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1st Semester Final > PD Exam 1 Refined Deck > Flashcards

PD Exam 1 Refined Deck Flashcards

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1
Q

Extracorporal signs in general assessment of a patient

A
  • Clothing (might suggest poverty)
  • Reading materials or other things with them (might say something about their character, whats on their mind)
  • Familial support (either present through people or gifts or not)
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2
Q

Regularly irregular pulse

A

Mobitz 1 AV block

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3
Q

Irregularly irregular pulse

A

Atrial fib or premature ventricular contraction

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4
Q

Occasionally irregular pulse

A

Normal premature contraction

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5
Q

Weak pulse indications

A

Shock, MI, aortic aneurysm

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6
Q

Bounding pulse indications

A

Anxiety, fever, pregnancy, hyperthyroidism, anemia

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7
Q

pulsus altercans

A

Alternating strong and weak pulse indicative of LV failure, often due to CAD, aortic stenosis, hypertension

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8
Q

Pulsus bisferians

A

Biphasic pulse, indicative of aortic valve problem, often due to aortic stenosis or regurgitation

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9
Q

Dicrotic pulse

A

2 distinguishable pulses, indicative of low cardiac output

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10
Q

Pulsus parvus et tardus

A

Weak and late pulse, indicative of aortic valve stenosis

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11
Q

Pulsus paradoxus

A

Pulse weakening upon inhalation, indicative of cardiac tamponade or pericardial disease

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12
Q

Blood pressure measuring technique

A

1) Ensure skin exposure
2) Palpate radial pulse and trace to brachial pulse
3) Place cuff on arm properly
4) Palpate radial pulse while inflating, keeping note of value when pulse stops
5) Reinflate cuff with stethoscope in cubital fossa to 20 mmHg above previous inflation
6) Listen till sounds complete
7) repeat on other arm

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13
Q

Auscultory gap

A

A period when listening to blood pressure in which korkoff sounds stop for a period before returning, indicative of stiff vessels

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14
Q

Korotkoff sounds

A

A series of 4 phases of sounds heard when listening at the cubital fossa during a blood pressure measurement, beginning marks systolic pressure, and ending marks diastolic pressure

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15
Q

Tachypnea

A

Rapid shallow breathing, indicative of anxiety or restrictive lung disease

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16
Q

Hyperpnea

A

Rapid deep breathing, indicative of infarct or exercise

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17
Q

Hypopnea

A

Shallow, infrequent breathing, indicative of smoking or certain medications

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18
Q

Bradypnea

A

slow breathing, indicative of coma or respiratory depression

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19
Q

Apnea

A

Lack of breathing, indicative of seizure, head trauma, choking

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20
Q

Kussmaul

A

Fast, slow, and normal breathing alternating, indicative of metabolic acidosis

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21
Q

Cheyne stokes respiration

A

Periods of breathing followed by periods of apnea, indicative of brain injuries or tumors

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22
Q

Respiration is regulated at the…

A

Pons and medulla of the hindbrain

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23
Q

Ataxic or Biot’s breathing

A

Unpredictable and irregular breathing due to brain damage or respiratory depression

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24
Q

Describe the different temps and variation among them

A

Oral (baseline)
Axillary (1 degree lower than oral)
Tympanic (1.4 degrees higher than oral)
Rectal (1 degree higher than oral and most accurate)

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25
Q

Herpiform vs zosteriform

A

Randomly spread vs following a dermatomal distribution

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26
Q

Koebner distribution

A

Spread of lesions along an area of trauma

27
Q

Distribution in skin lesions

A

Generalized vs localized, exposed vs nonexposed areas, sun exposed or not, bilateral or unilateral, acral vs truncal, extensor surfaces vs flexor surfaces, upper or lower extremity, mucus membrane involvement

28
Q

Patterns in skin lesions

A

Isolated, scattered, groups, circular (annular - complete, arciform - incomplete ring, polycyclic - multiple rings), linear, angular, reticulated

29
Q

Hepatic necrotic nail appearance

A

Half and half coloration of nail

30
Q

Anemia appearance of nail

A

White color

31
Q

Hypoxia appearance of nail

A

Clubbing

32
Q

Anxiety appearance of nail

A

Bitten

33
Q

Nephrotic syndrome appearance of nail

A

White and pink bands

34
Q

Hypothyroidism appearance of nail

A

brittleness

35
Q

Useful precision

A

Concept that the problem at hand should dictate the level of precision in information from the patient

36
Q

ROS system list

A 
General
Endocrine
HEENT
Lung/pulmonary
Breast
Cardiovascular
Abdominal/GI
Genitourinary
Psych
Neurological
Musculoskeletal
37
Q

Pneumonic for obtaining history

A 
Onset
Paliating/provoking factors
Quality 
Radiating
Severity
Timeline
38
Q

Social history pneumonic

A 
Family and food
Lifestyle
Abuses
Marrital status and sex
Employment
Support system
39
Q

6 S’s of abuse and accident

A 
Substances
Smoking
Security of guns, toxins
Seatbelt
Smoke detectors
Sexual contact
40
Q

Cranial nerve IV movement

A

Superior oblique, moves eyes inferiorally and convergently

41
Q

Cranial nerve VI movement

A

Lateral rectus, allows movements laterally away from the nose (activated once on each side)

42
Q

Ipsalateral monocular vision loss

A

Lesion at the optic nerve resulting in one eye completely blind

43
Q

Bitemporal hemianopia

A

Lesion at the optic chiasm resulting in temporal blindness in each eye, remember light is coming from the temporal side to the nasal side

44
Q

Ipsalateral nasal hemianopia

A

Lesion at the uncrossed optic nerve fibers resulting in nasal blindness in one eye, remember that light is coming from the nasal side to the temporal side

45
Q

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

A

Lesion at the optic tract resulting in temporal and nasal blindness in each eye, remember light is coming from nasal side to tempoal side on one eye and tempral side to nasal side on the other

46
Q

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

A

Lesion at the optic nerve posteriorally resulting in temporal and nasal blindness in each eye only in periphery, remember light is coming from the nasal side to temporal side on one eye and temporal side to nasal side on the other

47
Q

Vertical eye defects are usually caused by…

A

…vascular problems

48
Q

Ipsalateral central scotoma

A

Lesion in eye at a fixed point resulting in blind spot

49
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness, difficulty focusing on a near object

50
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness, inability to focus on distant objects

51
Q

Corneal light reflex

A

Tests the assemetry from normal ocular alignment, indicates a lazy eye

52
Q

PERRLA

A

Pupils equal, round, react to light, accomodation

53
Q

Nystagmus

A

Abnormal movement of eye in the vertical, horizontal, or torsional direction

54
Q

Visual fields assessment

A

Have patient cover one eye, hold up different fingers in each quadrant of visual field

55
Q

Optic disc

A

Entry point into the retina for ganglion cells forming the optic nerve and small vessels entering the posterior eye, lacks any rods or cones and forms the blind spot of the eye, 3-4mm toward the nasal side of the fovea, has an optic cup central depression within

56
Q

Fovea

A

Small pit of closely packed cones in the eye at the center of the macula, forming central vision

57
Q

A large cup to disc ratio (close to 1) indicates…

A

…Glaucoma or other pathology

58
Q

Tonometry

A

Testing of intraocular pressure, either via numbing the eye (contact) or via air puff method

59
Q

Fluorescein eye exam

A

Applied via drops to most medial area of eye, use cobalt blue light to examine eyes with lights dimmed where abrasions will appear yellow

60
Q

Anisocoria

A

Unequal pupil size distribution

61
Q

Weber tuning fork exam

A

Place tuning fork on top of patient’s head and ask if they hear it equally in both ears or if one is louder, conductive hearing loss sound is heard in impaired ear, sensorineural hearing loss, sound is heard in good ear

62
Q

Rinne tuning fork exam

A

Place sound through bone until they lose it, then move to ear, if they can still hear than normal hearing or sensorineural hearing loss, if conductive hearing loss bone is as long or longer than airr

63
Q

Frontal sinus development period

A

Do not appear until age 7-8 so no such thing as frontal sinusitis in these children

1st Semester Final (45 decks)

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