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MRCOG - PART 1 > Pathology > Flashcards

Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Paraneoplastic Cushing’s syndrome is most commonly associated with which malignancies?

A

Small cell lung cancer

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2
Q

Acanthosis Nigricans is commonly appear with which malignancy?

A

Gastrointestinal malignancies

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3
Q

Kind of necrosis found in acute pancreatitis

A

Fat necrosis

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4
Q

3 clinical characteristics of PCO

A
  1. chronic anovulation (2ry amenorrheoa)
  2. hyperandrogegism (hirsutism, elevated LH, elevated free testosterone)
  3. necklace appearance in US
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5
Q

laboratory characteristics of PCO

A
  1. High LH
  2. High androgen
  3. hyperinsulinemia
  4. high antimullerian hormone
  5. low SHBG
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6
Q

Threshold of polycystic ovarian morphology (PCOM)

A

1.follicle number >20 (2-9mm)
2. Ovarian Vol >10ml
3. No corpus luteum, cysts or dominant follicle

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8
Q

Commonest endocrine condition to affect women

A

PCO 10-15%

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9
Q

the commonest epithelial ovarian tumor

A

Serous carcinoma

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9
Q

commonest ovarian germ cell tumor

A

cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst) ~ usually benign

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10
Q

Commonest malignant sex cord stromal tumor is

A

Adult type of granulosa cell tumor

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11
Q

Commonest ovarian tumors that can lead to torsion

A

Germ cell tumor

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12
Q

Commonest sites of endometriosis

A
  1. Ovaries
  2. Rectovaginal septum
    3.pelvic peritoneum
  3. laparotomy scars
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13
Q

the classical example of metastatic GIT neoplasia to the ovaries

A

Krukenberg tumor

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14
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

Von Willebrand disease

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15
Q

Percentage of Cx cancer which are HPV related

A

99.7%

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16
Q

what is a complete mole?

A

Originates from fertilization of an empty ovum (has no chromosomes)

it will carry (paternal DNA only):
-Duplication of DNA of one sperm 90% -> 46XX
-Fertilization by 2 sperms 10% -> 46XX or 46XY

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17
Q

What is partial mole?

A

originates from fertilization of normal ovum by 2 sperms –> triploidy

69XXX, 69XXY, 69XYY

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18
Q

Partial Moles are misdiagnosed with

A

Hydropic Abortion and Complete mole

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19
Q

Gross picture of Complete mole

A

grape-like vesicles

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20
Q

Most common karyotype of Complete mole

A

46XX

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21
Q

GTN metastasises to

A

Lungs 80%
Pelvic organs
Brain

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22
Q

hCG status in GTD

A

Abnormal high hCG is the hall mark of GTD >100.000 IU/ml in the first 8 weeks

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23
Q

What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy?

A

3%

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24
Q

Low lying placenta

A

(less than 20mm from the cervix)

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25
Q

what is placenta previa?

A

placenta completely covering the cervix

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26
Q

What is Ovarian Theca lutein cyst?

A

commonly occurs in 25-60% of complete moles
in response to huge amounts of hCG secreted by proliferated cells

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27
Q

Placenta invaded through the full thickness of the myometrium.

A

Placenta Increta

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28
Q

How is obstetric cholestasis diagnosed?

A

when otherwise:
1. unexplained pruritus and
2. abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids
occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery.

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29
Q

Percentage of pruritus in pregnancy

A

23% of pregnant women

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30
Q

when pruritus usually appears in pregnancy

A

in the 2nd half (3rd trimester- 80% after 30 weeks)

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31
Q

Risk factors of Obstetdriic cholestasis

A
  1. +ve family history 35%
  2. Estrogen
  3. Multiple pregnancy
  4. Carriage of hepatitis C
  5. Presence of gallstones
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32
Q

Obstetric cholestasis pruritus is characterized by

A

• it is typically worse at night.
• widespread and may involve the palms of the hands &r the soles of the feet.

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33
Q

What is dermatographia artefacta?

A

skin trauma from intense scratching may be seen in obstetric cholestasis

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34
Q

How should obstetric cholestasis be monitored?

A

• Once obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed, measure LFTs weekly until delivery.
• A coagulation screen should be performed.
• Postnatally, LFTs should be deferred for at least 10 days (In normal pregnancy, LFTs may increase in the first 10 days of the puerperium).

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35
Q

Maternal Risks with Obstetric cholestasis

A
  1. Vit. K deficiency
  2. Increase rate of CS
  3. Increase risk of postpartum hmge
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36
Q

Fetal Risks with Obstetric cholestasis

A
  1. stillbirth
  2. Intrapartum fetal distress
  3. Amniotic fluid meconium
  4. Preterm delivery
  5. Intrauterine fetal death
  6. Fetal intracranial haemorrhage
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37
Q

Causes of increased rates of placenta previa, accrete ..etc

A

d.t. rising rates of caesarean deliveries, increased maternal age and use of assisted reproductive technology (ART)

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38
Q

Incidence of Placenta Previa

A

1 in 200 Pregnancies

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39
Q

Placental villi adheres superficially to the myometrium without interposing decidua

A

Placenta Accrete

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40
Q

Placental villi penetrate deeply into the uterine myometrium down to the serosa

A

Placenta Increta

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41
Q

Placental villi perforates through the entire uterine wall and may invade the surrounding pelvic organs, such as the bladder.

A

Placenta Percreta

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42
Q

What is placental migration?

A

Apparent placental ‘migration’ following the development of the lower uterine segment during 3rd trimester of pregnancy results in the resolution of the low-lying placenta in 90% of the cases before term. This is less likely to occur in women with a previous caesarean delivery

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43
Q

Role of TVS in diagnosing Placenta previa

A

TVS for the diagnosis of placenta praevia or a low-lying placenta is superior to transabdominal and trans-perineal approaches, and is safe.

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44
Q

Endometrial thickness in reproductive age and premenopausal

A

5-14mm

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45
Q

Endometrial thickness in postmenopausal

A

4mm

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46
Q

The most common presentation of endometrial hyperplasia

A

Abnormal uterine bleeding.

This includes heavy menstrual bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, irregular bleeding, unscheduled bleeding on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and postmenopausal bleeding.

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47
Q

Risk of progression of endometrial cancer in hyperplasia without atypia

A

Less than 5% over 20 years

It will regress spontaneously during follow up

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48
Q

The main risk factor of endometrial hyperplasia

A

Unopposed estrogen exposure

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49
Q

Causes of skin pigmentation in pregnancy

A

Due to increase in estrogen, progesterone and melanocyte stimulating hormone levels.

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50
Q

Linea Nigra

A

a dark line on the abdomen, running straight down from the umbilicus, appears with pregnancy.

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51
Q

What is 2ry areola?

A

pigmented area around the 1ry areola appear during 5th month.

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52
Q

What is Melasma?

A

Brown, clearly defined patches on the face. Appear in forehead, malar distribution & cheekbones.
Occur in 75%, predominantly in 2nd or 3rd Trimester, Often persists for months & years postpartum.

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53
Q

Treatment of Melasma

A

Prevention: avoid of excessive sunlight exposure & use of

treatment is of a limited response like
(topical bleaching creams, hydroquinones (not licensed in
the UK), retinoids and steroids, as well as chemical peels,
laser treatments and dermabrasion)
###All of the above treatments are contraindicated in pregnancy.

broad-spectrum sunscreens.

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54
Q

Cause of Striae Gravidarum

A

Caused by rupture of the dermal elastic fibers that explains their
irreversible nature

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55
Q

Cause of spider navel In pregnancy

A

Occur due to increased estrogen that cause dilatation, congestion & proliferation of bl. vessels that can be seen on or through the skin.

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56
Q

What is ACUTE TELOGEN EFFLUVIUM

A

a generalised hair shedding with diffuse non-scarring alopecia, characteristically occurs 3–6 months postpartum.

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57
Q

When will pregnant woman recover from ACUTE TELOGEN EFFLUVIUM?

A

Generally, recovery is spontaneous and occurs within 9–12 months, and rarely does hair density fail to recover completely.

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58
Q

Sweat glands changes during pregnancy?

A

Increased eccrine gland secretions towards 3rd trimester can cause prickly heat (miliaria) and hyperhidrosis which contribute to pruritus.

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59
Q

What is Impetigo Herpetiformis?

A

A form of generalized pustular psoriasis. Pus-filled blisters begins in groins, underarms & folds of knees & elbows.

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60
Q

timing of impetigo herpetiformis

A

typically presents in 3rd Trimester & disappears after delivery.

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61
Q

Presentation of impetigo herpetiformis

A

Rash always accompanied by severe illness (chills, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, joint pains & lymphadenopathy).

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62
Q

The four dermatoses of pregnancy are:

A

– atopic eruption of pregnancy (AEP)
– pemphigoid gestationis,
– polymorphic eruption of pregnancy (PEP/PUPP)
– intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP

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63
Q

The only known effective TTT of intrahepatic cholestasis (obstetric cholestasis)

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

decrease maternal pruritus & improve liver function & prognosis for the fetus.
Dose: 15 mg/kg/day (≈1 gm/d) as a single dose or in 2 divided doses

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64
Q

Other name of Obstetric cholestasis

A

Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy ICP

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65
Q

Other medications needed in treatment of Obstetric Cholestasis

A

Vitamin K: Prevent clotting abnormalities dt. the hepatic effects of obstetric cholestasis.

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66
Q

Most common dermatosis in pregnancy

A

Atopic eruption of pregnancy

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67
Q

Characteristics of Rash in polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

A

Starts in Abdomen
Spares Umbilicus, face, scalp, palms and soles

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68
Q

Characteristics of Rash in pemphigoid gestationis

A

Starts from umbilicus and spread to whole body.
**remission and exacerbation are characteristics

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69
Q

atopic eruption is commonly associated with

A

Multiparous
(has no serious risk on pregnancy)

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70
Q

polymorphic eruption is commonly associated with

A

Primigravida
(has no serious risk on pregnancy)

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71
Q

pemphigoid gesationis is commonly associated with

A

Autoimmune conditions (grave’s dis. - IDDM)
(causes IUGR)

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72
Q

Is Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy ICP associated with PPH?

A

True

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73
Q

When do you check LFTs postpartum, after ICP?

A

after 10 days (as biochemistry may worsen in the immediate postnatal period)

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74
Q

In treating ICP, What is the 2nd line after UDCA?

A

Rifampicin

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75
Q

The most common presentation of endometrial hyperplasia is

A

abnormal
uterine bleeding.

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76
Q

most common gynaecological malignancy in the Western world

A

Endometrial Cancer

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77
Q

How we perform Endometrial surveillance in case of End. Hyperplasia

A

endometrial sampling by outpatient endometrial biopsy (or by inpatient endometrial sampling, such as dilatation and curettage performed under general anaesthesia)

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78
Q

difference between End. hyperplasia and normal end. proliferation

A

Endometrial hyperplasia is defined as irregular proliferation of the endometrial glands with an increase in the gland to stroma ratio

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79
Q

incidence of endometrial hyperplasia

A

133/100.000 women with peak age 50-54 y

80
Q

PCO association with End. hyperplasia

A

in women with PCO, if endometrial thickness is more than 7 mm, it is alarming for having endometrial hyperplasia

81
Q

cut-off endometrial thickness in postmenopausal women for EH

A

Systematic reviews have suggested a cut-off of 3 mm or 4 mm for ruling out endometrial cancer
Propability reduced 1% when it’s less than the cuts-off

82
Q

Risk of EH without atypia to processing to End. cancer

A

less than 5% over 20 years

83
Q

Treatment of EH without atypia

A

Follow-up and Progestagens (oral - LNG-IUS)

84
Q

1st line ttt of EH without atypia

A

LNG-IUS
because compared with oral progestogens it has a higher disease regression rate with a more favourable bleeding profile and it is associated with fewer adverse effects.

85
Q

Is cyclical progestogens effective in ttt of EH without atypia

A

should not be used because they are less effective in inducing regression of endometrial hyperplasia without atypia compared with continuous oral progestogens or the LNG-IUS

86
Q

How long we continue the ttt of EH without atypia

A

minimum of 6 months.
In case of minimal adverse effects and no desire of fertility, LNG-IUS to be continued for 5 years

87
Q

surveillance after EH without atypia ttt

A

End. biopsy every 6 months.
2 consecutive negative biopsies is needed to be discharged from the follow-up.
- if high risk patient to relapse, the latter is followed by annual biopsies.

88
Q

When hysterectomy is indicated in ttt of EH without atypia

A

If endometrial hyperplasia persists for 12 months despite treatment, the risk of underlying cancer is high and the chances of disease regression are low, such that hysterectomy is advised

89
Q

Hysterectomy indication in ttt of EH without atypia

A
  1. Progression to atypical hyperplasia occurs during follow-up.
  2. There is no histological regression of hyperplasia despite 12 months of treatment.
  3. There is relapse of endometrial hyperplasia after completing progestogen treatment.
  4. There is persistence of bleeding symptoms.
  5. The woman declines to undergo endometrial surveillance or comply with medical treatment.
90
Q

Type of Hysterectomy done in EH without atypia

A

in postmenopausal women, offer bilateral salpingo-oophirectomy

in pre-menopausal women. offer at least offer bilateral salpingectomy. and discuss ovaries removal

91
Q

First line in ttt of atypical EH

A

Total Hysterctomy

92
Q

How to manage EH with atypia in women who desire fertility/doesn’t approve hysterectomy

A

End. biopsy every 3 months.
2 consecutive negative biopsies is needed to be discharged from the follow-up.

93
Q

Does tamoxifen increases risk of EH

A

Yes, it inhibits proliferation of breast cancer
However, it has a partial agonist action on other tissues, including the vagina
and the uterus.

94
Q

Alternative of tamoxifen if woman proven to have EH

A

Aromatase inhibitors

95
Q

Rate of concomitant carcinoma when examining a uterus after hysterectomy in a woman with Atypical EH

A

43%

96
Q

Best approach of TAH BSO in treating EH

A

Laparoscopic

97
Q

What are the 4 variants of GTN

A
  1. Invasive Mole (chorioadenoma destruens)
  2. Epithelioid trophoblastic tumor
  3. Choriocarcinoma
  4. Placental site trophoblastic tumor
98
Q

Most common site for Ectopic pregnancy

A

Falopian tube 95%

99
Q

Incidence of Ectopic pregnancy

A

20 in 1000 pregnancy

100
Q

Most common sites of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tube

A

ampullary (55%)
isthmic (25%)
fimbrial (17%)
interstitial (2%)

101
Q

What is heterotopic pregnancy

A

an ectopic pregnancy in combination with an intrauterine pregnancy following assisted reproduction treatment

102
Q

Most common Presentation of Ectopic pregnancy

A

Unilateral or general pelvic pain

103
Q

medical ttt of ectopic pregnancy

A

Methotrexate (with success rate of 90%)

104
Q

Indication of methotrexate in Ectopic Pregnancy

A

Small <3.5 cm
no evidence of hemoperitoneum
HCG <1500 IU
no significant pain

CI in women with abnormal liver and renal function tests

105
Q

Best surgical approach in ttt of ectopic pregnancy

A

Laparoscopy is gold standard

(laparotomy is indicated if patient is significantly compromised or laparoscopy is n’t feasible)

106
Q
A

In PV
• cervical movements tender.
• Posterior vaginal fornix may by bulging due to blood collection in pouch of Douglas
• A tender boggy mass may be felt on one side of uterus

107
Q

Best diagnostic tool of Ectopic pregnancy

A

Transvaginal ultrasound (ring of fire appearance)

108
Q

Indication of surgery in Ectopic Pregnancy

A

significant pain
Small >3.5 cm
HCG >5000 IU

109
Q

Indication of Expectant management in Ectopic Pregnancy

A

Small <3.5 cm
no evidence of hemoperitoneum
HCG <1000 IU
no pain & clinical stable

110
Q

Surgery options in ttt of Ectopic pregnancy

A

Salpingectomy (most preffered)
salpingotomy
salpingostomy

111
Q

Response to methotrexate treatment

A

Assess bHCG in days 2,4,7

drop in bHCG 15% –> responding
if less than 15% —> repeat
max. 3 doses –> surgery

112
Q

contraindication of methotrexate

A

• Sensitivity to MTX
• Evidence of tubal rupture
• Breast feeding
• Intrauterine pregnancy
• Hepatic, renal, or hematological dysfunction
• Peptic ulcer disease
• Active pulmonary disease
• Evidence of immunodeficiency

113
Q

Most common Presentation of HELLP syndrome

A

Epigastric pain and right upper quadrant tenderness (63%)

114
Q

Ultrasound Criteria for Cervical Pregnancy called?

A

Paalman’s criteria

115
Q

What is Ultrasound Criteria for Cervical Pregnancy?

A

1, Echo-free uterine cavity or the presence of a false gestational sac only
2. Hourglass uterine shape
3. Ballooned cervical canal
4. Gestational sac in the endocervix
5. Placental tissue in the cervical canal
6. Closed internal os

116
Q

Spielberg’s Criteria

A

is the criteria for diagnosing ovarian pregnancy

  1. The fallopian tube on the affected side must be intact.
  2. The fetal sac must occupy the position of the ovary.
  3. The ovary must be connected to the uterus by the ovarian ligament
  4. Ovarian tissue must be located in the sac wall.
117
Q

Studdiford’s Criteria

A

criteria for Diagnosis of Primary Abdominal Pregnancy by u/s

  1. Presence of normal tubes and ovaries with no evidence of recent or past pregnancy
  2. No evidence of uteroperitoneal fistula
  3. Presence of a pregnancy related exclusively to the peritoneal surface and early enough to eliminate the possibility of secondary implantation after primary tubal nidation.
118
Q

Biggest risk factor of placenta previa

A

Caesarean delivery

incidence of placenta praevia increases from 10 in 1000 deliveries with one previous
caesarean delivery to 28 in 1000 with three or more caesarean deliveries.

119
Q

Placenta previa Risk factors

A

-CS (most importnat)
- ART
-Smoking
-Advanced maternal age

120
Q

Is there a place for cervical cerclage in women with placenta praevia or a
low-lying placenta?

A

The use of cervical cerclage to reduce bleeding and prolong pregnancy is not supported by sufficient evidence to recommend its use outside of a clinical trial

121
Q

Anenatal corticosteroids in Placenta previa

A

A single course of antenatal corticosteroid therapy is recommended between 34+0 and 35+6 weeks of gestation for pregnant women with a low-lying placenta or placenta praevia and is appropriate prior to 34+0 weeks of gestation in women at higher risk of preterm birth.

It reduce all fetal risks of prematurity

122
Q

success rare of vaginal delivery in low lying and placenta previa

A

Vaginal delivery in Low Lying:
10 mm from internal os: 56%
20mm from internal os: 93%

In case of previa or 3rd trimester with placenta less than 20mm from os, women should offer cesarian delivery

123
Q

Which ovarian tumor is associated with LDH rumor marker

A

Dysgerminoma

124
Q

What is the most likely histological subtype of ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis?

A

Clear cell carcinoma

125
Q

Psammoma bodies are present in which ovarian tumors

A

serous cyst adenoma/cystadenocarcinoma

126
Q

What hpv subtypes are vaccinated against with vaccine Gardasil

A

6,11,16 and 18

127
Q

Which age group has the highest rates of chlamydia infection?

A

20‐24 year olds

128
Q

The increase in size of endometrial cells during pregnancy is an example of

A

Hypertrophy

129
Q

Karyotype of partial mole

A

69XXY

130
Q

Renal cell carcinoma is associated with which type of metastasis?

A

Haematogenous

131
Q

What is Exudate

A

an inflammatory extravascular fluid that has a high protein concentration and high specific gravity >1.02

132
Q

What is Hageman factor

A

factor 12

133
Q

What does Hageman factor activate

A

activates:
1. kinin system
2. clotting system
3. fibrinolytic system
4. complement system

134
Q

Signs of inflammation

A
  1. Raised ESR
  2. Leucocytosis ~ increased number of immature neutrophils
  3. Virchow’s sign (loss of function)

+ 4 Cardinal Signs
1. Rubor (redness)
2. Tumor (swelling)
3. Calor (heat)
4. Dolor (pain)

135
Q

Systemic acute phase response is predominantly induced by

A
  1. interleukin-1
  2. TNF
136
Q

Risk of Lichen sclerosis to develop squamous cell carcinoma

A

<5%

137
Q

Closure of PDA in preterm infant is typically by

A

NSAIDS; indomethacin

Ibuprofen could be used

138
Q

Closure of PDA in term infant is typically by

A

Surgery is indicated

(Prostaglandin infusion maybe used but to keep it patent until surgery)

139
Q

Closure of PDA in term infant is typically by

A

Surgery is indicated

(Prostaglandin infusion maybe used but to keep it patent until surgery)

140
Q

Distinctive pattern of chronic inflammation

A
  1. granulomas (focal area)
  2. Epithelioid cells (activated macrophages)
141
Q

when does cell injury occurs ?

A

when limits of adaptive responses are exceeded
(it may be reversible or irreversible)

142
Q

Cell injury hallmarks include

A
  1. decreased oxidative phosphorylation
  2. Depleted ATP
  3. Cellular swelling
143
Q

Cell death is due to

A

irreversible cell injury

144
Q

cell death hallmarks include

A
  1. mitochondrial damage
  2. loss of membrane permeability
145
Q

Cell death characterized by

A
  1. Pyknosis (condensation of chromatin)
  2. Karyorrhexis (fragmentation of nuclear material)
    3, Karyolysis (dissolution of nucleus)
146
Q

Apoptosis characterized by

A
  1. intact cell membrane
  2. Degredation of nuclear DNA
147
Q

Wound Healing has 3 phases

A
  1. Inflammatory (2-3 days)
  2. Proliferative (3 days- 3 weeks)
  3. Remodeling
148
Q

Predominat cells in wound healing process

A

Inflammatory phase (first 48 hours): PMNs
then it’s got engulfed by macrophages
Next 3 days: Macrophages

149
Q

In wound healing, fibroblast relay which type of collagen

A

Fibroblasts lay down type 3 collagen initially and subsequently type 1 collagen, which is strong collagen
(Remodelling)

150
Q

Complete tensile strength of the wound take a period of what

A

12 weeks

151
Q

What is carcinoma

A

malignancy of epithelial origin

152
Q

What is sarcoma

A

malignancy of mesenchymal origin

153
Q

What is teratoma

A

neoplasm that contains more than 1 germ cell layer

154
Q

What is Hamartoma

A

non-malignant mass of disorganized but mature tissue indigenous to the site

155
Q

A radiologically detectable tumor is

A
  • 10 mm in size
  • has 10`9 cells
156
Q

All cancer can be metastasize except

A

Basal cell carcinoma and glioma

157
Q

What is p53

A
  • is a transcription factor regulates cell cycle
  • is a tumor supressor
  • located on chromosome 17
158
Q

functions of p53

A
  1. activates DNA repair
  2. Initiates Apoptosis
159
Q

Autosomal dominant syn. linked to mutation to p53

A

Li-Fraumeni Syn.

(has a 25 fold greater chance of developing malignancy by age of 50

160
Q

The probability of sarcomatous change occurring in fibroid is?

A

0.1% ##

161
Q

Midazolam is an effectve anxiolytc drug, used for preoperatve sedaton. Which receptor is responsible for its acton?

A

GABA

162
Q

What histology constitutes the majority of vulvar cancers?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

163
Q

What is the most common congenital solid tumour of the mature newborn?

A

Neuroblastoma

164
Q

What is the most common cause of the female urethral caruncle

A

Hypoestrogenism

165
Q

Which is common malignant tumor in premature newborn?

A

Sarcococcygeal teratoma

166
Q

Which pattern of endometrium do simple endometrial hyperplasia most likely
resemble?

A

Proliferative endometrium

167
Q

Schiller Duval Bodies is found in

A

endodermal sinus tumor

168
Q

What is the most common congenital solid tumor of the newborn?

A

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

169
Q

Which ovarian tumor is associated with Meig’s syndrome?

A

Fibroma

170
Q

Which organ/system involved with Krukenberg tumor of the ovary?

A

GIT

171
Q

what is the most common cause of the female urethral caruncle?

A

Hypoestrogenism

172
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with carrying the BRCA1 gene. What is her life time risk of breast cancer and ovarian cancer?

A

80% Uterine
40% Ovarian
60-90% Breast

173
Q

What type of epithelial tissue undergoes malignant change in the majority of bladder cancers?

A

Transitional

174
Q

Which prominent cells are found in the tuberculosis granuloma?

A

Macrophages

175
Q

Which neoplasm is characteristically associated with paraneoplastic syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

A

Small cell lung cancer

176
Q

Incidence of leiomyoma to leiomyosarcoma

A

0.1%

177
Q

Most common malignant tumor of the ovary

A

Papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma

178
Q

Aria stella reaction effects on

A

Endometrium

179
Q

Mismatch repair defect in Lynch syndrome is associated with most common
extraintestinal cancer

A

Endometrial cancer

180
Q

What is lynch syndrome

A

Lynch syndrome used to be called hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC). HNPCC is a term used to describe families with a strong history of colon cancer.

181
Q

Inheritance pattern of lynch syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant

182
Q

What type of cancer is linked to lichen planus

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

183
Q

Most common degeneration of fibroid in non pregnant women

A

Hyaline degeneration

184
Q

Psammoma bodies contain

A

Calcium

185
Q

Which layer ablated for mennorrhegia

A

Basal layer of endometrium

186
Q

Rate of gestational diabetes in pregnancy

A

2-5% of pregnancies

187
Q

Presentation of acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

Abdominal pain
lethargic
jaundice
deranged liver function
Coagulopathy
hypoglycemia
Hyperurecemia

188
Q

Risk factors of acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

Primigravida
male fetus
multiple pregnancy
obesity

189
Q

Prevalence of acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

1 in 10000 to 20000 pregnancies

190
Q

Mortality rate of  Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

Fetal and maternal mortality = 20%

191
Q

Cause of acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

Fetal deficiency of long chain 3-hydroxyl COA dehydrogenase

192
Q

Histological features of Lichen Sclerosus

A
  • Epidermal atrophy or thinning
  • hydropic degeneration of the basal layer (subepidermal hylainisation)
  • dermal inflammation
193
Q

Infertility rate in patients with endometriosis

A

40%

194
Q

Risk of VIN to be developed into squamous cell carcinoma

A

15%

195
Q

Most common degeneration of fibroid in pregnant women

A

Red degeneration

MRCOG - PART 1 (15 decks)

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