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RADIOLOGIC PATHOLOGY > PATHO - MIDTERM L2 (Skeletal System) > Flashcards

PATHO - MIDTERM L2 (Skeletal System) Flashcards

1
Q

A hard, dense, connective tissue that forms most of the adult skeleton

A

Bone Tissue / Osseous Tissue

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2
Q

The body system composed of bones, cartilages, ligaments and other tissues that perform essential functions for the
human body

A

Skeletal System

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3
Q

The number of individual bones an adult body skeletal system have

A

206

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4
Q

Runs along the body’s midline axis and is made up of 80 bones

A

Axial Skeleton

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5
Q

Two major divisions of bones

A
  1. Axial Skeleton
  2. Appendicular Skeleton
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6
Q

Made up of 126 bones in the following regions

A

Appendicular Skeleton

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7
Q

Auditory Ossicles belongs to which bone division ?

A

Axial Skeleton

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8
Q

The skeletal system’s primary
function is to form a _______ that supports and protects the body’s organs and anchors the skeletal muscles.

A

Solid Framework

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9
Q

The bones of the axial skeleton
act as a hard shell to protect the internal organs such as the _____ and the ______ from damage

A
  1. Brain
  2. Heart
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10
Q

Give the Functions of the Skeletal System:

A
  1. Support and Protection
  2. Movement
  3. Hematopoiesis
  4. Storage
  5. Growth and Development
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11
Q

A serious dominant, congenital disease that affects the newborn skeletal system

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

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12
Q

Most common inherited disorder that results in malformation and dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

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13
Q

Patients with Achondroplasia manifest a _______ - sized trunk but ______ extremities.

A
  1. Normal
  2. Shortened
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14
Q

Involves increase in bone density and defective bone contour

A

Osteopetrosis

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15
Q

A common form of
osteosclerotic
osteoporosis that is
considered a benign skeletal anomaly involving bone density.

A

Albers - Schonberg

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16
Q

Osteopetrosis is also known as

A

Marble Bone

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17
Q

Failure of the fingers and toes to separate that gives a physical appearance of a webbed digit

A

Syndactyly

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18
Q

The presence of extra digits

A

Polydactyly

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19
Q

Malformation of the acetabulum due to incomplete formation resulting in displacement of the head of the femur.

A

Congenital Dislocation of the Hip

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20
Q

Soft brace that helps hold the baby’s legs to allow hip joint alignment and stability for correct development

A

Pavlik Harness

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21
Q

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that tends to
affect female more frequently

A

Scoliosis

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22
Q

Scoliosis may be convex to the right in the ______ or left in the ______

A

Right = Thoracic Region

Left = Lumbar Region

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23
Q

An incomplete closure of the vertebral canal particularly
in the lumbosacral area which results in failure of bony fusion of the two
laminae that is visible radiographically

A

Spina Bifida

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24
Q

Premature or early
closure of any of the cranial suture, causing overgrowth in the fused sutures and allows the brain to grow

A

Craniosynostosis

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25
Q

Results in no formation if the brain and
cranial vault leaving only the facial bones to be formed

A

Anencephaly

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26
Q

Infection of the
bone and bone marrow resulting from a direct infection such as an
open fracture.

A

Osteomyelitis

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27
Q

A chronic inflammatory
disease affecting the ends of
long bones or of the spine

A

Tuberculosis

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28
Q

Also known as the tuberculosis of the spine

A

Pott’s Disease

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29
Q

Inflammation of the joints

A

Arthritis

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30
Q

Acute Arthritis is commonly caused by pyogenic arthritis, brought upon by mainly (3):

A
  1. Staphylocci
  2. Streptococci
  3. Gonococci
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31
Q

Chronic
inflammatory disorder affecting the synovial joints; common in
women aged 20 to 50

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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32
Q

A progressive form of arthritis that is a chronic condition affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints
of males aged 10 to 30 years.

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

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33
Q

Other term for bone fusion

A

Ankylosis

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34
Q

Most common type of arthritis known for as degenerative joint disease

A

Osteoarthritis

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35
Q

Inflammation of the tendons

A

Tendonitis

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36
Q

Inflammation of the bursa which is surrounded with synovial membrane

A

Bursitis

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37
Q

A metabolic disorder common in women post
menopause in which there is an abnormal decrease in bone density

A

Osteoporosis

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38
Q

Severe osteoporosis may lead to a _____

A

Compression Fracture

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39
Q

Metabolic condition due to lack of calcium in the
tissues and a failure of bone to calcify.

A

Osteomalacia

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40
Q

Under Osteomalacia which is caused by Vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Rickets

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41
Q

It is the most common in
elderly of unknown etiology that may lead to hearing and vision disturbances and even to malignant neoplastic disease of the skeletal system, osteogenic sarcoma

A

Paget’s Disease

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42
Q

Endocrine disorder due to disturbance of the pituitary gland characterized by slowly progressive increase in growth of the hormone that will thicken and make the bone coarse

A

Acromegaly

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43
Q

A discontinuity of bone caused by mechanical forces either applied to the bone or transmitted directly along the line of a bone.

A

Fractures

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44
Q

Fractures wherein the bone penetrates the skin

A

Open / Compound Fractures

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45
Q

A fracture in which the skin is not penetrated, thus reducing
the chance of infection.

A

Closed Fracture

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46
Q

Fractures indicating the bone’s separation into two fragments

A

Complete, Non-comminuted Fracture

47
Q

Only part of the bony structure gives way, with little or no displacement

A

Incomplete Fracture

48
Q

Complete fractures that are at right angles to the long axis of the bone

A

Transverse Fracture

49
Q

A type of incomplete fracture that extends from the surface into but not all the way
through a long bone

A

Fissure Fracture

50
Q

The axis of the fracture is neither parallel nor perpendicular to the bone with the length and angle of the fracture depending on the rotational stress

A

Oblique Fracture

51
Q

The bone appears to be twisted apart; this is very common in the humerus, and especially the tibia of skiers

A

Spiral Fracture

52
Q

A lengthwise break in the bone

A

Longitudinal Fracture

53
Q

One bone fragment is driven into another

A

Impacted Fracture

54
Q

Type of impacted fracture especially common in the distal radius of children

A

Torus Fracture

55
Q

The bone is separated into two or more and often numerous fragments

A

Comminuted Fracture

56
Q

Fracture of a bone in two district places

A

Double Fracture

57
Q

Fragment of bone is pulled away from the shaft

A

Avulsion

58
Q

Fractures that usually occur as a result of a strong, violent force at sites of maximal strain on a bone, usually in connection with unaccustomed
activity

A

Stress / Fatigue Fracture

59
Q

Commonly a transverse fracture occurring in abnormal bone that is
weakened by various disease

A

Pathologic Fracture

60
Q

A fracture of the base of the first metacarpal with involvement of the first carpometacarpal joint

A

Bennett’s Fracture

61
Q

A fracture through the distal one-inch of the radius

A

Colle’s Fracture

62
Q

A reverse Colle’s fracture with displacement toward the palmar aspect of the hand

A

Smith’s Fracture

63
Q

A common pediatric fracture in which there is an alteration in the alignment of
the condyles may come to lie directly under the shaft of the humerus

A

Supracondylar Fracture

64
Q

Usually caused by falling on one’s hand

A

Carpal-Navicular Fracture

65
Q

Fracture that involves both malleoli, with dislocations of the ankle joint

A

Pott’s Fracture

66
Q

The exact location and severity of a hip fracture depend on the direction of the
forces involved.

A

Hip Fractures

67
Q

Most common types of Hip Fractures:

A
  1. Subcapital Hip Fracture
  2. Transcervical Hip Fracture
  3. Interthrocanteric Hip Fracture
68
Q

Fracture of the lateral and medial malleolus

A

Bimalleolar Fracture

69
Q

Fracture encompassing the medial malleolus, lateral malleolus, and the posterior distal tibia

A

Trimalleolar Fracture

70
Q

A common transverse fracture that occurs when the foot is
suddenly twisted when the ankle pronates

A

Fracture of the Base of the Fifth Metatarsal

71
Q

Occurs when a person falls directly on the patellae, shattering it

A

Stellate Fracture

72
Q

A comminuted fracture in which there are one or more butterfly wing or wedge shaped
fragments split off from the main fragments

A

Butterfly Fracture

73
Q

The cortex breaks on one side without separation or breaking of the opposing
cortex

A

Greenstick Fracture

74
Q

Type of complete, non-comminuted fracture in which two or more complete
fractures occur involving the shaft of a single bone

A

Multiple Fractures

75
Q

An avulsion fracture of a small fragment or chip of bone from the cornet of a phalanx or other
long bone

A

Chip Fracture

76
Q

Type of incomplete fracture resulting from penetration by a sharp object such a bullet or a
knife

A

Penetrating Fracture

77
Q

Occurs when the fifth metacarpal fractures as a result of a blow to or with the hand

A

Boxer’s Fracture

78
Q

Fracture in one of the proximal third of the ulna shift, with anterior dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia Fracture

79
Q

Appear as straight sharply defined, non-branching
lines and are intensely radiolucent

A

Linear Fracture

80
Q

Appears as curvilinear density because the
fracture edges are overlapped.

A

Depressed Fracture

81
Q

Very difficult to demonstrate
radiographically.

A

Basilar Skull Fractures

82
Q

Generally result from a blow to
the face

A

Facial Bone Fracture

83
Q

Maybe difficult
to recognize initially because of the edema

A

Zygomatic Arch Fracture

84
Q

Generally detected by the patients inability to open the mouth and pain
when moving the mandible.

A

Mandibular Fracture

85
Q

Serious because
of the adjacent nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses,
orbit and close proximity of the brain

A

Fractures of the Maxila

86
Q

Results from a direct blow to the front of the orbit,
thus transferring the force to the orbital walls and floor.

A

Blow-out Fracture

87
Q

Occurs when the zygomatic or malar bone is fractured
at all three sutures: frontal, temporal and maxillary

A

Tripod Fracture

88
Q

May be accompanied by a fracture of the ascending process of the maxillae and/or the nasal
septum, which is composed of the vomer and the perpendicular
plate of the ethmoid bone

A

Nasal Bone Fracture

89
Q

A bone out of its joint and not in contact with its normal articulation

A

Dislocation

90
Q

Partial dislocation often occurring with a fracture

A

Subluxation

91
Q

The most common condition of the vertebral column

A

Generalized Back Pain

92
Q

Are the most frequent type of injury involving a
vertebral body.

A

Compression Fractures

93
Q

A fracture of the arch of the second cervical vertebrae
and is usually accompanied by anterior subluxation of the second cervical
vertebrae or the third cervical vertebrae.

A

Hangman’s Fracture

94
Q

Exists when there is a cleft or breaking down, of the body of the vertebral between the superior and inferior articular processes

A

Spondylolysis

95
Q

The most common benign bone
tumor, which arises from the growth
zone between the epiphysis and
diaphysis of long bones

A

Osteochondroma

96
Q

A fairly rare lesion
growth most commonly located in the skull in the form of very dense, well-circumscribed, normal bone tissue that usually projects into the orbits or paranasal sinuses

A

Osteoma

97
Q

Osteoma may be also referred to as

A

Hyperostosis Frontalis Interna

98
Q

A slow-growing benign tumor composed of
cartilage found in the marrow space and most commonly affects the small bones of the hands and the feet in individuals between the ages of 10 and 30 years

A

Enchondroma

99
Q

Multiple benign tumor growth in the marrow space

A

Enchondromatosis

100
Q

Common benign tumor in the skeletal system that occur twice as often in males compared with females typically found in the femur, tibia, or spine of young adults

A

Osteoid Osteoma

101
Q

A group of tumors
characterized by the presence of
numerous, multinucleated,
osteoclastic giant cells.

A

Osteoclastoma (Giant Cell Tumor)

102
Q

Most common primary malignancy of the skeleton most frequently found in the metaphysis of long bones

A

Osteosarcoma (Osteogenic Sarcoma)

103
Q

Approximately ____ of the knee is affected by Osteosarcoma

A

50 %

104
Q

Also a primary malignancy of the skeletal system occurring at a younger age that arises from the medullary canal and involves the bone more diffusely

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

105
Q

A malignant tumor of cartilaginous origin and is composed of a typical cartilage that is about as half as common as osteosarcoma

A

Chondrosarcoma

106
Q

The bones of the skeletal system that contains ___________ are the major bones affected by metastatic diseases because of their good vascularization

A

Red Bone Marrow

107
Q

Fractures belong to which classification of disease

A

Traumatic Diseases

108
Q

Pavlik Harness is renowned as a ______ brace, meaning that it is not rigid and allows babies to move their legs

A

Dynamic

109
Q

Polydactyly occurring on the first digit

A

Preaxial / Radial Polydactyly

110
Q

Polydactyly between the second and third digits

A

Central Polydactyly

111
Q

Excess digits near the fifth digit

A

Postaxial / Ulnar Polydactyly

112
Q

Partial webbing of digits leaving minimal space between conjoined digits

A

Incomplete Syndactyly

113
Q

Fingers are joined all the way to the tip

A

Complete Syndactyly

114
Q

____ bones comprise the Axial Skeleton, with _____ bones oppositely covering the Appendicular Skeleton

A

Axial = 80 Bones
Appendicular = 126 Bones

RADIOLOGIC PATHOLOGY (4 decks)

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