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Patient Assesment Flashcards

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0
Q

What are five steps of patient assessment for trauma patients?

A 
Scene size up
Initial assessment
Focused history/physical exam
Detailed physical exam
Ongoing assessment
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1
Q

What are the four steps of medical patient assessments?

A

Scene size up
Initial assessment
Focused history/physical exam Ongoing assessment

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2
Q

What are five objectives of scene size up?

A 
BSI/Scene Safety
Mechanism of injury/nature of illness
Number of patients
Request additional assistance
Consider C-spine immobilization
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3
Q

What are three factors to evaluate the mechanism of injury of the patient?

A

The amount of force applied to the body
The length of time the force was applied
The area of the body involved

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4
Q

What are four objectives of initial assessments?

A

Form a general impression of the patient
Assess mental status
Assess ABCs
Identify priority patients

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5
Q

What does obtunded mean?

A

The patient does not perceive the environment fully and responds to stimuli appropriately but slowly

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6
Q

What does stuporous mean?

A

The patient is aroused by intense stimuli only. Motor response and reflex reactions are usually intact unless the patient is paralyzed

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7
Q

For alert patients, what four things do you check to assess the patient’s orientation?

A 
Memory of:
Person (who they are)
Place (where they are)
Time (day,month,year)
Event (what happened)
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8
Q

What three things do you check for when assessing circulation?

A

Pulse
Bleeding
Skin condition (temp, moisture, color)

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9
Q

What is the lining of the eyelid called?

A

Conjunctiva

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10
Q

What are the three steps in a focused history/physical exam for trauma patients with a significant mechanism of injury?

A

Rapid trauma assessment
Baseline vitals/SAMPLE
Transport

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11
Q

What are the three steps of focused history/physical exam for patients with no significant mechanism of injury?

A

Focused assessment based on chief complaint
Baseline vitals/SAMPLE
Transport

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12
Q

What are three goals of focused history/physical exam?

A

Identify the patient’s chief complaint
Understand the specific circumstances surrounding the chief complaint
Direct further physical examination

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13
Q

What are occult injuries?

A

Injuries you can’t see with your eyes

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14
Q

What does DCAP-BTLS stand for?

A 
Deformities
Contusions
Abrasions
Puncture/penetration
Burns
Tenderness
Laceration
Swelling
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15
Q

What is subcutaneous emphysema?

A

Air under the skin

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16
Q

What are retractions?

A

When the skin pulls around the ribs during inspiration

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17
Q

What is paradoxical motion?

A

When one section of the chest falls on inspiration while the remainder of the chest rises

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18
Q

What is paradoxical motion associated with?

A

Flail chest

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19
Q

What causes Rales (crackles)?

A

Oxygen passing through moisture in the bronchoalveolar system or from closed alveoli opening abruptly

FLUID IN SMALLER AIRWAYS

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20
Q

What two things are Rales associated with?

A

Congestive heart failure

Bronchitis

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21
Q

What is Rhonchi?

A

Continuous sounds with a lower pitch and a rattling quality

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22
Q

What four things is Rhonchi associated with?

A

Congestive heart failure
Pulmonary edema
Bronchitis
Pneumonia

FLUID IN LARGER AIRWAYS

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23
Q

When is Rhonchi usually heard?

A

During exhalation

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24
Q

What four things cause stridor?

A

Bacterial epiglottitis
Viral croup
Swelling from upper airway burns
Partial foreign body airway obstruction

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25
Q

What is wheezing?

A

A high-pitched whistling noise that is usually more prominent during exhalation

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26
Q

What three things is wheezing associated with?

A

Asthma
Bronchitis
Other processes that cause constriction of the bronchioles (bronchospasm)

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27
Q

When is mild wheezing typically heard?

A

Expiration

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28
Q

When is moderate wheezing typically heard?

A

Inspiration and expiration

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29
Q

What is severe wheezing?

A

Wheezing that is often faint or difficult to hear indicating severe bronchospasm

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30
Q

What is pleural friction rub?

A

A low pitched, dry, rubbing sound caused by movement of inflamed pleural surfaces as they slide against one another during breathing

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31
Q

What four things is pleural friction rub associated with?

A

Pleurisy
Viral infection
Tuberculosis
Pulmonary embolism

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32
Q

What five things do you assess the abdomen for?

A 
Tenderness
Rigidity
Swelling
Guarding
Distention
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33
Q

What is ecchymosis?

A

Bruising of the skin

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34
Q

What are two causes of ashen or pale skin?

A

Hypovolemia

Hypoxia

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35
Q

What are six possible causes of red/flushed skin?

A 
High blood pressure
CO poisoning (late)
Significant fever
Heatstroke 
Sunburn 
Allergic reaction
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36
Q

What is a cause of jaundice skin?

A

Liver disease/dysfunction

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37
Q

What are four possible causes for hot skin?

A

Significant fever
Sunburn
Hyperthermia
Heavy excercise

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38
Q

What are two causes for cool skin?

A

Early shock

Heat exhaustion

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39
Q

What are three causes for cold skin?

A

Profound shock
Hypothermia
Frostbite

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40
Q

What is a possible causes for clammy/moist skin?

A

Shock

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41
Q

What is a cause for pupils that are fixed with no reaction to light?

A

Depressed brain function (head injury/stroke)

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42
Q

What is a cause for pupils that are fully dialated and fixed (brown pupil)?

A

Increased intracranial pressure

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43
Q

What is a cause for constricted pupils?

A

Drugs (opiates)

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44
Q

What is a cause for dilated pupils?

A

Drugs (barbiturates)

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45
Q

What is a cause for pupils with a sluggish reaction?

A

Severe increase in intracranial pressure

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46
Q

What are four causes of unequal pupil size?

A

Depressed brain function
Medication placed in eye
Injury or condition of the eye
Congenital anisocoria

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47
Q

What is focal pain?

A

Pain that is only in a single location

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48
Q

What is diffuse pain?

A

Generalized area of pain

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49
Q

In trauma patients what 2 steps occur during detailed physical exams?

A

Detailed head to toe looking for DCAP-BTLS

Reassess vitals

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50
Q

What is petechia?

A

Small red or purple spot on the skin, caused by a minor hemorrhage (broken capillary blood vessels)

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51
Q

What are battle signs?

A

Bruising behind the ear associated with skull fractures

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52
Q

What is called when blood or foreign objects are in the anterior chamber of the eye?

A

Hyphema

53
Q

What is peri-orbital ecchymosis?

A

Bruising/discoloration around eyes (raccoon eyes)

54
Q

What are loud, high-pitched, and hallow sounds noted over the menubrium also known as?

A

Bronchial sounds

55
Q

What are soft, breezy, and lower pitch sounds found at the midclavicular line also known as?

A

Bronchovesicular sounds

56
Q

What are the finer and somewhat fainter breath sounds noted in the lateral wall of the chest that are from the smaller bronchioles and alveoli also known as?

A

Vesicular sounds

57
Q

What is pleurisy?

A

Inflammation of the pleura

58
Q

What is the point of maximal impulse (PMI)?

A

The location of the mitral valve

It is the best place to listen for heart sounds

59
Q

Where is the point of maximal impulse located?

A

Normally found at the fifth intercostal space, just medial to the midclavicular line

60
Q

What is Cullen’s sign?

A

Bruising in or around the belly button

61
Q

What is Grey-Turner’s sign?

A

Bruising along the sides of the abdomen

62
Q

What is ascites?

A

The accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity

63
Q

What is hives also called?

A

Urticaria

64
Q

What is caput medusa?

A

Distended veins spreading upward from navel, analogous to varicose vein’s

65
Q

What does the presence of caput medusa result in the possibility of?

A

Severe ongoing back up of pressure in the hepatic portal system and should alert you to the possibility of esophageal varices

66
Q

What is the term called when a patient tenses the abdomen as you touch it?

A

Guarding

67
Q

What is Raynaud’s syndrome?

A

One or more fingers or toes may be strikingly pale/cyanotic and cold to the touch

68
Q

What three things do you assess with the Cincinnati stroke scale?

A

Facial symmetry
Pronator drift
Clarity of speech

69
Q

In Cincinnati stroke scale, how do you test facial symmetry?

A

Have the patient grin and show teeth

Should be equal on both sides.

70
Q

In Cincinnati stroke scale, how do you assess pronator drift?

A

Have the patient close eyes and outstretch their arms with palms face up

Should be equal and not drift away

71
Q

In Cincinnati stroke scale, how do you assess clarity of speech?

A

Have pt repeat a phrase you say
“The sky is blue in Cincinnati”
Pt should be able to say it correctly

72
Q

What nerve is CN 1?

A

Olfactory nerve

73
Q

How do you check CN 2 and 3?

A

Check pupil response to light

74
Q

How do you check CN 3,4, and 6?

A

Test for extraocular movement by using the “H” method

75
Q

What is the “H” method test?

A

Holding a finger in front of a pts face and moving it in the shape of an H. The pts eyes should follow your fingers

76
Q

How do you assess CN 5?

A

Have pt clench teeth and check sensation to forehead,cheek, and chin

77
Q

How do you assess CN 7?

A

Have pt smile wide and show teeth

78
Q

How do you assess CN 9 and 10?

A

While pt says ah-h-h, watch the uvula for movement, check for gag reflex

79
Q

How do you assess CN 11?

A

Have pt shrug shoulders and turn head against resistance

80
Q

How do you assess CN 8?

A

Test by checking for ability to maintain upright position for 15-20 seconds with eyes closed

81
Q

Hypotension with tachycardia is a sign of what?

A

Some states of shock

82
Q

Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations is a sign of what?

A

Increased intracranial pressure

83
Q

What are the five steps of ongoing assessment?

A 
Repeat the initial assessment
Reassess vital signs
Repeat focused assessment
Check interventions
Modify treatment is necessary
84
Q

What are the six R’s of clinical decision-making?

A 
Read the patient
Read the scene
React
Reevaluate
Revise the management plan
Review performance at the run critique
85
Q

What are clubbed fingers a sign of?

A

COPD

86
Q

What is decorticate posture?

A

An abnormal posturing in which a person is stiff with bent arms, clenched fists, and legs held out straight. The arms are bent in toward the body and the wrists and fingers are bent and held on the chest.

87
Q

What is decerebrate posture?

A

Arms and legs being held straight out, the toes being pointed downward, and the head and neck being arched backwards. The muscles are tightened and held rigidly.

88
Q

What is a cause of decorticate and decerebrate posture?

A

A severe injury to the brain

89
Q

What is dysarthria?

A

Difficulty speaking because of problems with the muscles in speech

90
Q

What is it called if a patients tongue comes out to the side?

A

Tongue deviation

91
Q

What side does the tongue usually deviate to if the patient is have a nerve problem?

A

The strong side

92
Q

What is crepitus?

A

The sound or feeling of bones rubbing together

93
Q

What is dystonic reaction?

A

Reaction to medications causing abnormal muscle movement

94
Q

What is dysconjugate gaze?

A

Failure of the eyes to turn together in the same direction

95
Q

What is dolls eyes?

A

If you turn your head your eyes look in the direction you move you’re head

96
Q

What does erythema mean?

A

Redness

97
Q

What is the mastoid process?

A

The bone behind the ear

98
Q

What does a scar over the throat usually indicate?

A

A carotid endarterectomy

99
Q

What is barrel chest?

A

Pt having a rounded chest. Being wide as you are thick

100
Q

What is it called when the stomach rise then the chest rises?

A

Seesaw respirations

101
Q

What are four normal breath sounds in the chest?

A

Tracheal
Bronchial
Bronchiovesicular
Vesicular

102
Q

What causes absent breath sounds?

A

Tension pneumothorax

103
Q

When you percuss a chest why would you hear a dull sound?

A

A solid object underneath (fluid in lungs)

104
Q

When percussing a pt what does hyperresonance mean.

A

Air underneath (echos)

105
Q

What is costovertebral?

A

Where the ribs meet the spine

106
Q

What is the spinal process?

A

The tip of vertebrae

107
Q

Where is the posterior tibial artery?

A

Medial bump in ankle

108
Q

Where is the popliteal artery?

A

Behind the knee

109
Q

What does protuberant mean?

A

Bulging outward

110
Q

What does scaphoid mean?

A

Concave rather than convex (goes inward)

111
Q

To assess for life threats in chest what does IPASSAV stand for?

A 
Inspect
Palate
Auscultate
Seal holes
Stabilize flail segments
Administer oxygen
Ventilate if necessary
112
Q

What is the systolic BPof a patient with a radial pulse?

A

At least 80

113
Q

What is the systolic BP of a patient with a femoral pulse?

A

At least 70

114
Q

What is the systolic BP of a patient with a carotid pulse?

A

At least 60

115
Q

What is orthostatic vitals?

A

Taking vitals while patient is supine, then sitting up, then standing

116
Q

Why do you assess orthostatic vitals?

A

To determine if pt becomes dizzy, HR decreases by 20, or systolic BP decreases by 20 or more while changing position

117
Q

How are bronchial sounds described like?

A

Full inspiratory and expiratory phase with the inspiratory phase usually being louder that are normally heard over the trachea

118
Q

How are bronchovesicular sounds described like?

A

Full inspiratory phase with a shortened and softer expiratory phase and heard in the hilar region

119
Q

How are vesicular sounds described like?

A

Quiet, wispy inspiratory phase followed by a short, almost silent expiratory phase normally found in lung field

120
Q

What is anisocoria?

A

State of normally unequal pupil size usually less than 1 mm in approximately 20% of population

121
Q

What is referred pain?

A

Pain in two separate locations of the body, without a trail of pain between the two locations

122
Q

Where do you hear s1 sounds?

A

At the fifth intercostal space at the left sternal border (tricuspid valve)

123
Q

What is rhinorreah?

A

Runny nose

124
Q

Where are two places that you listen to s2 sounds?

A

The second intercostal space at the right sternal border (aortic valve)

The left sternal border (pulmonic valve)

125
Q

What valve is located at the fifth intercostal space at the left sternal border?

A

Tricuspid valve

126
Q

What valve is located at the second intercostal space at the right sternal border?

A

Aortic valve

127
Q

What valve is located at the second intercostal space at the left sternal border?

A

Pulmonic valve

128
Q

What valve is located at the fifth intercostal space, just medial to the mid-clavicular line?

A

Mitral valve

129
Q

What is dyplopia?

A

Double vision

130
Q

When is strider usually heard during ventilation?

A

During inspiration

Paramedic (31 decks)

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