

Bilateral adrenalectomy used to be the therapy of choice for Cushing’s syndrome due to pituitary tumours.

This aggressive treatment took care of the problem, but patients were left with adrenal insufficiency.

The treatment of choice is resection of the pituitary tumour, via the trans-sphenoidal route.

It is expected that 20% of patients may experience a relapse within 5 years of treatment.

If not successful, pituitary irradiation is generally an effective second-line treatment.

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33
Q

A 12-year-old male has been diagnosed with asymptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following is not a management options?

A sestamibi scan followed by localised parathyroidectomy and frozen section

B observation

C four-gland exploration

D transaxillary parathyroidectomy

E neck ultrasound followed by localised parathyroidectomy and PTH assay

A

B

Primary hyperparathyroidism in childhood most commonly results from a solitary hyperfunctioning adenoma, and more rarely from diffuse hyperplasia of all four glands.

Hyperparathyroidism resulting from hyperplasia in all four glands is a feature of mEN1.

Furthermore, as stated previously, approximately 30% of patients having mEN2A develop hyperparathyroidism.

once the diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism is established, the offending parathyroid tissue should be resected.

There is no place for medical management of primary hyperparathyroidism in children.

In the past, bilateral neck exploration with resection of enlarged parathyroid glands was standard treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism.

more recent advances in imaging and real-time parathyroid hormone measurements have allowed the use of minimally invasive techniques in adults.

Currently, it is recommended that patients with biochemically confirmed primary hyperparathyroidism undergo preoperative localisation with technetium- 99msestamibi scan.

If the scan demonstrates a single parathyroid lesion, a less invasive procedure can be performed.

Confirmation that the offending gland has been removed can be obtained by performing a rapid parathyroid hormone analysis while the child remains asleep.

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34
Q

A 16-year-old female presents with a 4 cm nodule of the lower pole of the left lobe of the thyroid gland. It is mildly tender and there are no palpable lymph nodes. Her TSH level is low. She is referred to you with an ultrasonography scan (see Figure 72.1a) and nuclear scan (see Figure 72.1b). What is the next step in management?

A total thyroidectomy
B left lobectomy
C thyroid antibody studies
D FNA of the nodule
E CT of the neck

A

D

Although thyroid nodules are uncommon in children, their importance stems from a relatively high likelihood of associated cancer.

In more recent paediatric studies, the incidence of malignancy in thyroid nodules has been 20% or less. This is a much lower incidence of cancer than was reported in previous decades and is believed to reflect the decreased number of children who have been exposed to neck radiation for trivial reasons.

In a child with a palpable solitary nodule, measurement of free T4, TSH and thyroid antibodies (antithyroglobulin and antithyroid peroxidase) is generally carried out to evaluate thyroid function and screen for autoimmune thyroiditis.

When evaluating a sporadic thyroid nodule in a symptomatic paediatric patient, it is critical to determine whether the nodule is malignant or benign.

The most important diagnostic test at this point is FNA. The technique is easily accomplished in nodules larger than 1 cm in diameter; smaller lesions may require ultrasound guidance.

Interpretations are classified as benign tumour, malignant tumour, indeterminate diagnosis or inadequate specimen.

In children, the effectiveness of FNA cytology in the evaluation of thyroid nodules is still being debated.

Children are somewhat more difficult to evaluate than adults, owing to the smaller size of the nodules, and the frequent need to sedate the child to allow safe and accurate aspiration.

Also, there is a higher incidence of cancer in any thyroid nodule in young children.

It is widely accepted to use FNA in adolescent patients because the pattern of thyroid disease is similar to that of adults.

CT scan will not reliably separate benign from malignant nodules Total thyroidectomy is not indicated at this time.

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35
Q

Her FNA shows this to be a benign follicular lesion. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A total thyroidectomy

B total thyroidectomy with postoperative iodine-131 therapy

C lobectomy

D lobectomy with postoperative iodine-131 therapy

E observation with interval ultrasound examination and thyroglobulin measurement

A

C

For a benign follicular lesion, lobectomy should be adequate.

If there is any suggestion on the final pathology that this is a malignant lesion then a completion thyroidectomy should be performed.

There is controversy about the extent of thyroid resection required for long-term control.

Surgeons advocating aggressive thyroid resections argue that total thyroidectomy, with lymph node dissection if the regional nodes are involved, is the most successful method of obtaining local control of the tumour.

moreover, removing the entire thyroid gland makes radioiodine ablative therapy more effective because there is less functioning endocrine tissue to take up the radionuclide.

Those who argue that lesser thyroid gland resection is indicated hold that differentiated thyroid carcinoma in children is a relatively indolent disease and that survival is apparently not a function of the extent of gland removal.

Further, there is a significant incidence of major surgical complications associated with total thyroidectomy in children.

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36
Q

Post-thyroid lobectomy, a patient underwent an uneventful operation, but 6 hours later you get called to the bedside because the patient has breathing difficulties. On examination her condition is stable, her O 2 saturation is 94% and the wound is dry, but there seems to be some swelling. What is the next step in management?

A intubation

B wound exploration

C observation

D warm compresses

E ultrasonography of the neck

A

B

Patient is presenting with possible wound haematoma.

This diagnosis should be made at the bedside and warrants immediate treatment.

In the setting of respiratory difficulty, even though her o2 saturation is normal, a wound exploration is warranted.

Evacuation of the haematoma will result in immediate opening of the airway.

Emergency intubation is not indicated as her oxygen saturation is normal.

ultrasonography would delay the diagnosis in the setting of respiratory difficulty.

Warm compresses or observation would not correct the problem.

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37
Q

An 11-year-old male presents to your clinic complaining of muscle weakness. On exam his BP is 150/90. His serum potassium level is 2.9. He underwent a CT scan of his abdomen (see Figures 72.2a and 72.2b) what’s the diagnosis?

A Cushing’s syndrome
B phaeochromocytoma
C adrenal hyperplasia
D adrenal adenoma
E neuroblastoma

A

D

Signs and symptoms of primary hyperaldosteronism are non-specific.

Children usually present with hypertension, muscle weakness, polydipsia and polyuria.

Constant high levels of aldosterone causes the total body sodium level to increase, thus increasing the total fluid volume and suppressing renin and angiotensin.

When a child presents with hypertension and hypokalaemia, one should consider a diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism.

once the diagnosis is confirmed, it is necessary to determine whether it is due to an adenoma or to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.

If a mass greater than 1 cm is identified by CT scan or mRI, adenoma is likely.

If no masses are visualised, a selective adrenal vein sampling can differentiate unilateral vs. bilateral adrenocortical hypersecretion.

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38
Q

An 11-year-old male presents to your clinic complaining of muscle weakness. On exam his BP is 150/90. His serum potassium level is 2.9. He underwent a CT scan of his abdomen (see Figures 72.2a and 72.2b) .

What is the next step in management of the patient?

A percutaneous biopsy
B radiation
C bilateral adrenalectomy
D unilateral adrenalectomy
E spironolactone

A

D

In patients with adrenal hypercortisolism of unilateral adrenal origin, the treatment is operative removal of the gland.

Perioperative exogenous glucocorticoid replacement is required because the contralateral gland is suppressed.

The surgical approach to the adrenal gland depends on the size of the lesion, the likelihood of malignant disease, the need for bilateral adrenalectomies, and the surgeon’s preference.

If adrenocortical carcinoma is suspected, then an open transabdominal approach is necessary to widely excise the tumour and to thoroughly search for metastatic lesions.

laparoscopic adrenalectomy has emerged as the standard treatment for most patients, including paediatric, when malignancy is not suspected.

laparoscopic approaches can be lateral transabdominal or retroperitoneal.

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39
Q

A 12-year-old male presents after fainting in his physical education class. The school nurse found his blood glucose level was 35. He got better after some juice but started feeling light-headed after an hour. His paediatrician obtained the following test results: glucose 30 mg/dL [1.7 mmol/L], insulin 10 µU/mL, C-peptide positive. What is your working diagnosis?

A insulinoma
B diabetes
C vasovagal syncope
D gastrinoma
E carcinoid

A

A

Insulinoma is the most common pancreatic endocrine tumour in children, although it is still quite rare, with an estimated incidence of one case per 250 000 patient-years.

only 10% of insulinomas are malignant, and these metastasise to surrounding tissues.

The distinction between benign and malignant tumours of the endocrine pancreas is difficult.

It is based on a tumour size greater than 2 cm, and the presence of lymph node or other distant metastases.

Presenting symptoms include hypoglycaemia, dizziness, headaches, sweating and seizures.

Whipple’s triad was originally described in patients with insulinoma, and consists of symptoms of hypoglycaemia with fasting, fasting glucose level less than half of normal, and relief of symptoms with glucose administration.

The tumour in insulinoma is usually solitary, except in mEN1 syndrome, which may entail multiple lesions.

The diagnosis of insulinoma is made by demonstrating an insulin-to-glucose ratio of more than 0.3 (microunits of insulin per millilitre to milligrams of glucose per decilitre).

C-peptide levels should always be measured to rule out the administration of exogenous insulin.

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40
Q

Abdominal ultrasonography shows a 2 cm lesion in the body of the pancreas. What is the next step in management?

A enucleation

B distal pancreatectomy

C check the calcium/PTH level

D diazoxide

E pancreatoduodenectomy

A

C

Because pancreatic islet cell tumours can occur as part of mEN type 1 (mEN1), screening for two other diseases – pituitary adenoma and hyperparathyroidism – should be performed.

The tumour in insulinoma is usually solitary, except in mEN1 syndrome, which may entail multiple lesions.

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41
Q

A 7-year-old male is diagnosed with metastatic MTC. There is no family history of the disease. What is the next step in management?

A total thyroidectomy

B total thyroidectomy with central neck dissection

C genetic screening

D radiation therapy

E chemotherapy

A

C

Genotype–phenotype correlations exist with regard to clinical subtype, age at onset, and aggressiveness of mTC and the presence of other endocrine tumours in mEN2.

These relationships are useful when planning the timing of prophylactic thyroidectomy and deciding whether screening for phaeochromocytoma or hyperparathyroidism is necessary.

Another important use of these correlations is in patients presenting with apparently sporadic mTC.

The presence or absence of RET mutations will influence their management.

Therefore, genetic testing is recommended before surgical intervention in all paediatric patients diagnosed with mTC.

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42
Q

At what age would you perform prophylactic thyroidectomy on a RET carrier with a family history of MEN2B?

A before the age of 1 year

B 2–5 years

C 5–10 years

D 11–15 years

E after the age of 16

A

A

The only effective treatment for mTC is surgical resection, underscoring the importance of early diagnosis and therapy before metastasis occurs.

For this reason, current management of mTC in children from families having the mEN2 syndrome relies on the presymptomatic detection of the RET proto-oncogene mutation responsible for the disease.

Affected children with mEN2A should undergo total thyroidectomy at about the age of 5 years, before the cancer spreads beyond the thyroid gland.

Indeed, approximately 80% of children who have thyroidectomy based on the presence of the RET mutation will already have foci of mTC within the thyroid gland.

owing to the increased virulence of mTC in children having mEN2B, it may be preferable for them to have their thyroid glands removed in infancy, sometimes before the age of 1 in carriers of some specific RET mutations.

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