GI Flashcards

1
Q

Define the embryological parameters of the foregut, midgut, and hindgut.

A
  • Foregut: pharynx to duodenum (celiac a. also supplies lower esophagus, liver, GB, pancreas, spleen (mesoderm))
  • Midgut: duodenum to proximal 2/3 transverse colon
  • Hindgut: Distal 1/3 transverse colon to anal canal above pectinate line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give the detailed version of the SAD PUCKER mnemonic.

A
Suprarenal glands
Aorta + IVC
Duodenum (2nd-4th parts)
Pancreas (except tail)
Ureters
Colon (descending, ascending)
Kidneys
Esophagus (thoracic portion)
Rectum (partially)

(Retroperitoneal structures that are GI lack a mesentery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Intraperitoneal organs are surrounded by a(n) __________, while retroperitoneal organs are surrounded by a(n) ___________.

A

Serosa (intra), adventitia (retro)

“must be advanced to survive retroperitoneally”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the basal electrical rhythms (slow waves), in waves/min, of the stomach, duodenum, and ileum?

A
Stomach = 3 
Duodenum = 12
Ileum = 8-9
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which part of the guy contains Bruner’s glands?

A

Duodenum (secretes HCO3- to combat stomach’s acidity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which parts of the gut contain crypts?

A

From duodenum to colon (but colon lacks villi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which parts of the gut contain plica circularis?

A

Jejunum, ileum (like haustra of colon but less-spaced)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which part of the small intestine has the most goblet cells?

A

Ileum

colon has tons of them too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which part of the gut contains peter patches?

A

Ileum (lamina propria, submucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the shunt of esophageal varices?

A

Left gastric (backed up into esophageal branches) shunts to azygos vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the shunt of caput medusae?

A

Paraumbilical shunts to small epigastric veins (of ant abdominal wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the shunt of anorectal varices?

A

Superior rectal (from inf mesenteric) shunts to middle and inferior rectal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the surgical soln to portal HTN?

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) b/w portal vein and hepatic vein
(bypasses malfunctioning liver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are stellate cells found?

What is their fcn when quiescent?

What is their fcn when activated?

A

Space of Disse (lymphatic drainage) in liver

Store vitamin A

Produce ECM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which hepatic zone is affected by yellow fever?

A

Zone II

yeLLow fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which liver zone has the CYP450 system?

Which zone is affected by viral hepatitis first?

Which zone is the site of alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Zone 3 (pericentral vein / centrilobular)

Zone 1 (periportal)

Zone 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which liver zone is more affected by ingested toxins? Metabolic toxins?

A

Ingested: zone I (1ngested)
Metabolic: zone III (3etabolic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What makes up the femoral triangle?

A

Inguinal ligament
Sartorius m.
Adductor longus m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the spermatic cord made up of?

A

“ICE tie” (internal to external)

Internal spermatic fascia (transversalis fascia)
Cremasteric muscle and fascia (internal oblique)
External spermatic fascia (external oblique)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What’s are the fcns of GIP?

A

AKA glucose-dependent insulotropic peptide

  • Decreases gastric H+ secretion
  • Increases insulin release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the differences in pancreatic fluid composition in low flow vs high flow states?

A

Low flow = high Cl-

High flow = high HCO3-

22
Q

What are the constituents of bile?

A
Bile salts (bile acids conjugated to taurine or glycine to make water-soluble)
Phospholipids
Cholesterol
Bilirubin
Water
Ions
23
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the RLS of bile acid synthesis?

A

Cholesterol 7-alpha hydroxylase

24
Q

What % of conjugated bilirubin gets recycled?

A

20% (90% of which send to liver, 10% urinated out as urobilin); 80% stercobilin, pooped out

25
Most common benign salivary gland tumor? Malig?
Benign- pleomorphic adenoma (mixed chondromyxoid stroma + epithelium) Malignant- mucoepidermoid carcinoma Other- Warthin tumor (benign cystic tumor w/germinal centers)
26
Triad of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?
- Dysphagia - Iron def. anemia - Esophageal webs Increased risk of esophageal SQC May see gossitis
27
Does smoking increase risk of SQC or adenocarcinoma of esophagus? Caustic strictures? Achalasia?
Both SQC SQC
28
How can brain injury lead to a Cushing ulcer? (acute gastritis)
Brain injury -> hemorrhage -> intracranial HTN -> vagal stimulation -> H+ production in stomach
29
Explain the D-xylose test.
It's normally absorbed in proximal small intestine. - Levels decrease w/mucosal defect (eg Celiac) or bacterial overgrowth. - Levels nl in pancreatic insufficiency.
30
Sx of Whipple?
CAN Cardiac sx Arthralgias Neuro sx
31
How do you diagnose IBS?
3+ days / month of 2 or more of the following: - Pain improves w/defecation - Change in stool frequency - Change in stool appearance
32
What is the mnemonic for Zenker diverticulum?
At camp Zenker, Elder MIKE has bad breath ``` Elderly Males Inferior pharyngeal constrictor Killian triangle Esophageal dysmotility Halitosis ```
33
What gene mutation is a/w Hirschsprung?
RET | increased risk w/Down syndrome
34
When might you see currant jelly stools besides in klebsiella?
Acute mesenteric ischemia [pain out of proportion; often due to SMA occlusion]
35
What is ileus?
Intestinal hypomotility w/o obstruction
36
What is the order of the mutations in the adenoma - carcinoma sequence? Contrast w/the other pw.
"Firing" order of events: AK-57 1. APC (now you're at risk) 2. KRAS (now you have adenoma) 3. p53 (now you have carcinoma) [this is adenomatous/FAP pw. In serrated polyp pw, have macrosatellite instability (CpG hypermethylation) and BRAF mutations]
37
What 2 substances increase risk of liver angiosarcoma?
Arsenic | PVC (vinyl chloride)
38
What is more common-liver mets or HCC?
Mets
39
What distinguishes Budd-Chiari syndrome from symptoms seen in right heart failure?
No JVD
40
Inheritance pattern of a1AT def? Stain used to see liver aggregates?
Co-dominant PAS
41
What are 2 eg's of mixed (conj and unconj bili) hyperbilirubinemias?
Hepatitis | Cirrhosis
42
What region of the brain can bili deposit in neonatal jaundice w/kernicterus?
Basal ganglia
43
Inheritance pattern of Gilbert, Crigler-Najjar, Dubin-Johnson, and Rotor?
AR
44
What gene is mutated in Wilson dz (AR)? Hemochromatosis? (what mutation is common)
ATP7B (hepatocyte Cu-transporting ATPase) HFE (Cys282Tyr > His63Asp)
45
What stain is positive in Whipple and a1AT disease?
PAS (glycosylated stuff)
46
What is the classic demo for primary sclerosing cholangitis? What does it increase risk for? ("onion skin" bile duct fibrosis; "beading" shape of bile ducts on ERCP, MRCP)
Middle-aged men w/IBD ^ risk of cholangiocarcinoma + GB carcinoma (also UC - pANCA+)
47
What is the pathology behind primary biliary cirrhosis?
Autoimmune -> lymph infiltrate + granulomas -> destruction of intralobular bile ducts
48
What AB is seen in primary biliary cirrhosis?
Anti-mitochondrial AB (high yield); ^ IgM
49
How do you chelate the Cu of Wilson dz?
Penicillamine or trientine
50
What is Charcot triad of cholangitis?
Jaundice, fever, RUQ pain | Reynold pentad adds confusion, hypotension
51
Causes of acute pancreatitis?
I GET SMASHED ``` Idiopathic Gallstones Ethanol Trauma Steroids Mumps Autoimmune Scorpion stings Hypercalcemia/Hypertriglyceridemia (>1000) ERCP Drugs (sulfas, NRTIs, PIs) ```
52
How is acute pancreatitis dx'd?
2/3 criteria: - Acute epigastric pain often radiating to the back - Increased serum amylase or lipase (more specific) to 3x upper limit of nl - Characteristic imaging findings