PATH - Cardio - Exam Practice Flashcards

1
Q
1. Which of the following conditions is caused by the collection of fluid in the pericardial sac, resulting in tamponade?
A) Pericardial rub
B) Pericardial effusion
C) Cardiomyopathy
D) Constrictive pericarditis
A

B) Pericardial effusion

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2
Q
2. Radiation therapy, hemochromatosis, and amyloidosis could all result in:
A) dilated cardiomyopathy
B) asymmetrical septal hypertrophy
C) hypertensive cardiomyopathy
D) restrictive cardiomyopathy
A

D) restrictive cardiomyopathy

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3
Q
3. Aortic stenosis results in the incomplete emptying of the:
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
A

D) left ventricle.

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4
Q
  1. In the elderly, aortic stenosis usually results from which of the following conditions?
    A) congenital disorders.
    B) rheumatic heart disease.
    C) degeneration and calcification of the valve.
    D) Marfan syndrome.
A

C) degeneration and calcification of the valve.

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5
Q
5. Which of the following valve disorders is likely to result in left ventricular failure?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Aortic regurgitation
C) Mitral regurgitation
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

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6
Q
6. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:
A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) fungi.
D) autoimmunity.
A

B) bacteria

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7
Q
  1. Manifestations of increased left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures in left (congestive) heart failure include:
    A) syncope.
    B) weak pulses and decreased skin temperature.
    C) oliguria.
    D) dyspnea and cough.
A

D) dyspnea and cough.

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8
Q
8. A patient is diagnosed with chronic pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures generally results from this condition?
A) Right heart failure
B) Left heart failure
C) Low-output failure
D) High-output failure
A

A) Right heart failure

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9
Q
9. Of the following diseases, which is the most common cause of right heart failure?
A) Primary hypertension
B) Infective endocarditis
C) Left heart failure
D) Pericarditis
A

C) Left heart failure

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10
Q
10. Which problem is a pathophysiological consequence common to all shock states?
A) Hypoperfusion
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Hypertension
A

A) Hypoperfusion

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11
Q
11. A consequence of switching from aerobic to anaerobic cellular metabolism during shock states is:
A) increased ATP production.
B) cellular dehydration.
C) lactic acidosis.
D) free radical formation.
A

C) lactic acidosis.

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12
Q
12. Which of the following conditions is NOT a potential cause of cardiogenic shock?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Spinal cord injury
C) Tamponade
D) Cardiac arrhythmias
A

B) Spinal cord injury

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13
Q
13. Which of the following shock states manifests with tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and movement of large volumes of interstitial fluid to the vascular compartment?
A) Anaphylactic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Neurogenic
D) Septic
A

D) Septic

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14
Q
14. Causes of hypovolemic shock include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) dehydration.
B) blood loss.
C) brainstem injury.
D) diuresis.
A

C) brainstem injury.

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15
Q
15. Clinical manifestations of hypovolemic shock include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) pulmonary edema.
B) tachycardia.
C) hypotension.
D) oliguria.
A

A) pulmonary edema.

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16
Q
16. Which of the following shock states is characterized by vasodilation of the systemic arteries?
A) Hypovolemic
B) Cardiogenic
C) Distributive
D) All of the above
A

C) Distributive

17
Q
17. Neurogenic shock is caused by:
A) spinal cord injuries below T6.
B) inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system.
C) injury to the cerebral cortex.
D) a lack of sympathetic activity.
A

D) a lack of sympathetic activity.

18
Q
  1. Which of the following pathophysiological events causes the severe hypotension observed in neurogenic shock?
    A) Increased capillary permeability
    B) Diuresis
    C) Decreased peripheral vascular resistance
    D) All of the above
A

C) Decreased peripheral vascular resistance

19
Q
19. Which of the following shock states is characterized by acute, severe bronchoconstriction?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Anaphylactic
C) Hypovolemic
D) All of the above
A

B) Anaphylactic

20
Q
20. Anaphylactic shock occurs in response to severe:
A) viral infections.
B) allergic reactions.
C) brain injuries.
D) burn injuries.
A

B) allergic reactions.

21
Q
  1. Anaphylactic shock manifests with the rapid onset of which set of symptoms?
    A) Bradycardia, decreased arterial pressure, and oliguria
    B) Dyspnea, hypotension, and urticaria
    C) Hypertension, anxiety, and tachycardia
    D) Fever, hypotension, and erythematous rash
A

B) Dyspnea, hypotension, and urticaria

22
Q
  1. What is the primary cause of hypotension in early stages of septic shock?
    A) Blood loss
    B) Arterial vasodilation
    C) Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
    D) Heart failure
A

B) Arterial vasodilation

23
Q
23. High levels of which molecule contributes to the pathophysiology of septic shock?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Angiotensin II
C) Activated protein C
D) Epinephrine
A

A) Nitric oxide

24
Q
  1. Which set of clinical manifestations is highly characteristic of a septic shock state?
    A) Tachycardia, generalized edema, and warm skin
    B) Confusion, bradycardia, and truncal rash
    C) Severe respiratory distress, jugular venous distention, and chest pain
    D) Decreased cardiac output, hypertension, and poor skin turgor
A

A) Tachycardia, generalized edema, and warm skin

25
Q
25. The most common cause of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) septic shock.
C) chronic pulmonary disease.
D) autoimmune disease.
A

B) septic shock.

26
Q
  1. MODS is defined as the progressive dysfunction of two or more organ systems resulting from:
    A) a drug overdose.
    B) severe hemorrhaging.
    C) an uncontrolled inflammatory response.
    D) myocardial depression.
A

C) an uncontrolled inflammatory response.

27
Q
27. In MODS, which of the following events contribute to organ failure?
A) Microvascular clotting
B) Interstitial edema
C) Exhaustion of fuel supply
D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

28
Q
  1. The congenital disorder called tetralogy of Fallot involves stenosis of the pulmonary semilunar valve. Which of the following effects would most directly result from this?
    A) hypertrophy of the left ventricular wall
    B) hypertrophy of the right ventricular wall
    C) dilation of the left atrium
    D) regurgitation of the tricuspid valve
A

B) hypertrophy of the right ventricular wall

29
Q
29. Many valvular stenosis and regurgitation disorders in adults have a common etiology. Which of the following can cause both types of valve dysfunction?
A) Rheumatic heart disease
B) Syphilis infection
C) Connective tissue disorders
D) Heart failure
A

A) Rheumatic heart disease