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Pathology > Path Final - Integument TS > Flashcards

Path Final - Integument TS Flashcards

Butler's Integument * = not in yellow or in long notes

1
Q

What is the typical transit time of a single keratinocyte?

A

one month

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2
Q

What structure provides intracellular adhesion between keratinocytes?

A

desmosomes

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3
Q

What structure provides attachment of epidermis to basement membrane?

A

hemidesmosomes

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4
Q

What are the 3 components of the basement membrane zone?

A

hemidesmosomes
lamina lucida
lamina densa

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5
Q

What pathogens are able to penetrate the skin?

A

Hookworm larvae

Shistosoma

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6
Q

What 2 pathogens penetrate through hair follicle opening?

A

demodex, staph

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7
Q

What cells in the skin produce pro-inflammatory cytokines and present antigens to T-lymphos?

A

Langerhans cells

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8
Q

What part of the skin adaptive immunity kills virus infected cells and neoplastic cells?

A

CD8-T cells

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9
Q

What part of the skin adaptive immunity activates macrophages to eliminate intracellular bacteria?

A

CD4 TH1 cells

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10
Q

What part of the skin adaptive immunity activates B cells, mast cells, and eosinophils to produce immunoglobulins?

A

CD4 TH2 cells

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11
Q

What part of the skin innate immune system express adhesion molecules and trigger kinin, coagulation, and complement systems which facilitates leukocyte migration?

A

endothelial cells

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12
Q

What part of the innate immune system of the skin initiates the toll signaling pathway and promotes expression of pro-inflammatory mediators?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells

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13
Q

What part of the skin adaptive immune system produces cytokines and growth factors which modulate adaptive immune responses?

A

keratinocytes

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14
Q

What is the term for the diffuse thickining of the stratum spinosum?

A

acanthosis

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15
Q

What is the term for loss of desmosomal function and occurs in diseases like pemphigus?

A

acantholysis

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16
Q

What is the term for intracellular edema that occurs with injury and infection?

A

ballooning degeneration

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17
Q

What is the term for INTERcellular edema in the skin?

A

Spongiosis

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18
Q

What is the term for INTRAcellular edema in the basal layer of the skin only? What disease is it common in?

A

hydropic degeneration

common in cutaneous lupus

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19
Q

What are the 7 steps in order for regeneration and repair of the skin? What is their time frames?

A
  1. Blood clot (0-12 hrs)
  2. inflammation (12-24 hours)
  3. re-epitheliazation (3-7 days)
  4. fibroplasia(3-7 days)
  5. angiogenesis (3-7 days)
  6. wound contraction(>7 days)
  7. tissue remodeling (weeks to months)
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20
Q

What are macrophages secreting during inflammatory phase of skin repair?

A

collagenase

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21
Q

What are keratinocytes doing during re-epitheliazation phase of skin repair?

A

migrate and proliferate
produce proteases
re-establish BM zone

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22
Q

What 5 things happen during the fibroplasia phase of skin repair?

A

cytokines and growth factors released
fibroblasts migrate and proliferate
fibroblasts produce proteolytic enzymes
fibroblasts produce extracellular matrix proteins

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23
Q

What phases does granulation tissue result from in skin repair?

A

fibroplasia and angiogenesis

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24
Q

What is the term for transformation of squamous epithelial cells into the keratin layers of the stratum corneum, hair, and nails?

A

cornification

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25
Q

What are 2 primary cornification disorders?

A

primary seborrhea - cocker spaniel

icthyosis

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26
Q

What nutritional disorder can cause secondary cornification?

A

vitamin A deficiency

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27
Q

What is the term for epidermal hyperplasia in response to chronic stimuli?

A

acanthosis

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28
Q

What is the term for premature keratinization of epidermal cells?

A

dyskeratosis

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29
Q

What are the 3 causes of dyskeratosis?

A

zinc responsive dermatosis
actinic keratosis
SCC

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30
Q

What 2 immune mediated disorders cause apoptosis of the epidermis?

A

lupus erythematosus

erythema multiforme

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31
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration of the epidermis?

A

erosion - necrosis of superficial epidermis

ulceration - necrosis of full epidermis and partial dermis

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32
Q

What 2 etiologic agents can cause spongiosis?

A

Staph or Malessezia

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33
Q

What are the 3 causes of hydropic degeneration?

A

lupus erythematosus
dermatomyositis
drug eruptions

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34
Q

What are 2 viruses that can cause ballooning degeneration?

A

pox viruses

FMD virus

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35
Q

What disease does acantholysis occur in superficial epidermis?

A

pemphigus foliaceus

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36
Q

What disease does acantholysis occur in the deep epidermis resulting in suprabasilar vesicles and clefts with tombstoning ulceration?

A

pemphigus vulgaris

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37
Q

What protein is involved in pemphigus foliaceus? pemphigus vulgaris?

A

foliaceus - desmoglein 1

vulgaris - desmoglein 1 + 3

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38
Q

What 2 skin infections can cause acantholysis with subsequent neutrophilic enzymatic destruction?

A

bacterial pyoderma

dermatophytosis

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39
Q

What are vesicles that are greater than 1 cm in width?

A

bulla

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40
Q

What viral infections can cause vesicles/bulla?

A

herpes, pox, morbillivirus, rhabdo, picorna

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41
Q

What is the term used to describe complete seperation of the epidermis from the dermis such as in bullous pemphigoid?

A

subepidermal vesicle

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42
Q

What 3 conditions can result in pustules being formed by eosinophil accumulation in the epidermis?

A

ectoparasite bite
pemphigoid rxn
feline eosinophilic dz

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43
Q

What 2 diseases/infections cause exocytosis of lymphocytes?

A

lupus erythematosus

malessezia sp.

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44
Q

What are the 2 pathways of hyperpigmentation and what are the causes of each?

A

increased production of melanin - chronic dermatitis, hyperadrenocorticocism
increased melanocytes - lentigo, melanocytic neoplasia

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45
Q

What nutritional deficiency can cause hypopigmentation?

A

copper deficiency

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46
Q

What is the histologic feature that refers to melanin within macrophages?

A

pigmentary incontinence

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47
Q

What is the laymans term for exuberant granulation tissue that may occur on distal limbs of horses?

A

proud flesh

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48
Q

What 2 conditions can cause collagen dysplasia?

A

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

cutaneous asthenia

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49
Q

What is the term for chronic exposure to the sun that causes increased numbers of elastic fibers in superficial dermis?

A

solar elastosis

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50
Q

What can trigger amyloid depostion in the dermis? What species can it be seen in?

A

monoclonal gammopathy of plasma cell tumors or by dermatomyositis, seen rarely in dogs and horses

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51
Q

What is the term for mucin or hyaluron (glycosaminoglycan) accumulation in the skin? What diseases can cause it?

A

cutaneous myxedema

seen with hypothyroidism, mucinosis of shar pei

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52
Q

What is the cause of dystrophic calcification of the skin?

A

cushings - calcinosis cutis

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53
Q

What type of calcification of the skin is caused by hypercalcemia?

A

metastatic

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54
Q

What cell types characterize chronic dermatitis?

A

mononuclear leukocytes

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55
Q

What are the 4 alterations of growth in the dermis?

A
  1. atrophy
  2. fibrosis (granulation)
  3. collagen dysplasia
  4. solar elastosis
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56
Q

What are the 3 abnormal deposits in the dermis?

A

amyloid, mucin, calcium

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57
Q

What is the term for abnormal development of follicles and hair shafts that frequently causes alopecia?

A

follicular dysplasia

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58
Q

What is the scientific name for ingrown hair?

A

furunculosis

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59
Q

What is the term for inflammation of the apocrine glands of the adnexa?

A

hidradenitis

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60
Q

What are the 2 species most commonly affected by vasculitis?

A

dogs and horses

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61
Q

What are the 3 classical examples of vasculitis?

A

type 3 hypersensitivity - SLE
endotheliotropic infections - rickettsia, herpes, FIP
bacterial embolism - erysipelothrix

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62
Q

What is the term for inflammation of sub Q adipose tissue?

A

panniculitis

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63
Q

What are 2 causes of non-genetic congenital alopecia and hypotrichosis?

A

maternal iodine deficiency

in utero pestivirus (BVD, CSF)

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64
Q

What are some causes of panniculitis?

A

infections, immune, injury, nutritional, pancreatic dz, idiopathic

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65
Q

What are some causes of vasculitis??

A

infection, immune, toxins, DIC, idiopathic

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66
Q

What are 3 rare diseases that can cause congenital collagen dysplasia disorders?

A

hyperelastosis cutis
dermatosparaxis
cutaneous asthenia

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67
Q

What is a congenital disorder that causes development of cutaneous blisters in response to minor mechanical trauma?

A

epidermolysis bullosa (red foot dz)

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68
Q

What is the term for failure of the epidermis to develop completely?

A

epitheliogeneisis imperfecta (aplasia cutis)

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69
Q

What species can get congenital hypertrichosis? What are the other names for this condition?

A

sheep - excessive fleece

aka border dz (pesitivirus), hairy shaker dz

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70
Q

What species and breed can get congenital dermatosis vegetans?

A

landrace pigs

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71
Q

What is the cause of Type 1 photosensitization?

A

ingestion of certain plants/drugs like hypericum perforatum, fagopyrum esculentum, phenothiazine

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72
Q

What causes Type 2 photosensitization?

A

porphyrin metabolism

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73
Q

What causes Type 3 photosensitization?

A

most common - liver dz –> reduced ability to exrete phylloerythirn

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74
Q

What are the 3 immune mediated disorders that are aggravated by UV radiation?

A

lupus erythematosus
dermatomyositis
photoactivated vasculitis in horse

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75
Q

Which toxin can cause peripheral vasoconstriction and endothelial damage leading to ischemic necrosis of the extremities?

A

Ergot poisoning

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76
Q

What common pasture plant can become infected with fungus and cause skin problems?

A

Tall fescue

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77
Q

What supplement leads to competitive replacement of sulfur in keratin and causes poor hair coat and alopecia?

A

selenium

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78
Q

What toxin is a legume and can cause immune mediated chemical injury of the skin?

A

hairy vetch

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79
Q

Whats the veterinary word for “hot spots”?

A

pyotraumatic dermatitis

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80
Q

What is the veterinary word for skin fold dermatitis?

A

intertrigo

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81
Q

What self inflicted skin injury happens in cats around dorsal neck?

A

feline ulcerative dermatitis syndrome

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82
Q

What are the classifications of thermal burns?

A

First degree - epidermis only
2nd degree - epidermis and part of dermis
3rd degree - full thickness necrosis of skin

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83
Q

What stage of hair growth are thyroid hormones responsible for?

A

anagen

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84
Q

What are the causes of hyperestrogenism in both male and female dogs?

A

female - ovarian cysts or tumors

males - fxnal sertoli cell tumor

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85
Q

What type of hypersensitivites cause urticaria?

A

Type 1 and 3

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86
Q

What is the term for a genetic predisposition to inflammatory and pruritic allergic skin dz?

A

atopy

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87
Q

What hypersensitivity and antibody is involved in atopic dermatitis?

A

type 1

IgE

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88
Q

What causes “sweet itch” in horses?

A

Cullicoides spp

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89
Q

What hypersensitivity types are involved in insect bite hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1 and 4

90
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with insect bite hypersensitivity?

A

papular to exudative dermatitis and miliary dermatitis(cats)

91
Q

What hypersensitivity is allergic contact dermatitis?

92
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with allergic contact dermatitis?

A

erythema, papules, exudation

93
Q

Which hypersensitivity disorder of the skin could be all 4 types?

A

drug hypersensitivity

94
Q

What is the pathogenesis of pemphigus foliaceus?

A

autoantibodies + desmoglein 1 in superficial epidermis resulting in subcorneal pustules

95
Q

What are the histologic lesions associated with pemphigus foliaceus?

A

acantholytic keratinocytes and subcorneal pustules

96
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with pemphigus vulgaris?

A

vesiculo-ulcerative lesions of oral mucosa/skin

97
Q

What are the histologic lesions associated with pemphigus vulgaris?

A

suprabasilar vesicles, pustules, acantholytic keratinocytes and tombstoning of basal cells

98
Q

What causes bullous pemphigoid?

A

autoantibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins

99
Q

What are the histologic lesions associated with bullous pemphigoid?

A

subepidermal vesicles and bullae

100
Q

What type hypersensitivity is systemic lupus erythematosus?

101
Q

What is a diagnostic aid for systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

elevation of antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer (ANA is negative in discoid)

102
Q

What organs are involved in discoid lupus erythematosus?

103
Q

Where do the lesions aoccur in discoid lupus?

A

nasal planum, dorsal nose, pinna, lips, periocular

104
Q

What disease is associated with numerous apoptotic keratinocytes within multiple layers of the epidermis?

A

erythema multiforme

105
Q

What is the life threatening form of erythema multiforme that results in full thickness epidermal necrosis?

A

toxic epidermal necrolysis

106
Q

What is the most pathogenic pox viruses?

A

sheeppox and goatpox

107
Q

What is the pathogenesis of pox viruses?

A

stimulation of host DNA causes epidermal and dermal hyperplasia –> vascular injury and ischemic necrosis

108
Q

*What is the order of lesion development of pox viruses?

A

Macule –>papule–>vesicle–>umbilicated pustule–>crust –> scar

109
Q

What is a diagnostic feature of histologic lesions of pox viruses?

A

intracytoplasmic eosinophilic viral inclusion bodes

110
Q

What are the 2 dermatotropic herpesviruses?

A

bovine herpes 2 - ulcerative mammilitis

bovine herpes 4 - mammary pustular dermatitis

111
Q

What does herpes virus infection of endothelial cells cause? What is an example?

A

vasculitis and cutaneous infarction

malignant catarrhal fever

112
Q

*What is the lesion development order of herpes virus?

A

vesicle –> ulcer –> crusts

113
Q

What are 2 viruses that cause oncogenesis in the skin?

A

marek’s dz - cutaneous follicular lymphoma

sea turtle fibropapillomatosis

114
Q

What species do sarcoids form most in?

A

cats

horses - most common skin tumor (bovine papilloma virus)

115
Q

*What are other examples of viruses causing cutaneous lesions?

A

picorna (FMD), rhabdo, calici, parvo, retro

116
Q

Which species gets the most bacterial skin infections? *Reasons?

A

dog - thin corneum, low lipid, high pH, genetics

117
Q

What bacteria causes canine superficial pyoderma and deep pyoderma?

A

staph pseudintermedius

118
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with canine superficial pyoderma?

A

collarettes

*erythema, macules, papules, pustules, crusts

119
Q

*What are the histologic lesions associated with canine superficial pyoderma?

A

pustules, serocellular crusts, superficial suppurative luminal follciulitis

120
Q

What bacteria cause impetigo?

A

S. aureus, intermedius, pseudintermedius, schleiferi

121
Q

What are the gross and histologic lesions seen in impetigo?

A

gross - multifocal pustules and crusts

histo - NON-FOLLICULAR subcorneal pustules with serocellula crusting

122
Q

What bacteria causes exudative epidermitis of pigs (greasy pig dz)?

A

Staph hyicus

123
Q

What bacteria causes dermatophilosis (rain rot, rain scald)?

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

*railroad like, gram positive

124
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with dermatophilosis?

A

THICK CRUSTS, papules, pustules

125
Q

What bacteria causes ovine fleece rot and what infection can it predispose the sheep to?

A

Pseudomonas sp.

predispose to myiasis

126
Q

What are the 6 bacterial infections that are superficial?

A

canine superficial pyoderma, impetigo, canine mucocutaneous pyoderma, greasy pig dz, dermatophilosis, fleece rot

127
Q

What deep bacterial pyoderma causes infection AND foreign body type inflammation?

A

bacterial folliculitis and furunculosis

128
Q

What species most commonly gets subcutaneous abcessation? *What are the causes?

A

cats

*causes - puncture, foreign body, injections, shearing, clipping wounds

129
Q

What is the term for suppurative inflammation of the dermis, subcutis, and underlying muscle?

A

cellullitis

130
Q

What infectious disease of the skin is caused by Strep canis and is life threatening due to septic shock?

A

necrotizing fasciitis

131
Q

What are the acid fast stains, Ziehl-Neelsen and Fite-Faraco stain good at identifying?

A

mycobacteria

132
Q

How do mycobacteria survive inside macrophages?

A

preventing fusion of phagosomes and lysosomes

133
Q

What kind of mycobacterium cause tuberculosis and leprosy?

A

obligate intracellular pathogens - M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. lepraemurium

134
Q

*What filamentous bacteria can cause granulomas?

A

nocardia, actinomyces, streptomyces

135
Q

*What is non-filamentous bacterial granulomas caused?

A

botryomycosis

136
Q

What species most commonly gets sterile granuloma and pyogranuloma syndrome?

137
Q

What species and what age get juvenile sterile granulomatous dermatitis and lymphadenitis? What is the pathogenesis?

A

puppies <4 months

path - unknown

138
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms that sepsis can lead to skin lesions by affecting blood vessels?

A
  1. bacterial embolism
  2. toxins
  3. direct infection of vascular endothelial cells
  4. immune complex (type 3)
139
Q

What bacteria is responsible for creating skin lesions by bacterial embolization? *What is an example of the disease?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

*diamond skin dz

140
Q

What bacteria causes endotoxin induced venous thrombosis?

A

septicemic salmonellosis

141
Q

What bacteria produces shiga toxin 2e that leads to endothelial damage, vasculitis, and edema dz of pigs?

142
Q

What bacteria produces exotoxin that act as superantigens causing dogs to get toxic shock like syndrome?

A

Staph aureus

143
Q

What bacteria produces an exotoxin that contributes to vascular damage in necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Strep canis

144
Q

What bacteria directly infects endothelial cells leading to vasculitis and necrotic skin lesions?

A

R. rickettsia

145
Q

What fungus causes piedra or trichosporosis or trichomycosis nodularis and causes swelling of extrafollicular hair shaft in dogs and horses?

A

Trichosporon beigelii (superficial mycoses)

146
Q

What parts of the skin get infected in cutaneous mycoses?

A

hair follicles, claws, epidermis

147
Q

What 2 organisms cause dermatophytosis? What is another name for this disease?

A

Microsporum and Trichophyton

Ringworm - cats, young animals

148
Q

What is the histological lesion associated with dermatophytosis?

A

luminal folliculitis

149
Q

What are gross lesions of a candida infection?

A

exudative and fibrinous cheilitis, stomatitis, esophagitis, otitis externa

150
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with a Malessezia pachydermatis infection?

A

erythematous, scaly, lichenified and alopecic dermatitis

151
Q

How can an animal get subcutaneous mycoses? What does it lead to?

A

caused by traumatic implantation

leads to nodular granulomatous panniculitis and dermatitis

152
Q

What kind of fungi cause eumycotic mycetoma in horses and dogs?

A

saprophytic fungi

153
Q

What fungi causes dermatophytic pseudomycetoma in persian cats?

A

microsporum canis

154
Q

What kind of fungi causes phaeohyphomycosis?

A

pigmented fungi

155
Q

What disease is usually caused by Sporothrix schenkii in cats?

A

Sporotrichosis

156
Q

What disease is caused by Pythium insidiosum? *What is another name for it?

A

Pythiosis - aka oomycosis, swamp cancer

157
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with Pythiosis?

A

necrotizing subQ nodules that ulcerate and drain

158
Q

What are the 4 fungi that cause systemic mycoses causing cutaneous lesions?

A

Blatomyces dermatitidis
Coccidiodes immitis
Crytococcus neoformans
Histoplasma capsulatum

159
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with systemic mycoses?

A

nodular skin which may have draining tract

160
Q

What are the 2 algae that can cause pyogranulomatous dermatitis and panniculitis?

A

Protothecosis

Chlorellosis

161
Q

What are the gross and histo lesions of demodicosis?

A

Gross - scaly erythematous, thickened, alopecic areas

Histo - lymphocytic mural folliculitis and occasional furunculosis

162
Q

What are the gross and histo lesions of scabies?

A

Gross - same as demodex

Histo - marked acanthosis and hyperkaratosis

163
Q

What mite infection is seen mostly in cats and rabbits and is highly contagious and pruritic?

A

notoedric mites

164
Q

What is a mite that occurs in external ear canal of dogs and cats?

A

otodectic mites

165
Q

What 2 mites infect horses, cattle, sheep, goats?

A

Psoroptic - also rabbits and others

Chorioptic mange

166
Q

What mite occurs in sheep in australia and new zealand?

A

psorergatic mites

167
Q

What mite infection is by larvae of chigger mites?

A

trombiculiasis

168
Q

What mite lives on surface of skin and induces hyperkeratosis and detritus on dorsal midline?

A

cheyletiellosis

169
Q

*What are the terms for biting lice? blood sucking lice?

A

mallophaga - biting lice

anoplura - blood sucking lice

170
Q

What is the term used for lice induced papules, crusts, excoriations and traumatic hair loss?

A

pediculosis

171
Q

What lice is a vector for pig disease and can lead to hypersensitivities?

A

Haemotopinus suis

172
Q

*What is a vector for bluetongue, epizootic hemorrhagic dz and african horse sickness?

A

Culicoides sp

173
Q

What helminth is transmitted by house/stable flies and causes nodular ulcerated areas on horses?

A

cutaneous habronemiasis (summer sores)

174
Q

What 2 filarial dermatitis infections cause granulomatous nodules on the ventral midline of horses? Cows?

A

Onchocerciasis - horses

Stephanofilariasis - cattle (buffalo, goats)

175
Q

What protozoa infection is endemic in foxhounds in the u.s.?

A

Leishmania infantum (cutaneous leishmaniasis)

176
Q

What are the gross lesions of cutaneous leishmaniasis?

A

alopecia, nodules, ulcers where sandflies feed

177
Q

What 4 protozoal infections are cutaneous lesions RARELY seen?

A

toxoplasmosis, neosporosis, sarcocystosis, caryosporosis

178
Q

What epidermal tumor is “pre-malignant” and contains high grade dysplasia without invasiveness?

A

squamous cell carcinoma in situ

179
Q

*What is a frequent site of metastasis for pulmonary cancer in cats?

A

digits (feline metastatic pulmonary carcinoma)

180
Q

*What are the 2 malignant follicular neoplasms?

A

malignant trichoepithelioma

malignant pilomatricoma

181
Q

What non neoplastic malformation composed of dermal collagen is common in dogs?

A

collagenous hamartoma

182
Q

What rare fibrous neoplastic disorder is seen in german shepherds?

A

Canine nodular dermatofibrosis

183
Q

What is another name for skin tag?

A

acrochordon

184
Q

What cell shape is a sarcoid?

185
Q

What is the name for benign endothelial cell tumor seen with UV radiation?

A

hemangioma

186
Q

What neoplasia arises from pericytes that surround BV and is similar to fibrosarcoma?

A

hemangiopericytoma

187
Q

What is a merkel cell tumor?

A

cutaneous neuroendocrine tumor

188
Q

What are other names for benign peripheral nerve sheath tumor(PNST)?

A

shwannoma, neurofibroma

189
Q

What tumor is patnaik histologic grading scheme used for to determine prognosis?

A

canine mast cell tumors

190
Q

What age is canine cutaneous histiocytoma seen? What cells does it arise from?

A

<3 years

langerhans cells

191
Q

What stages of lesions are seen in epitheliotropic lymphoma?

A

patch -> plaque -> tumor

192
Q

What sterile granulomatous disease is associated with high cholesterol?

A

xanthogranuloma

193
Q

What breed gets canine zinc-responsive dermatitis characterized by scaling and crusting on the face?

A

siberian huskies, malamutes

194
Q

What causes feline paraneoplastic alopecia?

A

old cats - metastatic pancreatic or biliary carcinoma

195
Q

What tumor causes feline exfoliative dermatitis?

A

old cats with thymoma, also seen in dogs and rabbits

196
Q

What are 2 other names for canine hepatocutaneous syndrome? What is it associated with?

A

superficial necrolytic dermatitis, diabetic dermatopathy

associated with deranged nutrient metabolism

197
Q

What breed gets nodular dermatofibrosis?

A

german shepherds

198
Q

What lesions are seen in paraneoplastic pemphigus?

A

mucosal to mucocutaneous vesicles/pustules, may present before cancer signs

199
Q

*What adnexal glands open directly onto skin surface and undergo merocrine secretion?

A

atrichial glands

200
Q

*What glands undergo holocrine secretion (by membrane rupture)?

A

sebaceous glands

201
Q

*What are the apocrine glands that open into the hair follicle?

A

epitrichial glands

202
Q

*Which form of hyperkeratosis has anuclear squamous epithelial cells?

A

orthokeratosis

203
Q

*Which form of hyperkeratosis has nuclei in the squamous cells and is seen with zinc responsive dermatosis?

A

parakeratosis

204
Q

*What are the 3 subtypes of orthokeratosis?

A

basket weave, compact, laminated

205
Q

*What 2 diseases can cause pigmentary incontinence?

A

lupus erythromatosus, vitiligo

206
Q

*What causes calcinosis circupscripta?

A

idiopathic deposition

207
Q

*What disease causes clumping of melanin pigment and increased hair shaft fragility?

A

color dilution follicular dysplasia

208
Q
  • What is a disease that causes bulbitis?
A

alopecia areata

209
Q

*What virus causes congenial hypertrichosis?

A

in utero pestivirus

210
Q

*What bacteria causes impetigo?

A

coagulase positive staph

211
Q

*What are histo features of canine mucocutaneous pyoderma?

A

lichenoid inflammation and pigmentary incontinence

212
Q

*What gross lesions do horses develop during bacterial folliculitis and furunculosis?

A

saddle sores, greasy heel, scratches

213
Q

*What bacteria causes necrotizing fascitis?

A

Strep canis

214
Q

*What kind of bacteria cause mycobacteriosis?

A

saprophytic mycobacterium

215
Q

*What is the mild condition, piedra, caused by in dogs and horses?

A

Trichosporon beigelii

216
Q

*What infection do Pythium insidiosum and Lagenidium sp. cause?

A

Oomycosis (aquatic dimorphic water molds)

217
Q

*What is the vector for swinepox, ASF, and eperthyrozoon suis?

A

Haemotopinus suis

218
Q

*What 3 orbiviruses are transmitted by cullicoides?

A

bluetongue, epizootic hemorrhagic dz, african horse sickness

219
Q

*What disease do Ancylostoma sp or Uncinaria sp cause?

A

hookworm dermatitis

220
Q

*Which disease are amastigotes found causing nodular granulomatous and ulcerative dermatitis?

A

cutaneous leishmaniasis

221
Q

*What are the 2 malignant follicular neoplasms?

A

malignant trichoepithelioma

malignant pilomatricoma

Pathology (13 decks)

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