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Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What protein is overexpressed in follicular lymphoma? [14;18]?

A

Bcl2 overexpressed -> APAF1 overly inhibited -> APAF1 can’t bind and activate cyt. c -> decreased caspase activation

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2
Q

Full out the rest: DNA dmg -> p53 -> …?

A

p53 -> BAX/BAK -> Cyt C -> caspases -> execution

mito pw = intrinsic pw; Fas:FasL is extrinsic pw

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3
Q

What does Bcl-2 inhibit?

A

Cyt C & APAF-1

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4
Q

What is the pathophysiology of fibrinoid necrosis a product of?

A

Immune complexes combine w/fibrin -> vessel wall dmg

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5
Q

Which part of the heart is most susceptible to ischemia?

A

Subendocardium (LV)

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6
Q

Which parts of the kidney are most susceptible to ischemia? (2)

A

PCT (straight part in medulla)

TAL (medulla)

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7
Q

Which liver zone is most susceptible to ischemia?

A

Zone 3 around central vein

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8
Q

Which parts of the colon are most susceptible to ischemia? (2)

A

Splenic flexure
Rectum

(watershed)

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9
Q

What is Wallerian degeneration?

A

Degeneration of axon distal to site of injury (macrophages)

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10
Q

Which pts are usually normocalcemic: those w/dystrophic or metastatic calcification?

A

Dystrophic calcification

besides calcification [dark], see also small bony tissue and thick fibrotic wall on histo

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11
Q

What part of leukocyte extravasation is defective in leukocyte adhesion def. type 2?

A

Margination & rolling (decreased Sialyl-Lewis^x on WBCs, binds selectins)

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12
Q

What part of leukocyte extravasation is defective in leukocyte adhesion def. type 1?

A

Binding (decreased CD18 integrin on WBCs, binds CAM’s)

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13
Q

What structure on both WBC’s and stroma is needed for diapedesis?

A

PECAM-1 on both

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14
Q

What binds during rolling phase (after margination), and where does each come from?

A

Vasculature/stroma:
E-selectin from TNFa and IL-1
P-selectin from weibel-Palade bodies

WBCs: Sialyl-Lewis^x

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15
Q

What binds during the adhesion/tight binding phase?

A

Vasculature/stroma:
ICAM-1
VCAM-1

WBCs:
Integrins (LFA-1, Mac-1, VLA-4)

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16
Q

What binds during the diapedesis phase?

A

PECAM-1 (CD31) in both WBCs and stroma

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17
Q

Actions of PDGF?

A

(secreted via activated platelets, macrophages)

  • Vascular remodeling
  • Smooth muscle cell migration
  • FIbroblast growth -> collagen synthesis
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18
Q

Actions of TGF-beta?

A
  • Angiogenesis (like VEGF, FGF)
  • Fibrosis
  • Cell cycle arrest
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19
Q

What collagen type is first laid down in wound healing (proliferative phase, day 3 - 1 week)? What does it change to during the remodeling phase (1 week to 6+ months)?

A

Type III to type I

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20
Q

Why should you always test for latent TB before starting anti-TNF therapy?

A

TNF-a from macrophages maintain granulomas.

If lost, bacteria may disseminate to the blood.

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21
Q

Describe the basis behind sed rate testing.

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

  • Inflammatory products coat RBCs, cause aggregation
  • Denser RBC’s fall at faster rate
  • Eg’s of high ESR = anemias, infection, cancer, inflammation, renal dz, pregnancy
22
Q

What type of amyloidosis is more often seen after dialysis?

A

Beta2-microglobulin deposits (may p/w carpal tunnel)

23
Q

What type of amyloidosis is more often seen in older pts (senile)?

A

Transthyretin (TTR) deposits in cardiac ventricles

24
Q

What is the beta-amyloid of AD cleaved from?

A

Amyloid precursor protein

25
In what disease does the islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP) commonly deposit? (*What is this made out of?)
T2DM (*amylin in pancreatic islets)
26
What pigment tends to deposit in the heart, colon, liver, eye, and other organs during normal aging?
Lipofuscin
27
What does anaplastic mean?
Complete lack of differentiation
28
How does dysplasia differ from hyperplasia?
Loss of size, shape, and orientation of cells (abnormal proliferation) Hyperplasia = increased # of cells
29
What do neoplastic cells use to get through BM? What do they down-relgulate to stop adhering to neighboring cells?
MMP's E-cadherin
30
What is a tumor "grade"?
Degree of cellular differentiation and mitotic activity on histo. Range: low grade (well-differentiated) to high grade (poorly/un-differentiated or anaplastic) - Not that useful vs. stage
31
Which part of TMN staging is most important?
M
32
What is a hamartoma?
Disorganized overgrowth of tissues in their native lands.
33
What is a choristoma?
Nl tissue in foreign land.
34
Fibromas/fibrosarcomas refer to what type of mesenchyme?
CT
35
What is the benign version of a melanoma?
Nevus/mole
36
Cancer a/w acanthosis nigricans?
Gastric adenocarcinoma (& other visceral malig)
37
What is Leser-Trelat sign?
Sudden-onset multiple seborrheic keratoses
38
What cancer is Leser-Trelat sign a/w?
Gastric adenocarcinoma (& other visceral malig)
39
What cancer is ^ calcitriol a/w?
Lymphoma
40
What cancers are PTHrP a/w?
SQC of the lung, head, neck. | Renal, bladder, breast, and ovarian carcinomas.
41
What cancers is ^ EPO a/w?
RCC, HCC, hemangioblastoma, pheochromocytoma, leiomyoma
42
What 2 paraneoplastic syndromes are a/w thymoma?
``` Pure red cell aplasia (anemia w/ low reticulocytes) Good syndrome (hypogammaglobulinemia) ```
43
What is Trousseau syndrome?
Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis
44
What cancer is Trousseau syndrome a/w?
Adenocarcinomas, esp. pancreatic
45
What is nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis?
Deposition of sterile platelet thrombi on heart valves.
46
What cancer is nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis a/w?
Adenocarcinomas, esp. pancreatic
47
What cancer is a/w anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis?
Ovarian teratoma
48
What cancer is a/w opsoclonus-myoclonus ataxia? ("dancing eyes, dancing feet")
Neuroblastoma (kids) | Small cell lung (adults)
49
What cancer is a/w myasthenia gravis?
Thymoma
50
Where are PSaMMoma bodies found? (cancers)
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid Serous papillary cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary Meningioma Malignant mesothelioma
51
What are 4 carcinomas that can spread hematogenously?
HCC RCC Follicular thyroid carcinoma Choriocarcinoma
52
Most common cancer to met to the liver?
Colon | By far most common. Also stomach, then pancreas

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